Neonate Flashcards

1
Q

Full term gestation

A

38-42 weeks (40 is normal)

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2
Q

Pre-term gestation

A

Before end of 37 week

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3
Q

Postterm gestation

A

Anytime after 42 weeks

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4
Q

Normal birth weight

A

5.5-9.5 pounds

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5
Q

AGA

A

Appropriate for gestational age (between 10th and 90th percentile)

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6
Q

SGA

A

Smaller for gestational age (below 10th percentile)

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7
Q

LGA

A

Large for gestational age (above 90th percentile)

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8
Q

LBW

A

Low birth weight (less than 2500g or 5 lbs, 8oz)

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9
Q

VLBW

A

Very low birth weight (less than 1500 g or 3lbs, 5oz)

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10
Q

ELBW

A

Extra low birth weight (less than 1000g or 2lbs, 3oz)

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11
Q

Typical pattern for baby weight

A

Lose 5-7% of body weight after birth then will gain 4-8 ounces per week. At 6 months they should be double the birth weight and at one year they should be 2.5 to 3 times birth weight

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12
Q

Normocephaly

A

13.5 inches

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13
Q

Microcephaly

A

Below the 10th percentile

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14
Q

Macrocephaly

A

Above 90th percentile

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15
Q

Failure to thrive

A

Babies weight falls below the 3rd percentile

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16
Q

Amino acid disorders

A

Body unable to breakdown proteins and they build up in the body. This can lead to mental retardation and other problems

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17
Q

Fatty acid disorders

A

Interfere with turning fats into energy. Can cause seizures, poor breathing, problems with blood sugar, heart and muscle function

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18
Q

Organic acid disorders

A

Interferes with ability to remove certain waste products from the blood

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19
Q

Galactosemia

A

Can’t break down galactose

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20
Q

Sickle cell disease

A

Autosomal recessive disorder that causes abnormal RBC’s which can lead to clots. It affects the spleen so most patients are immunocompromised.

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21
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive disorder where the body produces excessive thick mucous that clogs lungs and creates an environment for infection

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22
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia

A

Increase in bilirubin because of a high turnover rate of RBCs or immature liver. Can also occur if Rh- mother has Rh+ child

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23
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A
Appearance
Pulse
Grimace 
Activity 
Respiration
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24
Q

When is the Apgar taken?

A

1 minute and 5 minutes after birth (7-10 is a good score)

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25
Q

Infant respiratory rate

A

30-50 breaths/min

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26
Q

Infant heart rate

A

100-160 beats/min

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27
Q

Cradle cap

A

Scaly patches on scalp

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28
Q

Hemangiomas

A

Many capillaries in one area (blister-like)

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29
Q

Milia

A

Milk rash that is caused from distended sebaceous glands

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30
Q

Stork bites

A

Red patches caused from accumulation of blood vessels

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31
Q

Erb’s palsy

A

C5,C6

Waiter’s tip position

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32
Q

Klumpke’s palsy

A

C8,T1

Claw hand

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33
Q

Signs of developmental dyplasia of the hip

A

Unequal crease in thigh

Difference in knee height (shorter knee is one affected)

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34
Q

Ortolani Test

A

Reduce dislocated hip

Flex hips to 90, abduct hips, and pull up on greater trochanter

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35
Q

Barlow test

A

Flex knees, adduct hip, and load through the knees

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36
Q

Club foot

A

Talipes equinovarus

Foot is adducted and plantar flexed

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37
Q

Stage I

A

Deep sleep, eyes closed, no movement

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38
Q

Stage II

A

Light sleep, eyes shut

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39
Q

Stage III

A

Just starting to wake up

40
Q

Stage IV

A

Awake, but not moving too much

41
Q

Stage V

A

Wide awake, kicking, and looking around

42
Q

How to check passive tone

A

Heel to ear
Popliteal angle - flex hip to 90 and try to extend knee (normal is 90-100)
Scarf sign - take arm across neck (should meet resistance at midline)

43
Q

How to evaluate active muscle tone

A

Ability to adjust to a new position
Pull to sit
Spontaneous movement

44
Q

Hip ROM at birth

A

Flexion contracture of 30 degrees
Lateral rotation is greater than medial rotation
Coxa valga - max 150 degrees
Antetorsion exceeds 25 degrees

45
Q

Knee ROM at birth

A
flexion contracture 30 degrees
Genu varum (bowlegs)
46
Q

Talocrural ROM at brith

A

Dorsiflexion 70 degrees

47
Q

Vertebral column at birth

A

Concave anteriorly

48
Q

How does development proceed?

A

Cephalocaudal (head to toe) and proximal to distal

Gross motor movements develop before fine motor movements

49
Q

Primitive Reflexes

A

Brain-stem mediated, complex movements that begin at 25 weeks gestation and are fully present at birth. They become more difficult to elicit as the CNS matures and cortical inhibition takes over

50
Q

Dynamic Systems Theory

A

Motor tasks emerge from many subsystems which can be influenced by physical and environmental factors

51
Q

Neuronal Group Selection Theory

A

Neuronal groups (collection of strongly interconnected neurons) that are used more get stronger and the ones that aren’t used disappear. Neuronal groups can be affected by behavior and experience

52
Q

Central pattern generator

A

Neural networks that can produce rhythmic patterned outputs without rhythmic sensory or central input

53
Q

3 requirements for neuronal group selection

A

Basic repertoire of movement
Availability of sensory info to identify and select adaptive forms of movement
Means to strengthen the preferred movement response

54
Q

Skinner behavioral theory

A

Behavior is influenced by the environment. Use positive and negative reinforcement

55
Q

Piagets 4 stages

A

Sensorimotor
Pre-operational
Concrete operations
Formal operations

56
Q

Sensorimotor

A

Birth to 2 years
Learns through sensory and motor experiences
Discoveries by trial and error
Repetition is important

57
Q

Pre-operational

A
2-6 years
Starts to use symbols 
Development of language 
Egocentric 
Influenced by fantasy
58
Q

Concrete Operations

A

7-11 years
Ability to classify objects according to characteristics
Can solve concrete problems

59
Q

Formal Operations

A

12 years to adult
Can deal with hypothetical and real life situations
Can think in abstract terms

60
Q

Hitching

A

Scoot butt while seated

61
Q

Bunny hopping

A

Bring both LE up at same time in quadraped

62
Q

Bear standing

A

upper and lower extremity extended and trunk off floor

63
Q

5 major attributes of normal walking

A
Stability in stance
Sufficient foot clearance in swing 
Appropriate prepositioning of foot for initial contact 
Adequate step length 
Energy conservation
64
Q

Attributes of standing posture

A

Wide base of support
Hips are abducted, flexed, and slight ER
Tibiofemoral varus, mild internal tibial torsion
Heels are everted

65
Q

When does running begin?

A

6-7 months after child begins to walk

66
Q

Weight at 1 year

A

Triples birth weight and then gains 1/2 pound a month

67
Q

Weight at 2 years

A

Quadruples birth weight and then gains about 4-5 pounds a year

68
Q

Weight at 9-10 years

A

Increased weight gain as puberty approaches, often about 10 pounds per year

69
Q

Height at 2-3 years

A

Grows about 3 1/2 inches a year most children will double their birth height by 3-4 years of age

70
Q

Height at 3 years to puberty

A

Grows about 2 inches a year

71
Q

Type I growth plate fracture

A

Fracture line extends through physis

72
Q

Type II growth plate fracture

A

Fracture line extends through physis and exits through metaphysic

73
Q

Type III growth plate fracture

A

Fracture line extends from joint surface through epiphysis and across physis reulting in a part of the epiphysis being displaced

74
Q

Type IV growth plate fracture

A

Fracture line extends from joint surface through epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis

75
Q

Type V growth plate fracture

A

Crush type injury due to compressive forces

76
Q

Galloping

A

First asymmetric gait mode. Seen 9-12 months after walking

77
Q

Hopping

A

One footed; Develops to age 5

78
Q

Skipping

A

Develops between 4-7 years old

79
Q

When do girls begin adolescent growth spurt?

A

9-14 y.o

80
Q

When do boys begin adolescent growth spurt?

A

11-16 y.o.

81
Q

Tanner’s staging boys

A

Pubic hair
Penis
Scrotum

82
Q

Tanner’s staging girls

A

Pubic hair

Breasts

83
Q

Three components of examination

A

Patient/client history
Relevant systems review
Tests and measures

84
Q

3 purposes of assessment

A

Evaluative - compare old and new results
Predictive - using predictive tools
Discriminative - compared to other kids

85
Q

Construct validity

A

How well does your test (instrument) represent the trait being studied (number of pushups performed for strength)

86
Q

Content validity

A

How well does your sample represent the population

87
Q

Concurrent validity

A

How well does the test correlate with another well known test to measure the same trait

88
Q

Predictive validity

A

Performance on the test predicts a beahvior

89
Q

Norm referenced tests

A

Compares individual performance against group. Maximizes differences among individuals

90
Q

Criterion referenced

A

Compares performance against standard

Discriminates between successive performances of one individual

91
Q

Z score mean and standard deviation

A

0 and 1

92
Q

T score mean and standard deviation

A

50 and 10

93
Q

Standard Error of Measurement

A

Reliability of the response if a test were given a number of times simultaneously
The more reliable the test, the smaller the error of measurement

94
Q

BOT 2 Motor Test

A

Norm referenced for ages 4-21 years

95
Q

2 motor tests developed by PTs

A

AIMS and TIMP

96
Q

TIMP Motor Test

A

34 weeks gestation to 4 months