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NBS Pathology- Cardiovascular Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of arteriosclerosis deals with a calcified tunica media and medium sized arteries?
A. Obliterans
B. Monckeberg
C. Peripheral

A

B

Monckeberg

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2
Q

Which type of arteriosclerosis deals with the extremities?
A. Obliterans
B. Monckeberg
C. Peripheral

A

C

Peripheral

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3
Q

Which size vessels would obliterans arteriosclerosis deal with?
A. Large
B. Medium
C. Small

A

C

Small

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4
Q 
Where is the most common peripheral aneursym?
A. Cervical
B. Popliteal
C. Anticubital
D. Aortic
A

B
Popliteal
**Bilateral

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5
Q

Proliferation of which vessel layer would be associated with obliterans?
A. Tunia Externa
B. Tunia Intima
C. Tunica media

A

B

Intima

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6
Q 
Which artery would be associated with a BERRY aneurysm?
A. Coronary A
B. Iliofemoral A
C. Internal Carotid A
D. Anterior Communicating
A

D
Anterior Communicating
* part of circle of willis

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7
Q

Intermittent claudication is best described as:
A. Heart Pain when resting
B. Increased intrathoracic Pressure
C. Nociceptor sensation in extermities with activity
D. Nociceptor sensation in extremities at rest

A

C
During activity

it is relieved by REST

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8
Q 
Which artery would be associated with intermittent claudication, gangrene and peripheral vascular disease?
A. Iliofemoral A
B. Celiac and Mesenteric A
C. Internal Carotid A
D. Celiac A
A

A

Iliofemoral A

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9
Q

What type of aneurysm can be asymptomatic and lead to increased lumbar pressure?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

AAA

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10
Q

This is described as “Tearing Pain” and deals with a longitudinal cleavage of the arterial media?
A. Dissecting Aneurysm of the Internal Carotid A
B. Dissecting Aneurysm of the Aorta
C. Dissecting Aneurysm of the Ilifemoral A
D. Dissecting Aneurysm of the Coronary A

A

B

Abdominal Aorta= MC dissected aneurysm

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11
Q 
Berry aneurysms of the anterior communicating artery would be consider which type of hemorrhage(s)? Pick all that apply
A. Intracerebral
B. Supraarchnoid
C. Subarachnoid 
D. Extracerebral
A

A and C

Subarachnoid and intracerebral

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12
Q 
Arteriosclerosis of the vertebrobasilar artery would lead to ischemia and infaction of:
A. Pons and cerebral cortex
B. Cerebellum and Brain stem
C. Thalamus and Spinal cord
D. Medulla and brainstem
A

B

Cerebellum and Brain stem

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13
Q 
Increased lumbar pressure caused by an abdominal aortic aneurysm would lead to: Pick all that apply
A. (+) Z translation
B. Imbrication
C. Scaffolding 
D. Ivory Vertebrae
A

C and D

Not A bc it could lead to (-) Z translation = posterior

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14
Q

T/F: Berry aneurysms can be linked via hereditary

A

True especially for males

UNCLE BERRY

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15
Q 
Arteriosclerosis of which artery would lead to chronic cerebral ischemia, strokes and transient ischemic attacks (TIAs)?
A. Vertebrobasilar
B. Renal
C. Internal Carotid
D. Coronary
A

C

Internal Carotid

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16
Q

Arteriosclerosis may or may not narrow the lumen while atherosclerosis always does

A

quick fact

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17
Q

Arteriosclerosis involves tunica media thickening due to calcification while in atherosclerosis media thickens due to __________ _________.

A

inflammatory mediators

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18
Q

Which of the following deals with intimal fibrosis?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriosclerosis

A

B

ARTERIO= intimal fibrosis

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19
Q 
What is a risk factor for arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis? Pick all that apply
A. LDL over 160mg/dl
B. Morbid obesity in males
C. Post menopausal women over 65 yrs old
D. Smoking
A

ALL ABCD

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20
Q 
What type of familial hyperlipoproteinemia increased your risks for arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis?
A. Type 4
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 1
A

C

Type 3

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21
Q 
Myocardial infartion, ischemia, chronic heart failure and arrythmias deal with with artery stenosis?
A. Coronary
B. Anterior communicating
C. Mesenteric
D. Iliofemoral
A

A

Coronary

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22
Q 
Arteriosclerosis of this artery leads to ischemic colitis? Pick all that apply
A. Coronary
B. Celiac
C. Renal
D. Mesenteric
A

B and D

Celiac and mesenteric

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23
Q 
When a patient has hypertension, they sometimes wake up with a headache in which cephalic region?
A. Maxillary 
B. Occipital
C. Frontal
D. Temporal
A

B
Occipital

EOP THROB

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24
Q 
Hypertension can be described as systemic elevation of diastolic pressure over:
A. 85 mmHG
B. 90 mmHg
C. 70 mmHg
D. 80 mmHg
A

B

90 mmHg

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25
Q 
50% of HTN patients have a blood pressure reading of:
A. 180/100
B. 200/150
C. 140/90
D. 120/ 80
A

C

140/90

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26
Q 
Essential hypertension would be associated with individuals:
A. over 40 yrs old
B. over 15 yrs old
C. over 30 yrs old
D. over 25 yrs old
A

A

40 is the key number for essential HTN

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27
Q

Secondary HTN can be best described as:
A. Inc. Na+ retention, inc peripheral resistance
B. Dec. Na+ retention, inc. peripheral resistance
C. Earliest phase of HTN
D. Fibronoid necrosis of tunia media

A

B

Dec. Na, Inc resistance

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28
Q 
Benign HTN is described as:
A. individuals over 40 yrs old
B. Dec. Na+ retention, inc. peripheral resistance
C. Earliest phase of HTN
D. Fibronoid necrosis of tunia media
A

C

Benign= Earliest phase

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29
Q 
Papilledema, retinal hemmorages, exudates, fibrinoid necrosis of tunia media, intimal fibrosis and vessel stenosis would best describe which type of Hypertension?
A. Essential
B. Secondary
C. Malignant
D. Benign
A

C

Malignant

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30
Q 
What would a typical blood pressure reading be for an individual experiencing malignant HTN?
A. 140/90
B. 100/150
C. 200/150
D. 120/80
A

C
200/150

super high

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31
Q 
Systemic HTN that increase the work on the left ventricle can lead to left ventricle hypertrophy and failure. This best describes which HTN disease?
A. Cerebral Disease
B. Heart Disease
C. Retinal Disease
D. Renal Disease
A

B

Heart

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32
Q

Which Hypertensive Renal Disease, you would be experiencing which of the following:
A. Thrombosis and strokes
B. Dec. GFR and loss of nephrons
C. Nephron hypertrophy and hyperplasia
D. Inc. GFR, fibrosis, and nephron hyperplasia

A

B
Dec GFR and Loss of nephrons

*leading to renal failure

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33
Q 
If there were fluffy exudates, cotton wool spots and papilledema present which HTN disease is most likely the cause?
A. Cerebral Disease
B. Heart Disease
C. Retinal Disease
D. Renal Disease
A

C

Retinal HTN disease

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34
Q

During a dissecting Aneurysm which vessel layer would be ripped?
A. Tunia externa
B. Tunica intima
C. Tunica media

A

B
Intima is ripped

*remember the intima has two layers
Internal and external elastic layers

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35
Q 
Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) is common in premature infants. It is the congential failure of the closure between:
A. Pulmonary vein and aorta
B. Pulmonary artery and aorta
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Coronary Artery and left ventricle
A

B

Pulmonary Artery and Aorta

36
Q 
Rheumatic fever is associated with valvular failures?
A. Aortic and Pulmonary
B. Mitral and Aortic
C. Tricuspid and Pulmonary
D. Mitral and Tricuspid
A

B

Mitral and Aortic

37
Q 
Which part of the heart is associated with Cor Pulmonae?
A. Left Ventricle
B. Left Atrium
C. Right Ventricle
D. Right Atrium
A

C

R. Ventricle

38
Q 
Which of the following is NOT involved with Cor Pulmonae?
A. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Dextrorotation of aorta
C. Emphysema
D. Chronic Bronchitis
39
Q 
With Tetralogy of Fallot you would see:
A. Left Atrial Hyperplasia
B. Right ventricle hypertrophy
C. Right Artial hypertrophy
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy
A

B

Right Vent. Hypertrophy

40
Q 
Dextrorotation of the aorta is common with:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Cor Pulmonae
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
A

A

Teralogy of Fallot

41
Q 
Pulmonary stenosis would be associated with:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Cor Pulmonae
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
A

A

Tertalogy of Fallot

42
Q 
Intraventricular deptal defects would be seen with:
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Cor Pulmonae
C. Rheumatic fever
D. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
A

A

Tertalogy of Fallot

43
Q

What is the acronym to remember all things associated with Teralogy of fallot?

44
Q

We know that the mitral and aortic valves are involved with Rheumatic fever. Which one is usually affected primarily?

45
Q

What is another name for the mitral valve?

A

Bicuspid or left AV valve

46
Q 
Iron deficiency is common in women of child bearing years. Which anemia is associated with this?
A. Microcytic Hyperchromic
B. Microcytic Normochromic
C. Macrocytic Hypochromic
D. Microcytic Hypochromic
A

D

Microcytic HYPOchromic

47
Q

What anemia test would be used to look for cancer, ulcers and gastritis associated with chronic hemorrhages?

48
Q 
Occult is an aka for?
A. Seen Blood
B. Hidden Blood
C. Hidden Oxygen
D. Hyperchromic
A

B
hidden blood
*must be processed to find within stool etc.

49
Q 
Frank is an aka for?
A. Seen Blood
B. Hidden Blood
C. Hidden Oxygen
D. Normochromic
A

A
Seen blood
*like in toliet water

50
Q

T/F: Pernicious Anemia is highly associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia

A

False

Macrocytic normochromic anemia

51
Q 
Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency or malabsorption of which vitamin?
A. Thiamine B1
B. Cobalt B12
C. Folate B9
D. Niacin B3
A

B
B12
Can be called cobalt, cyanocobalamin, cobalamin

52
Q

T/F: Vitamin B12 is found in animal product

A

True

Thats why vegans have a def usually

53
Q 
Pernicious anemia can lead to loss of parietal cells, leading to malabsorption, RBC breakdown and nervous system issues. What do parietal cells secrete that help with RBCs and myelin production?
A. Pepsinogen
B. Extrinsic Factor
C. Intrinsic Factor
D. Ghrelin
A

C

Intrinsic factor is very IMPORTANT

54
Q 
Production of reticulocytes is common with pernicious anemia. What are they?
A. Large Immature WBCs
B. Large Mature RBCs
C. Large Immature RBCs
D. Small Mature RBCs
A

C

Large immature

big baby huey

55
Q

Once a RBC matures it:
A. Gets smaller
B. Gets bigger

A

A

Gets smaller

56
Q 
Glove and stocking parathesia (hand and foot) is the end stage of:
A. Iron Deficiency
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Posterolateral Sclerosis
D. Anterolateral Sclerosis
A

C
Posterolateral Sclerosis

*posterior columns degrade first usually

57
Q

When would you see an Air emboli?
A. Jumping out an airplane
B. Climbing Mt. Everest
C. Deep sea diving

A

C

Deep sea diving

58
Q 
Which 2 of the following are associated with macrocytic normochromic anemia?
A. Cobalt
B. Copper
C. Thiamine
D. Folate
59
Q

Which disease would there be no meissners or auerbach;s?

A

Hirschsprung disease

60
Q 
Which bacteria commonly causes ulcers in the stomach?
A. Mycobacterium lepromatosis
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Helicobacter pylori
A

D
Helicobacter pylori

Helicopter lands in the stomach

61
Q

Pallor, cyanosis and rubor is an example of?
A. Uniphastic color change
B. Triphastic color change
C. Biphastic color change

A

B

TRI- hence 3 changes

62
Q 
Which of the following the most common NON-ISCHEMIC cardiomyopathy?
A. Restrictive Diastolic Disorder
B. Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy
C. Idiopathic Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
D. Hypertrophic Diastolic Disorder
A

B

Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy

63
Q 
Which of the following is associated with Idiopathic Dilated myocardiopathy?
A. Glycogen storage disease
B. Friedreich's Ataxia
C. Coxsackie Virus
D. Amyloidosis
A

C

Coxsackie Virus

64
Q 
Viral Myocarditis is a cause for which of the following?
A. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
C. Myocardial Infacrtion
D. Restrictive diastolic disorder
A

A

Idiopathic Dilated Cardiopathy

65
Q 
If diastole and left ventricle filling is impeded, which cardiomyopathy is involved?
A. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
C. Myocardial Infacrtion
D. Restrictive diastolic disorder
A

D

Restrictive Diastolic Disorder

66
Q 
Amyloidosis and radiation-induced fibrinosis is common with which cardiomyopathy?
A. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
C. Myocardial Infacrtion
D. Restrictive diastolic disorder
A

D

Restrictive

67
Q 
You are undergoing gradual cardiac failure with hypertrophy of the heart. Which would be the probable cause?
A. Viral Myocarditis
B. Friedreich's Ataxia
C. Amyloidosis
D. Radiation-induced fibrosis
A

A
Viral Myocarditis
*Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy

68
Q 
Causes of Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Glycogen storage disease
C. 3rd trimester Pregnancy
D. Alcoholism
A

B

Glycogen storage= Hypertophic diastolic cardiomyopathy

69
Q 
Which cardiomyopathy would be caused by freidreichs ataxia and is congenital?
A. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
C. Pectoralis Angina
D. Restrictive diastolic disorder
A

B

Hypertrophic Diastolic cardiomyopathy

70
Q

Hypertrophic diastolic cardiomyopathy is associated with:
A. Heavy muscular contracting heart
B. Gradual Cardiac Failure and hypertrophy of heart
C. Impeded Left ventricle filing
D. Full thickness of the ventricular wall

A

A

Heavy muscular contracting heart

71
Q 
If sacrodosis was the cause of your cardiomyopathy, which one do you have?
A. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic diastolic disorder
C. Myocardial Infacrtion
D. Restrictive diastolic disorder
A

A

Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy

72
Q 
Who would be most commonly involved with restrictive diastolic cardiomyopathy?
A. Diabetic Mothers
B. Children
C. Infants
D. Elderly
A

B

Children

73
Q 
Who would be most commonly involved with hypertophic diastolic cardiomyopathy?
A. Expecting Mothers
B. Children
C. Infants of Diabetic mother
D. Elderly
A

C

Infants of diabetic mothers

74
Q 
Which type of angina is common with an emotional excitement or an increase in cardiac work load?
A. Crescendo
B. Stable
C. Prinzmetal
D. Unstable
A

B

Stable or typical

75
Q

What does crescendo mean?

A

increase in noise

gets louder

76
Q

T/F: Unstable and crescendo angina are the same

77
Q

Prinzmetal angina occurs:
A. While Swimming
B. While Resting
C. While Running

78
Q 
How many types of myocardial infarction are there?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
79
Q 
Which type of angina deals with a coronary artery spasm?
A. Crescendo
B. Stable
C. Prinzmetal
D. Unstable
A

C

Prinzmetal

80
Q 
This type of angina occurs close to a MI with increased frequency, and prolonged duration?
A. Crescendo
B. Stable
C. Prinzmetal
D. Typical
A

A

Crescendo or unstable

81
Q

What are released in response to Myocardial infarction?

82
Q

T/F: There is tissue damage with Angina and Myocardial infarction

A

False only MI

83
Q

This type of myocardial infarction deals with a full or nearly full thickeness of the ventricular wall.

A

Transmural Infarct

84
Q 
Subendocardial infaction deals with the inner \_\_\_\_\_ or at most \_\_\_\_\_ of the ventricular wall.
A. 2/3, 1/2
B. 1/4, 3/4
C. 1/3, 1/2
D. 1/2, 3/4
A

C

Inner 1/3 or at most 1/2

85
Q

What is another name for myocardial infarction?

A

Ischemic Heart Disease

IHD

86
Q 
Angina is due to:
A. Enzymatic activity
B. Amyloidosis
C. Cerebral Hemorrhage
D. Acute Hypoxia
A

D

Acute hypoxia= Dec O2

B3 (6 decks)

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