infections/resp/allergy/derm Flashcards

1
Q

croup AKA

A

laryngotracheobronchitis

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2
Q

Ix for croup

A

diagnosis is clinical
-FBC, CRP, U+E, viral PCR on throat swab

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3
Q

when to admit with croup

A

if mod/severe, <6 months, immunocompromised, poor response to Tx

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4
Q

Advice for parents at home with croup

A

symptoms should start to get better 48-72 hours, no abx needed (virus), keep child calm

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5
Q

if NEB adrenaline is given in croup - what do you need to do

A

monitor the child for 4 hours for rebound symptoms

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6
Q

discharge criteria for croup

A

no stridor at rest, normal colour, normal activity

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7
Q

what kind of bacteria is bordetella pertussis

A

gram negative bacillus

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8
Q

three phases of whooping cough

A

catarrhal - 1-2 weeks (prodrome)
paroxysmal - cough, inspiratory whoop, periods of apnoea
convalescent - lasts 3 months

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9
Q

Dx of whooping cough

A

PCR on nasopharyngeal swab!!!

-can do serology for pertussis IgG

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10
Q

how long does child need to be off school for with whooping cough

A

48 hrs after macrolides or for 21 days with no abx

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11
Q

apart from abx, what are other mx points for whooping cough

A

notifiable disease, pregnant mum needs vaccine, can take 3 months to resolve, abx prophylaxis for contacts

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12
Q

what is kartagener syndrome

A

type of PCD - situs inverses, recurrent sinusitis, bronchiectasis and sub fertility

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13
Q

IX for PCD (affect ciliary clearance in the lungs, paranasal sinus and middle ears

A

biopsy from bronchoscopy / nasal brush biopsy

+ look for consanguinity of the parents

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14
Q

apart from the sweat test, what other IX would you do for cystic fibrosis

A

sputum culture to see if colonised, genetic test, LFTs as can get obstruction due to thick pancreatic enzymes

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15
Q

what is tested for on the newborn heal prick test for CF

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen

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16
Q

what do people with CF become colonised with

A

staph aureus and pseudomonas (may start them on prophylactic Abx)

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17
Q

when can asthma subjective tests be done

A

before age 5

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18
Q

RF for asthma

A

genetic influence
LBW
prematurity

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19
Q

a saturation of what indicates a severe asthma attack IN CHILDREN

A

(<92%)

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20
Q

when does an asthma attack require admission

A

in pregnancy, previous near fatal, severe and not responding, life threatening

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21
Q

discharge criteria for asthma

A

PEFR >75%, inhaler technique checked, stable on discharge meds for 12-24 hours

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22
Q

what is uncontrolled asthma

A

any exacerbation which requires steroids, frequent regular symptoms (needing reliever 3 times a week/night time wakening more than 1 day a week)

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23
Q

what should you do if asthma is not controlled by a moderate dose MART + trials of a LTRA or LAMA

A

refer people to a specialist in asthma care when asthma is not controlled despite treatment with moderate-dose MART, and trials of an LTRA and a LAMA

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24
Q

RF for viral wheeze

A

maternal smoking, prematurity, male gender

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25
Q

causes of chronic cough in children

A

CF, PCD, asthma, aspiration (GORD), post nasal drip, TOF

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26
Q

what organisms colonise in bronchiectasis

A

Haemophilus influenza and pseudomonas aeruginosa

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27
Q

viral vs bacterial pneumonia in children

A

bacterial –> commonly affect the over 2s, have localised chest/neck/abdo pain due to pleuritic irritation, absence of rhinorrhoea or wheeze

viral –> under 2s, coryzal symptoms, lower temp, no localised pain

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28
Q

most common cause of pneumonia in children

A

strep pneumoniae

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29
Q

mx of pneumonia in children

A

1) amoxicillin
2) add a macrolide to cover atypical organisms

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30
Q

when does laryngomalacia peak

A

6-8 months

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31
Q

what would an FNE show of laryngomalacia

A

short aryepiglottic folds and omega shapped epiglottis

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32
Q

what causes laryngomalacia

A

the larynx cartilage is softer, meaning get a collapse of the supraglottic structures into the airway

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33
Q

Mx of laryngomalacia

A

should resolve by 18 months
-medical Mx –> feed thickener to stop aspiration and antirelfux meds to stop inflammation of the supra glottis

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34
Q

complications of laryngomalacia

A

life threatening airway obstruction, failure to thrive and failure to gain weight

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35
Q

sign of epiglottis on laternal neck xray

A

thumb sign

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36
Q

what is typical about the symptoms of epiglottis (dysphagia, dysphonia, drooling, dyspnoea)

A

acute onset!

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37
Q

complications of epiglottis

A

airway obstruction, meningitis, DNSI, pneumonia

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38
Q

pathophysiology of bronchiolitis

A

inflame of the bronchioles, excess mucous, causes increased airway resistance

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39
Q

RF of bronchiolitis

A

siblings that attend nursery, smoke exposure, chronic lung disease of prematurity, bottle fed

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40
Q

what Ix are done for bronchiolitis

A

pulse oximetry, nasopharyngeal aspirate or throat swab for RSV

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41
Q

when is a child with bronchiolitis admitted to hospital by 999

A

if apnoea, grunting, cyanosis, sats<92%, CHD

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42
Q

supportive MX for bronchiolitis in hospital

A

O2, NG feed, upper airway suctioning

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43
Q

when is discharge considered for bronchiolitis

A

when baby has adequate oral input, when they maintain sats >92% for > 4 hours

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44
Q

what can be used as prophylaxis for bronchiolitis

A

palivizumab

45
Q

when should a baby recover from bronchiolitis

46
Q

what causes roseolar infantum

A

HSV6 (maculopapular rash which occurs when fever has subsided, associated with febrile seizures)

47
Q

when can child go back to school after scarlet fever

A

after 24 hours of abx

48
Q

what strep species causes scarlet fever

A

group A Strep (progenies)

49
Q

other names for fifth disease

A

slapped cheek, erythema infectious, parvovirus B19

50
Q

complication of parvenus B19

A

aplastic crisis (can also cross the placenta, cause severe anaemia in the foetus and hydrops fetalis)

51
Q

IX for measles

A

measles specific IgM or IgG

52
Q

Mx for measles

A

if not vaccinated and presented in 72 hours –> can have MMR

53
Q

how long do children with measles need to stay off school

54
Q

virus causing hand foot and mouth

A

coxsackie A16

55
Q

symptoms of rubella

A

posterior lymphadenopathy, fever then a rash which starts on the head and then spreads down the trunk

56
Q

Ix for rubella

A

rubella specific IgM

57
Q

if supportive measures of cradle cap (seborrhoea dermatitis) are not effective, what can be used?

A

topical clotrimazole

58
Q

in which population is Kawasaki more common

59
Q

for Dx of Kawasaki, how many symptoms are needed

A

fever >39 for 5 days + 4/5 of the other symptoms

60
Q

what do bloods of Kawasaki show

A

anaemia, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis, elevated LFT

61
Q

how long is aspirin continued in Kawasaki

A

high dose in the acute phase and then low dose until a FU echo has been done to rule out a coronary artery aneurysm

62
Q

how much is petechial vs purpura

A

<3mm vs >3mm

63
Q

what is HSP

A

systemic IgA small vessel vasculitis

64
Q

Mx of HSP

A

self limiting, monitor urinanalysis and BP

65
Q

signs of HUS (thrombocytopenia, AKI, MAHA)

A

about 5 days after diarrhoea, reduced urine output, haematuria, abdo pain, confusion, bruising

66
Q

MX of HUS

A

fluid rehydration, haemofiltration, steroids plasmapharesis, antihypertensives

67
Q

Mx options for warts

A

1) leave them alone
2) cryotherapy
3) topical salicylic acid -

68
Q

firstline tx for impetigo

A

1% hydrogen peroxide
-then fusidic acid
-stay off school / no sharing of towels or clothes, no picking or scratching
-flucloxacillin if more severe

69
Q

MX for psoriasis

A

1) potent steroid and Vit D preparation applied at different times of day
2) if after 8 weeks no improvement try vit D twice a day (and stop steroid)
3) if no improvement after another8 weeks - then can use the steroid twice a day
4) then phototherapy UVB preferred
5) methotrexate
6) ciclosporin
7) biologics

70
Q

although tonsillitis is normally caused by virus, what can cause it?

A

GAS (strep progenies) hence which is high score on fever pain needs 10 days of phenoxymethylpenicillin

71
Q

Mx of oral candidiasis for babies

A

miconazole gel

72
Q

what is ophthalmia neonatorum

A

conjunctivitis which occurs in the first 4 weeks of life (gonorrhoea - more acutely, lots of purulent discharge), (chalmydia presents a bit later)

73
Q

what’s it called when HSV-1 causes cold sores / ulcers + redness in mouth

A

gingivostomatitis

74
Q

what’s the incubation period for influenza

75
Q

complicated signs of influenza

A

CNS symptoms, hypoxaemia, any signs or symptoms that require hospital admission

76
Q

in children under 6 months, with flu, what are they prescribed

A

zanamivir (within 36 hours of symptom onset)

77
Q

MOA of oseltamivir/zanamivir

A

neuraminidase inhibitor

78
Q

vaccination of the flu in children

A

nasal spray from 2 - year 11 of secondary school (takes 2 weeks to work)

79
Q

contraindications to the nasal flu vaccine

A

blocked nose, high fever, egg allergy, immunocompromised

80
Q

lifecycle of malaria

A

protozoa gets injected as a sporozoite which travels to the liver, can lay dormant as a hypnozoite or can mature into a merozoite and leave. Merozoites become trophozoites in RBC

-the rings in RBC = TROPHOZOITES!!!!

81
Q

signs of severe malaria

A

acidosis, hypoglycaemia, fever >39 degrees

82
Q

what is the most common cause of periorbital cellulitis

A

ethmoidal sinusitis

83
Q

Dx of orbital cellulitis

A

culture the purulent nasal discharge + need CT!

84
Q

what abx do you use to treat orbital cellulitis

A

ceftriaxone

85
Q

what is brudzinski sign

A

lie patient on their back, flex their neck and get spontaneous flexion of their knee

86
Q

what are the LP results for TB

A

high lymphocytes, high protein - even though it is a bacteria not a virus

87
Q

how do you Tx meningitis in < 3months

A

Iv amoxicillin + cefotaxime

88
Q

do you have to retreat after giving mebendazole?

A

no only retreat after 2 weeks if infection reoccurs

90
Q

give examples of warning signs which suggest a primary immunodeficiency

A

4 or more ear infections in one year, 2 or more serious sinus infections in one year or a recurrent deep skin or abscess infection

91
Q

what is X linked agammaglobinaemia

A

absence of B cells –> get recurrent bacterial infections

92
Q

Di George genetics

A

22q11 deletion

93
Q

how might a neutrophil disorder present

A

chronic granulomatous disease

94
Q

although Dx of mumps is clinical, how can diagnosis by confirmed

A

salivary IgM

95
Q

apart from tampons, what else can cause toxic shock

A

post op infections, cellulite, HIV, burns

96
Q

features of toxic shock syndrome

A

fever >38.9 degrees, hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of rash especially on palms, altered mental state

97
Q

toxin causing toxic shock

A

staph aureus (TSST-1 superantigen)

98
Q

Mx of toxic shock syndrome

A

-remove infection focus
-IV fluids
-IV antibiotics
-IVIG

99
Q

most common cause of viral gastroenteritis

A

rota virus

100
Q

which children are at risk of dehydration

A

-under 6 months
-children who pass >5 stools or vomit > twice in a 24 hour period
-children who stop breastfeeding in illness

101
Q

compilation of rotavirus

A

toxic megacolon

102
Q

symptoms of IGE mediated CPA

A

urticaria, itch, hoarseness

103
Q

what is gold standard for allergy testing

A

oral food challenge

104
Q

in a SPT, what do the sizes of the wheels indicate

A

not the severity of the allergy but instead the likelihood of having one

105
Q

what is a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgG / IgM mediated reaction against cell surface of the extracellular matrix antigen

106
Q

what is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

IgG/IgM mediated –> soluble antigen gets bound to by antibodies forming immune complexes which then deposit out in tissues and cause damage

107
Q

mneumonic for an allergy history

A

Exposure
Allergen
Timing
Environment
Reproducibility
Symptoms

108
Q

causes for chronic urticaria (>6 weeks)

A

autoimmune, idiopathic, inducible

109
Q

what investigations do you do for urticaria

A

LFTs, TFTs (autoimmune urticaria), CRP, FBC, allergy testing