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ATR type Rating > Neils exam questions > Flashcards

Neils exam questions Flashcards

1
Q

with the fms nav source selected on an approach what is lateral deflection represnted by?

A

magenta square

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2
Q

what is full scale deflection on final approach with a 3D fms approach?

A

0.3nm

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3
Q

if the DU fails with the autopilot coupled to your side how will this affect the autopilot?

A

no effect

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4
Q

what com/nav sources do we have on batery power only?

A

comm 1, nav 1

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5
Q

how many DME’s do we have?

A

DME 1+2

FMS has a DME

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6
Q

What is the tilt on the wx radar?

A

15 degrees up and down

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7
Q

what is the wx radar range?

A

300nm

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8
Q

how many degrees can we see on the wx display?

A

45 degrees either side

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9
Q

what does target mode do?

A

limits range to 7.5 degrees either side and looks beyond the display range. alerts with an amber target if somethigns detected

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10
Q

where is the software stored for the fms 1?

A

DU2

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11
Q

where is the software and database stored for FMS 2?

A

DU4

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12
Q

WHAT DOES A YELLOW terrain line on the ND mean?

A

point at which you get a terrain or obstacle warning

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13
Q

What are the pitch limits for basic mode?

A

15 degrees up

11 degrees down

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14
Q

how far can we pitch up with TCS?

A

25 degrees

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15
Q

what will happen if we bank beyond 35 degrees with the TCS

A

it will return to 35 degrees

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16
Q

wha is lo bank max angle?

A

15 degrees

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17
Q

what is hi bank max angle?

A

27 degrees

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18
Q

where are the RMA software kept?

A

DU 2+4

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19
Q

what is the max continuous output of the generator?

A

12kw/400amps

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20
Q

what does the emergency battery do during start?

A

provides extra power in order to prevent transients during start

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21
Q

what does inverter 1 supply on battery power only?

A

AC standby bus

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22
Q

if inverter 1 fails in flight what does inverter 2 power?

A

AC BUS 1, BUS 2 AND AC STBY BUS

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23
Q

what is the operating range of the ACW generators

A

70% to 100% NP

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24
Q

the starter generator acts as a starter generator up to what NH?

A

45%

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25
Q

what is max DC GEN load?

A

400 amps

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26
Q

when does the DC STARTER/GEN become a generator on start?

A

61.5%

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27
Q

when external power is selected, what happens to the DC gen’s?

A

they go offline

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28
Q

in flight the ACW BTC is set to isolate and engine1 fails. what will ACW GEN 2 supply?

A

ACW BUS 2

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29
Q

with the battery switch in the override position

A
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30
Q

with 1 ACW GEN offline, what happens to the ACW service bus?

A

ACW service bus sheds

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31
Q

what powers the DC GND HDLG bus when the red light is on?

A

DC HOT MAIN BATT BUS

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32
Q

if ext power is available but not turned on, what powers the gorund handling bus?

A

DC SERVICE BUS

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33
Q

what powers the DC starter generator when starting with ground power?

A

ground power

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34
Q

what does BUS 1 power in normal operations

A

battery charger for emergency battery and HOT EMER BATT BUS

UTIL BUS 1

DC SERVICE BUS

INVERTER 1

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35
Q

How is DC BUS 1 powered when there is a no.1 engine failure?

A

DC GEN 2 THROUGH A BTC

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36
Q

what are the DC power sources?

A

2 x batteries

TRU

2x DC generators

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37
Q

what ACW sources does the aircraft have?

A

2x ACW generators

AC GPU

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38
Q

when are the ACW generators available?

A

from 66% NP

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39
Q

where are the ACW gens connected to the engine?

A

propeller reduction gearbox

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40
Q

what do the 2 amber arrows represent?

A

batteries discharging

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41
Q

how many mins operation do we have on BATT only?

A

less than 30 mins

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42
Q

when is batt switch sent to overide?

A

when instructed by the checklist

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43
Q

what is the ACW generators output?

A

20kva

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44
Q

if inverter 1 or inverter power supply fails, what happens?

A

everything will fail then within 10 seconds the BTC will close and draw power from AC bus 2

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45
Q

what is total fuel capacity?

A

5000kf

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46
Q

on the EWD we get a fuel lo lvl. what does this mean?

A

less than 160kg in feeder tank

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47
Q

what does the motive flow valve need to be open?

A

HMU operational and electrical pump button pushed in

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48
Q

on the ground what powers the fuel refueling panel

A

DC GND HDLG BUS

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49
Q

if engine 2 has failed and we open the crossfeed what will the pumps do?

A

turn on and we’ll get a pump run square

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50
Q

how are the refueling valves energised?

A

opening the fuel refueling panel door

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51
Q

how do you feed engine 1 with fuel from the number 2 tank

A

open crossfeed and turn pump 1 off

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52
Q

for normal operation when do the elctric pumps run?

A

engine start

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53
Q

if you pull the fire handle which fuel valves do you shut off?

A

LP valve and motive flow valve

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54
Q

below what pressure will we get feed lo pressure alert?

A

4psi

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55
Q

at what psi will the elec pump stop running during start

A

8.5psi

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56
Q

when will the electric pump come on?

A

below 5psi

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57
Q

when will electric pumps run automatically?

A

below 5 psi (lo feed)

crossfeed

below 160kg in the feeder (lo fuel)

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58
Q

what is the max fuel imbalance?

A

730kg

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59
Q

at what psi wil a hydraulic low pressure amber alert trigger?

A

less than 1500psi measure at the output of the pump

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60
Q

on the ground when is it possible to use the pedestal switch for aux pump?

A

anytime

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61
Q

what controls landing gear indication system 1?

A

MFC 1

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62
Q

what controls landing gear system 2?

A

MFC 2

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63
Q

which system gives the aural alert for gear not down?

A

both MFCS

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64
Q

what is the capacity of the hydraulic tank?

A

9.6 litres. min fill level 8.5L.

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65
Q

what temp do we get a hydraulic overheat?

A

121C

66
Q

what happens with a loss of the green system and we need to get the gear down?

A

emergency gear extension

67
Q

what speed is anti skid available above?

A

10 knots

68
Q

what landing gear indication do we get on battery only?

A

on the main panel. no backup on overhead (system 2)

69
Q

after touchdown the anti skid is inhibited when?

A

5 seconds after touchdown or below 35 GS

70
Q

when is anti skid test inhibited?

A

above 17 knots

71
Q

when do we get a brake hot caution?

A

150c

72
Q

when will the fusable plug melt on the wheels?

A

177C

73
Q

what is max nosewheel deflection with nws off?

A

91 degrees

74
Q

how is uplocking achieved?

A

mechanically

75
Q

how is downlocking achieved?

A

hydraulically

76
Q

at what speed when accelerating will the TLU go turn on when into auto?

A

185, 180 when declerating

77
Q

at what aileron deflection will the spoilers activate?

A

2.5 degrees

78
Q

what ATPCS functions will get on a go around?

A

autofeather

79
Q

what does the amber rto bug on the torque gauge represent?

A

reserve takeoff rating

80
Q

What does boost do?

A

gives 4.5% increase in thermal limit up to a certain point and 4% above a limit

81
Q

if engines are being run at full power on the ground with the gust lock in where will the power levers be?

A

just below FI. gust lock stops them going any further

82
Q

when do the conditionlevers go out of fuel shutoff during start?

A

10%. this puts fuel in and starts the ignitors

83
Q

when does the idle gate activate?

A

when both main shock absorbers are released until one of them is compressed

84
Q

what feathers the prop when we pull the fire handle?

A

electric feathering pump

85
Q

describe the laws?

A

ground: 70.8% fuel govern mode

transition mode

top law: EEC’s working

base law: EEC not working

86
Q

how to we cancel an ATPCS sequence?

A

chnage pwr mgt to any setting other than T/O

87
Q

what is 100% MP in RPM?

A

1200RPM

88
Q

what are the conditions for gust lock engagement?

A
  • cond lever to feather or shutoff
  • 2100psi blue hydraulic pressure
  • gust lock engaged
  • fire handle in
  • on ground
89
Q

how many exciters does each engine have?

A

2

90
Q

when is auto ignition available?

A

between 30-60% NH with EEC active

91
Q

what does an amber bleed anti ice mean?

A
  • leak
  • overheat
  • valve disagree
92
Q

when does a bleed overheat trigger?

A

274C

93
Q

when does a bleed leak trigger?

A

153C

94
Q

when does the pneumatic crossfeed open on the ground?

A

when operating in hotel mode

95
Q

if the extract fan fails in flight how can you you continue to ventilate the avionics?

A

press the exhaust mode NORM button to witch it to overboard

96
Q

if we get a duct overheat will the pack valve close?

A

no

97
Q

what does the left pack normally supply with air con?

A

flight deck and cabin

98
Q

what is normal pack flow pressure?

A

22psi

99
Q

what is high pack flow pressure?

A

30psi

100
Q

what is the acceptable pressure differential range

A

0.5-6.35psi

101
Q

if something goes wrong with the auto pressurisation system what will the overflow valves?

A

they will automatically close

102
Q

what is max ROC in cabin pressurisation manual mode?

A

2500fpm

103
Q

if bleeds are selected on how long after pack 1 will pack 2 come online?

A

6 seconds

104
Q

if we take off with bleeds off what will we get on bleed and pack switches, and the system display?

A

bleed switches off

no light on pack switches

PACK STBY on pressurisation system display

105
Q

what is normal descent rate for the pressurisation in normal and FAST mode?

A

400/-500fpm

106
Q

which fan needs to be reset after a smoke test?

A

underfloor circulation fan

107
Q

when will we get a cabin altitude alert

A

between 9500ft and 10000ft cabin altitude?

108
Q

what cools the packs on the ground and below 150ias?

A

turbofan

109
Q

what temperature does the pack valve regulate the temperature to?

A

88C

110
Q

what is max pressure differential between the cabin and the outside?

A

1psi

111
Q

what does the underfloor circulation fan do if we do a fire test or start an engine?

A

stop

112
Q

if we start the underfloor circulation fan manually what willl sound?

A

mechanics horn

113
Q

AIR OVBD caution?

A

disagreement between the overboard valve position and switch position

114
Q

what hydraulic system is required for the prop brake?

A

blue

115
Q

what does the EEC do?

A

controls fuel flow through the HMU

116
Q

what does the propeller reduction gearbox power?

A
  • overpseed governor
  • pvm
  • ACW generators
  • fuel oil cooler
  • high pressure fuel pump
117
Q

which ADC supplies data to the EEC?

A

1 on even days

2 on odd days

118
Q

if ATPCS is working on one engine can it also work on the other?

A

no

119
Q

does the propeller engine control isolate malfunctions?

A

yes

120
Q

how many channels does the PEC have?

A

2

121
Q

what does PEC single channel after start mean?

A

PEC channels are being tested

122
Q

with engine and airframe icign on how do the boots operate?

A

sequentially

123
Q

why does AIRFRAME flash in cyan

A

ice hasnt accrued for 5 minutes with the airframe icing on

124
Q

when do we turn the icing AOA button off?

A

when its is visually confirmed we are out of icing and the horn icing is switched off

125
Q

when is prop anti ice available on the ground?

A

when the prop anti icing is turned on and NP is above 63%

it is only working above 66% with ACW wild power functioning

126
Q

what NP does the EEC maintain on the ground?

A

70.8%

127
Q

when will cyan airframe show steady?

A

airframe de icing on

128
Q

in the event of a double DC GEN failure which pitot will still be heated?

A

STBY

129
Q

how fast is the wing and engine anti ice cycle in fast mode?

A

180 seconds

130
Q

what powers the prop heat?

A

ACW BUS 1 and 2

131
Q

which bus provides heating for the captains pitot?

A

DC BUS 1

132
Q

when can we turn the icing AOA light off?

A
  • no ice detected on ice detector
  • visually checked the probe

-

133
Q

whats the wiper limiting speed?

A

160

134
Q

what 3 alerts will the APM geenrate?

A

CRZ SPD LOW

DGRD PERF

INCRS SPD

135
Q

What probes are not heated on thr ground?

A

the TAT probes

136
Q

if we continue into severe icing what alerts can we expect?

A

ice on side window

unable to maintain IAS red (icing) +10

VS drops below 100fpm at IAS red (icing) bug

abnormal vibration from props

ice hitting airframe from props

water splashing on windscreen

ice accrued in places it doesnt usualy accrue

ice on underside of wing

137
Q

in what weather will we get the worst icing?

A

visible rain at temperatures close to 0

138
Q

is the ATR certified to operate in freezing rain?

A

no

139
Q

how many loops of fire sensing on each engine?

A

2

140
Q

what warnings will you get with avionics smoke sensed?

A

ELEC SMK

141
Q

what happens if we pull the fire handle

A

De icing

Electricals are shut off

Air bleed closed

F fuel pressure LP valve

Propeller feather

Arms squibs

142
Q

When is NAC OVHT shown?

A

nacelle temp exceeds 170c on the ground

143
Q

how do you test the fuel SO light on the condition lever?

A

move the lever out of fuel SO

144
Q

what colour will the squib lights be during the test?

A

white

145
Q

what fire extinguiser is unmonitored?

A

waste bin fire extinguisher in lavatory

146
Q

what temperature will the lav fire extinguisher go off at?

A

77C

147
Q

what is the capacitiy of the prtable oxygen bottl?

A

120 litre

148
Q

how long does crew oxygen last at 100%?

A

15 mins

149
Q

what does the min cabin light switch do?

A

half lights on RH of cabin to preserve battery

150
Q

when does the TO inhibit cancel?

A

at gear retraction or by pressing RCL

151
Q

what warning will we get for a single MFC failure?

A

flashing caution, chime

152
Q

what warning do we get for MFC 1B+2B Failure?

A

fault, steady caution

153
Q

what does the automatic reversion in the event of a DU failure depend on?

A

PF coupling. It will revert to the PM MFD

154
Q

when is stick pusher inhibited?

A

10 seconds afterr takeoff or below 500RA during descent

155
Q

what is an amber tick with an F next to it on the speed tape?

A

flap 15 to 30 safe retraction speed

156
Q

how many degrees eith side is the Wx radar scanning?

A

60 degrees. we can only see 45 either side

157
Q

what does the TLU display when in high?

A

nothing

158
Q

What will we see if we descend below DH?

A

an amber DH above the figure

159
Q

what assymetry will trigger a flap assymetry caution?

A

6.7 degrees disagree

160
Q

what will we see on the overhead panel when taking off with bleeds off?

A

bleeds: white lights

no lights on packs and pack satandby on EWD

ATR type Rating (22 decks)

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