neonate, community, emergency Flashcards

1
Q

with regards to blood sugars, when is a baby allowed home

A

when CBG is stable after 2 feeds

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2
Q

if symptomatic of hypoglycaemia or very low sugars, what is given

A

10% dextrose

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3
Q

signs of hypoglycaemia in neonate

A

weak cry, apnoea, hypothermia, irritation, jittery, hypotonia, poor feeding

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4
Q

symptoms of fragile X

A

learning difficulties, microcephaly, big testis, mitral valve prolapse

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5
Q

signs of patau T13

A

cleft palate, polydactyl, small eyes, microcephaly

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6
Q

signs of Edwards T18

A

rocker bottom feet, low set ears, overlapping fingers and micrognathia

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7
Q

is intellect normal in turners

A

YES

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8
Q

what investigations do you do for paracetamol OD

A

paracetamol level 4 hr from ingestion, U+E, salicylate level, LFT, glucose, clotting screen, blood gas

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9
Q

what do you do if a paracetamol OD presents within 8 hours

A

take bloods at 4 hr

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10
Q

what do you do if a paracetamol OD presents > 8 hr

A

if taken >150mg/kg start Tx straight away, otherwise wait for paracetamol levels

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11
Q

what do you do if someone presents >24 hours after OD

A

start Tx if they have any symptoms

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12
Q

criteria for liver transplant

A

24 hours after OD:
1) pH <7.3
OR all three of
1) deranged clotting (prothrombin time)
2) creatinine > 300
3) grade III or IV encephalopathy

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13
Q

phenotypical features of someone with FAS

A

smooth philtrum, low set ears, short palpebral fissures, microcephaly

-+signs of withdrawal on birth

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14
Q

a cause for GDD is rett syndrome, what is this?

A

rare neurological disorder that affects young girls and they lose previously acquired skills like purposeful hand movements
-microcephaly + hand wringing

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15
Q

congenital cause of GDD

A

spina bifida

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16
Q

broad causes for GDD

A

-neurological
-infection
-neuromuscular disorders
-genetic disorders
-metabolic disorders (PKU)
-FAS

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17
Q

what investigations do you do firstline for a global developmental delay

A

-FBC and haemantics
-U+E
-CK
-TFT
-LFT (metabolic disorder)
-hearing tests

then second line do karyotyping

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18
Q

what is the limit age of a milestone

A

the age at which the milestone should be met, this is normally 2 standard deviations form the median age of acquisition

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19
Q

what’s the social red flag for developmental milestone

A

no smile by 10 weeks

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20
Q

what’s the gross motor milestone red flag

A

not sitting unsupported by 12 months

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21
Q

what does a health visitor do

A

they assess a Childs development at 6/8 weeks, 9-12 months and 2-2.5 years. They provide support and encouragement to families in the early years

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22
Q

spasticity is velocity

A

dependent

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23
Q

what is dyskinetic cerebral palsy

A

involuntary, unpredictable movement with fluctuating muscle tone

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24
Q

complications of CP

A

epilepsy, hip pain/dislocation, drooling, pain, learning difficulties

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25
Q

signs of PKU

A

hypopigmentation, learning difficulties, microcephaly

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26
Q

when is the newborn exam done and then when is the infant exam done

A

newborn at 72 hours and then infant at 6-8 weeks

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27
Q

shaken baby syndrome is a triad of

A

retinal haemorrhage, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy

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28
Q

in a child < 3months, presenting with a fever, what investigations do you do?

A

blood culture, urine dip, FBC, CRP, stool culture, CXR, lumbar puncture

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29
Q

signs of TTN on CXR

A

fluid in horizontal fissure and hyperinflation of the lungs

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30
Q

RF of neonatal sepsis

A

PROM, mum pyrexia in labour, premature, LBW

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31
Q

Mx of neonatal sepsis

A

IV benzylpenicillin with gentamicin, monitor CRP at 24 hours to check progress

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32
Q

what’s early vs late neonatal sepsis

A

early = birth - 72 hours ]
late = 72 hours - 28 days

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33
Q

causes for late onset neonatal sepsis

A

organisms from environment like staph epidermis or pseudomonas or klebsiella

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34
Q

sepsis 6 in children

A

1) get senior help
2) consider early inotropic support
3) give Abx
4) give fluids
5) give O2
6) take bloods and cultures

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35
Q

how do you treat late onset neonatal sepsis

A

ceftriaxone and amoxicillin

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36
Q

red flags of neonatal sepsis

A

apnoea, seizures, resp distress starting > 4 hours after birth

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37
Q

RF for neonatal jaundice

A

sibling being jaundice + requiring phototherapy, prem, exclusively breastfed

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38
Q

causes for jaundice >14 days (or >21 days if preterm)

A

-physiological
-biliary obstruction
-neonatal hepatitis
-hypothyroidism
-infection
-gilberts

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39
Q

when must a serum bilirubin be measured

A

if baby <35/40 weeks, TCB >250 or if >24 hours old

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40
Q

what IX do you do if baby if jaundice

A

serum bilirubin, measure blood group of mum and baby and check ABO and RhD, TFT, Coombs LFTs, TFT, G6PDH, percutaneous liver biopsy with intraoperative cholangioscopy if delayed

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41
Q

how does phototherapy work for jaundice

A

the blue/green light converts the bilirubin into lumirubin which is easily soluble and easily excreted

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42
Q

if a baby starts showing signs of bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus) what needs to happen

A

exchange transfusion

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43
Q

how does kernicterus present

A

lethargy, hypotonia, poor suck reflex which then progresses to hypertonia, seizures and a high pitched cry

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44
Q

three cardiac causes of cyanosis in the neonate

A

tricuspid atresia, TOF, TGA

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45
Q

apart from cardiac causes of central cyanosis in the newborn, give some other causes

A

1) choanal atresia (cyanosis will be worse when baby feeds)
2) micrognathia
3) congenital lobar emphysema (hyperinflation of one or more pulmonary lobes which then compresses the surrounding lung)
4) CDH (causes pulmonary hypoplasia)
5) apnoea
6) SMA type 1
7) infection

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46
Q

what are the issues with neonatal resuscitation

A

hypoxia, babies have a large SA to weight ratio so get cold very easily and are born wet

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47
Q

how many times do you repeat inflation breaths in neonatal resuscitation

A

after drying baby you give 5 inflation breaths, then reassess and then give another 5 inflation breaths

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48
Q

when do you start CPR on neonate

A

if after 30s of ventilation, HR is still below 60 or not detectable

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49
Q

how often do you reassess for HR and chest movement in neonatal resuscitation

A

every 30 seconds (at rate of 3:1)

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50
Q

where is a cephalohaematoma vs a caput succadeneum

A

cephalohaeamtoma is subperiosteal
caput succadeneum is extraperiosteal

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51
Q

what is the definition of apnoea

A

periods where baby stops breathing for 20s + or less time if there is concurrent bradycardia

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52
Q

why does apnoea of prematurity occur

A

immature respiratory control centre

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53
Q

apart from prematurity, what are some other causes of apnoea

A

infection (sepsis and whooping cough), GORD, anaemia, hypoglycaemia

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54
Q

MX of apnoea

A

1) caffeine therapy (stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors)
2)apnoea monitors in NICU which stimulate baby to start breathing again by tactile stimulation

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55
Q

Rf for SIDS other than cosleeping and parenteral smoking

A

prone sleeping, hyperthermia

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56
Q

protective factors of SIDS

A

breastfeeding, room sharing and use of dummies

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57
Q

although SIDS normally affects premature babies, it can also affect term babies - what is a risk factor for this?

A

maternal diabetes

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58
Q

Xray appearance of surfactant deficiency

A

ground glass appearances

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59
Q

complications of surfactant deficiency

A

pneumothorax, apnoea, IVH, chronic lung disease of prematurity

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60
Q

what causes PPHON

A

MAS or infection (it is caused by the vascular bed being remodelled. Get raised R side pressure in heart and R-L shunting if cardiac defect)

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61
Q

what are the complications of the baby passing meconium in utero

A

1) pneumonitis
2) can cause a pneumothorax

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62
Q

RF for MAS

A

gestation >42 weeks, foetal distress, oligohydraminos, IUGR, maternal hypertension, OC

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63
Q

how can MAS be distinguished from TTN

A

TTN clears spontaneously

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64
Q

what does a chest XR show for MAS

A

hyper inflated lung fields and patchy pulmonary opacities

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65
Q

how can we avoid MAS

A

avoid post dates gestation and fetal hypoxia and if there is evidence of meconium stained liquor then do suctioning

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66
Q

Mx of MAS post delivery

A

suction, O2, Abx for pneumonia cover, surfactant bolus

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67
Q

Rf for premature baby

A

previous premature, multiple preg, being underweight or overweight in pregnancy, smoking or illicit drug use, incompetent cervix

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68
Q

what can be done to prevent preterm labour

A

if the cervix if <25mm then can give vaginal progesterone or do cervical cerclage

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69
Q

what Ix may you do once a preterm baby is born

A

cranial US to check for IVH, blood group and Coombs test, FBC, urea, creatinine, CRP, CXR

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70
Q

list some complications of the preterm infant

A

IVH, NEC, jaundice, RDS, immature renal function, sepsis, immature skin barrier, immature thermoregulation and retinopathy of prematurity

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71
Q

long term complications of the preterm infant

A

-neurodevelopment outcomes
-chronic lung conditions
-hearing and visual impairment

72
Q

RF of retinopathy of prematurity (new vessels form in response to hypoxia)

A

premature, LBW and artificial ventilation

73
Q

Tx of retinopathy of prematurity

A

laser photocoagulation of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors

74
Q

pathophysiology of retinopathy of prematurity

A

in utero the retinall blood vessels are stimulated by hypoxia. When baby is supplemented with oxygen this signal is removed and then when the hypoxia environment returns, the retina responds by producing excessive blood vessels

75
Q

complications of CDH

A

pulmonary hypoplasia and pulmonary hypertension

75
Q

6 advantages of breast feeding

A

1) free
2) lower rates of postnatal depression
3) reduced rates of allergies in adult
4) reduced risk of NEC
5) less likely to become obese as adult
6) IgA transfer

76
Q

what factors determine prognosis in a congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

1) liver position
2) lung-to-head ratio

77
Q

drugs which can cause cleft lip/palate

A

phenytoin and ondansetron

78
Q

what can cause cleft lip/palate

A

drugs, genetic syndromes like di George, family history

79
Q

what causes cleft lip

A

failure of the nasal prominences and the maxillary prominences to fuse properly

80
Q

what causes cleft palate

A

failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse

81
Q

complications of cleft lip/palate

A

glue ear, feeding problems, psychosocial

82
Q

who should treat people with cleft lip

A

specialist cleft lip service (MDT)

83
Q

when is cleft lip vs cleft palate surgery done

A

lip - 3-6 months
palate 6-12 months

84
Q

when does face Development begin in embryology

85
Q

describe pharyngeal arches

A

there are 6 pharyngeal arches - made from development of mesoderm. The inner surface is endoderm, the bulk of tissue is mesoderm and the external surface is ectoderm. Each is associated with a cranial nerve, artery and cartilage.

The 5th regresses very quickly after development. On the inner surface there are pharyngeal pouches. The outer surface there are pharyngeal clefts. Only the first pharyngeal cleft becomes a structure in the adult and this becomes the external auditory meatus.

The face and palate form from the first pharyngeal arch and neural crest cells

86
Q

what forms from the endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm (this trilaminar disc formed in gastrulation)

A

endoderm - epithelial surface of GI tract and resp tract

Mesoderm - notochord, MSK and circulatory system

ectoderm - skin, nervous system and eye

87
Q

what causes branchial cyst to develop

A

failure of the 2nd pharyngeal cleft to obliterate

88
Q

RF of HIE

A

blood pressure extremes in mother, CHD, problems during labour, infection

89
Q

what stages HIE

A

sarnat staging

90
Q

criteria to use therapeutic hypothermia for HIE

A

it must be moderate or severe and mustt be done in the 6 hours after birth. The infant must be>36 weeks

91
Q

monitoring done in therapeutic cooling

A

EEG and cardioresp monitoring

92
Q

compilations of therpeutic cooling

A

arrhythmias, electrolyte imbalance, infection, bleed risk, PPH

93
Q

when to suspect HIE

A

acidotic on blood gas, poor APGAR score

94
Q

what are the levels like for a Down syndrome screening quadruple test

A

bHCG - high
AFP - low
unconjugated oestradiol - low
inhibin A - high

95
Q

in the quadruple test what causes an isolated rise in AFP

A

neural tube defects

96
Q

screening which is done on a Down syndrome baby once born

A

echo, heel prick test (looking at hypothyroidism!), hearing and eye sight

97
Q

complications of downs

A

subfertiity, AML, Alzheimer’s, recurrent ear infections, sight problems, AVSD, hirschsprungs, duodenal/anal atresia

98
Q

features of fragile X

A

X linked dominant
-autism, learning difficulties
-large low set ears
-large testis

99
Q

features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

flat philtrum, learning disabilities, short palpebral fissure, microcephaly, growth retardation

100
Q

features of pataus (T13)

A

cleft palate, polydactyly, microcephaly

101
Q

features of Edwards (T18)

A

rocker bottom soles, low set ears, micrognathia, overlapping fingers

102
Q

features of noonans (turners in boys)

A

webbed neck, pectus excavatum, pulmonary stenosis

103
Q

how might you treat turners

A

give growth hormone, monitor heart and may give oestrogen replacement

104
Q

neurological causes for GDD

A

spina bifida, IVH
Rett –> acquired

105
Q

causes for GDD

A

neurological
infection
neuromuscular disorders
genetics –> downs, fragile X
Metabolic - PKU
Prematurity

106
Q

Investigations for GDD

A

1) FBC and haemantics
2) U+E
3) CK
4) TFT
5) LFT
6) Vit D
7) Hearing

2nd line –> karyotyping and DNA analysis

107
Q

what are the red flags of development

A

-not smiling by 10 weeks
-not sitting unsupporting by 12 months
-hand preference by 12 months
-speech and language - not knowing 2-6 words by 18 months

108
Q

what is the purpose of a healthy visitor

A

assess a Childs development at 6/8 weeks / 9/12 months and 2-2.5 years + PROVIDE SUPPORT AND ENCOURAGEMENT TO FAMILIES IN THE EARLY YEARS

109
Q

What is the definition of cerebral palsy

A

permanent, not progressive neurological damage that causes a gross motor delay

110
Q

what are some early signs of cerebral palsy

A

poor feeding, abnormal reflexes and abnormal muscle tone

111
Q

what happens in dyskinetic cerebral palsy

A

involuntary, uncontrolled, recurring movements with fluctuating muscle tone and persistent reflexes

112
Q

what is used for pain in CP

113
Q

what is used for spasticity in CP

114
Q

complications of CP

A

hip dislocation, excess salivation, epilepsy, constipation

115
Q

what investigation should be done if suspecting NAI

A

skeletal surgery –> this should then be repeated after 11-14 days
and CT head if any signs of head injury

116
Q

what is checked in the newborn exam

A

eyes, heart, hips and testes

117
Q

when should a vaccine be delayed

A

when child is unwell with fever or when on immunoglobulin therapy

118
Q

example of inactivated (whole killed) vaccine

119
Q

when is MMR (live vaccine) given

A

at 1 year and before school

120
Q

when is the pneumococcal vaccine given

A

at 12 weeks and one year

121
Q

when is the rotavirus given

A

8 weeks and 12 weeks

122
Q

when is the MMR vaccine given

A

at 1 year and at preschool

123
Q

what vaccines are given at 1 year

A

Hib/Men C
MMR
PCV
Men B

124
Q

when is the Men B vaccine given

A

8 weeks and 16 weeks

125
Q

what vaccines are given at 3-4 years

A

MMR and 4 in 1 booster

126
Q

signs of achondroplasia

A

short limbs, mid face hypoplasia and large head with frontal bossing

127
Q

RF for ASD

A

advanced maternal/paternal age, conditions like fragile X, genetic, prenatal infection

128
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for ASD

A

social interaction (delay in smile/lack of eye contact), communication (lack of non verbal communication and delay in speech) and restricted and repetitive interests

129
Q

Tx for ASD

A

-support family
-ABA (applied behavioural analysis)
-special schooling / preschool programme
-control environment
-melatonin for sleep
-SALT
-respite care

130
Q

screening questionnaire for ASD

131
Q

what gives a poor prognosis of ASD

A

IQ < 50, no communicative speech by age 5

132
Q

examples of inattention in ADHD

A

easily distracted, loses things, hard to organise

133
Q

examples of impulsivity in ADHD

A

hard to wait their turn, often interrupts others

134
Q

when can drug therapy be used for ADHD

A

age 5 and above

135
Q

MOA of methylphenidate

A

dopamine and NA reuptake inhibitor

136
Q

screening questionnaire for ADHD

A

conners and strengths and difficulties

137
Q

RF for refeeding syndrome

A

lost 15% of body weight, alcohol abuse, had little to eat for 6 days

138
Q

iron OD is common in children as it is found in many multivitamins, what are the stages:

A

1) 0-6 hours –> GI symptoms
2) GI symptoms ay then resolve before getting worse again –> coagulopathy

139
Q

at what age do febrile seizures occur

A

6 months to 6 years (most common around 12-18 months)

140
Q

RF of febrile seizures

A

family Hx, fever >40, winter

141
Q

simple vs complex seizures

A

simple - less than 15 minutes, post ictal less than one hour and only one in a 24 hour period

complex - longer than 15 minutes, prolonged post octal state and more than one seizure in 24 hours

142
Q

when is assessment by paeds needed for complex seizures

A

if it is the first febrile seizure, if they are recurrent or if they are complex

143
Q

emergency Mx of anaphylaxis

A

1) lay pt flat
2) IM adrenaline (repeat after 5 mins)
3) oxygen
4) apply monitoring - ECG, BP, pulse oximetry

ALWAYS ADMIT CHILDREN DUE TO POTENTIAL OF A BIPHASIC REACTION

-give fluids at 10ml/kg

144
Q

what management is done after the initial anaphylaxis

A

-occur after Tx
-normally do a mast cell tryptase within 6 hours
-refer to allergy clinic

145
Q

causes for hypoglycaemia

A

starvation, metabolic (glycogen storage disorder), insulinoma, hepatitis, poisoning

146
Q

when do paeds need a CT head after head injury

A

-any suspicion of NAI
-GCS < 15 2 hr after injury or < 14 at presentation
-any laceration over 5 cm
-seizure
-focial neurological deficit

VOMITING IS NOT PART OF THIS

147
Q

what parameters can score on a PEWS

A

-resp rate
-resp distress
-oxygen requirement
-heart rate
-level of consciousness
-child and family concern

148
Q

what does decorticate mean

A

bilateral flexing to pain

149
Q

what does decerebrate mean

A

bilateral extension to pain

150
Q

RF for erbs palsy

A

gestational diabetes, macrosomia, mothers with pelvic abnormality

151
Q

RF for klumpkes palsy (C7/C8/T1)

A

abducted arm in childhood

152
Q

signs of klumpkes palsy

153
Q

why is dehydration more common in children

A

they have higher metabolic rates, cannot communicate thirst and have a greater water requirement

154
Q

RF of dehydration in children

A

LBW, <6 months, poor oral intake, vomit > twice in 24 hours, diarrhoea > 5

155
Q

signs of clinical dehydration

A

reduced urine output, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgor, may be tachycardic

BUT

-normal BP, normal pulses, normal CRT

156
Q

signs of clinical shock

A

hypotension! cold extremities! pale/ mottled skin!

157
Q

what is the best way to assess dehydration in paeds

A

through weight loss
mild (>5%)
moderate (5-9%)
severe/shock (10% or more)

158
Q

if there is no evidence of clinical dehydration, what is the MX

A

-continue BF
-encourage oral intake but discourage carbonate juice
-assess rehydration risk

159
Q

what is the Mx for signs of clinical dehydration

A

ORS over 4 hours - replace 50ml/kg
-continue breast feeding

160
Q

what fluid is used for maintenance in paeds (IF OVER 28 DAYS)

A

0.9% NaCl and 5% dextrose

161
Q

what fluid is used for neonates

A

10% dextrose !!!!

162
Q

how much fluid is boluses in shock

A

10ml/kg of 0.9% NaCl

163
Q

what can rapid correction of hypernatraemia cause

A

cerebral oedema

164
Q

what can rapid correction of hyponatraemia cause

A

central pontine myelinolysis

165
Q

what is the most sensitive sign of shock

A

change in mental state

166
Q

what is a nitrogen washout test

A

if a baby has low O2, give them 100% O2 for 10 minutes and then take an ABG. If the PaO2 is <15kPa then this indicates a CYANOTIC CONGENTIAL HEART DISEASE!!! not a resp cause

167
Q

how are mitochondrial diseases inherited?

A

spread from the mum only!
so mum gives it to all her children
when it reaches a male there is an abrupt stop

168
Q

causes for neonatal hypothyroidism

A

prader willi and hypothyroidism

169
Q

mx of viral wheeze

A

1) inhaled SABA
2) oral montelukast or ICS

for multi trigger wheeze trial ICS or montelukast for 4-8 weeks

170
Q

how long is US the firstline Ix for DDOH

A

until child is 4.5 months old

171
Q

5 signs of sepsis in neonate

A

1) resp distress 2) apnoea 3) tachycardia 4) jaundice 5) poor feeding 6) vomiting

172
Q

Ix for sepsis in neonate

A

1) blood cultures
2) CRP and FBC can be misleading in neonate
3) urine culture
4) LP
5) cxr

173
Q

what causes spina bifida

A

failure of the vertebral arches to close

174
Q

Mx of PKU

A

low protein diet and tyrosine replacement
-need to avoid aspartate too as this is converted into phenylalanine in body
-tyrosine replacement as phenylalanine –> tyrosine in the body