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UAL 787 SV Study Questions Nov 23 > Navigation/Autoflight > Flashcards

Navigation/Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

If LNAV is armed prior to takeoff it will engage at ____ ft RA.

A. 400
B. 35
C. 50
D. 200

A

C. 50

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2
Q

At acceleration height, VNAV commands a speed ____ kts below the existing flaps placard speed, based on flap handle position.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

A. 5

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3
Q

Selecting CLB DIR (Climb Direct) deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and ______.

A. The lower of the FMC cruise altitude or the MCP altitude.
B. 10000 ft.
C. Transition Level.
D. The FMC maximum cruise altitude.

A

A. The lower of the FMC cruise altitude or the MCP altitude.

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4
Q

The ISFD receives Pitot & Static data from:

A. The Left Pitot / Static System.
B. The Right Pitot / Static System.
C. The Center Pitot / Static System.
D. The ADRS computer.

A

C. The Center Pitot / Static System

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5
Q

Which of the following may be used by the FMC for position updating?

A. GPS/IRU.
B. DME/DME IRS.
C. LOC/IRU.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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6
Q

Which statement is true, when operating with a triple FMC failure?

A. New waypoints must be entered using lat / long and are entered on the ALTN NAV page of the TCP.
B. ILS/GLS Radio tuning is available through the ALTN NAV Radio page of the TCP.
C. LNAV/VNAV is inoperative.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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7
Q

The EICAS shows “FMC”. Which of the following could cause this message to display?

A. All three FMC’s have failed.
B. Two of three FMC units have failed.
C. The FMC’s have lost all GPS position information.
D. A single FMC has failed, but navigation capability is unaffected.

A

A. All three FMC’s have failed.

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8
Q

With regard to VNAV descents which of the following is true?

A. Selecting DES NOW prompt on the VNAV DES page will start a descent to capture the VNAV PTH.
B. Using the MCP altitude selector to initiate a descent when within 50 nm of the computed top of descent initiates a DES NOW function.
C. The CDU Help Window message DRAG REQUIRED displays if actual airspeed exceeds FMC computed target speed by more than 10 knots.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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9
Q

The FMC transitions to approach if a published approach has been selected and incorporated into the active flight plan and which of the following have occurred?

A. The aircraft has sequenced the first waypoint of the active approach.
B. The aircraft is on a direct-to, or an intercept course to the active waypoint, and the distance to go is less than 12 nm.
C. The descent phase is active and the flaps are out of UP.
D. Any of the above.

A

D. Any of the above.

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10
Q

While enroute and operating more than ____ nm off the active route, the FMC does not sequence the active waypoint when the airplane passes the waypoint.

A. 15
B. 2.5
C. 50
D. 21

A

D. 21

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11
Q

The IRS’s can be fully realigned in flight using which of the following methods?

A. Over a known geographical position.
B. Using GPS position information.
C. Using LOC/DME updating.
D. The IRS’s can never be realigned in flight.

A

B. Using GPS position information.

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12
Q

If all IRU inertial data fails which of the following occurs?

A. The FMC continues to receive hybrid GPS-inertial position solutions using the AHRU inertial sensors combined with GPS position.
B. The AHRU’s continue to supply attitude data to the PFDs.
C. The EICAS advisory message NAV IRU is diplayed.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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13
Q

The AHRU supplies:

A. Attitude.
B. Heading.
C. Rate information.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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14
Q

In the event of a complete failure of both Inertial Reference Systems, what instrument(s) is/are available?

A. Only the ISFD, PFD’s are unusable.
B. Heading on the ND’s and mini-map’s, provided by the ISFD.
C. Attitude, Altitude and Airspeed on the PFD’s, provided by the ISFD.
D. Answers B and C are both correct.

A

C. Attitude, Altitude and Airspeed on the PFD’s, provided by the ISFD.

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15
Q

When will placing the IRS switches to the OFF position remove power from the IRU’s?

A. Only if the aircraft is on the ground.
B. Only if external power is powering the aircraft.
C. Only if the Battery switch is OFF.
D. Anytime they are powered.

A

D. Anytime they are powered.

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16
Q

For FMC ILS/GLS autotuning to occur the airplane must be less than 50 NM from the top of descent, or less than 150 NM from the landing runway, or the FMC must be in the descent mode AND

A. An ILS/LOC/GLS runway must be in the active route.
B. A LOC back course approach must be in the active route.
C. A reference speed has been selected on the approach page.
D. Either A or B.

A

D. Either A or B.

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17
Q

Climb and/or Descent waypoint speed constraints entered on the legs page:

A. Must be entered on LSK 1R to be active.
B. Require an altitude constraint at the same waypoint.
C. Do not require an altitude constraint.
D. Will only be active in VNAV cruise mode.

A

C. Do not require an altitude constraint.

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18
Q

The normal pitch mode annunciated on the FMA during a VNAV climb is:

A. FPA
B. FLCH SPD
C. V/S
D. VNAV SPD

A

D. VNAV SPD

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19
Q

A descent initiated more than 50 miles from the T/D using the MCP altitude selector results in:

A. A new cruise altitude.
B. A new T/D.
C. A VNAV SPD descent to the new cruise altitude.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

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20
Q

If unforecast tailwinds during a VNAV PTH descent cause the A/C to accelerate more than ____ kts above target speed to maintain the path, the FMA mode will change from VNAV PTH to VNAV SPD.

A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

C. 15

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21
Q

With a triple FMC failure which pages of the CDU will be inoperative?

A. All CDU pages are lost.
B. LEGS and RTE pages.
C. PROG and VNAV pages.
D. B & C are correct, but PERF and APPROACH pages are available.

A

A. All CDU pages are lost.

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22
Q

During climb, if CLIMB DIRECT is selected, what happens to any intermediate climb restriction on the RTE LEGS page?

A. All intermediate altitude restrictions up to the MCP altitude will be deleted and the FMC will direct a climb to the altitude set on the MCP.
B. The FMC will remove only the active climb restriction.
C. The FMC will honor all intermediate altitude restrictions.
D. Both A and B.

A

A. All intermediate altitude restrictions up to the MCP altitude will be deleted and the FMC will direct a climb to the altitude set on the MCP.

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23
Q

What speed does the FMC plan for during holding?

A. Best holding speed for the aircraft gross weight, altitude and flap setting.
B. Currenairspeed at the time the holding fix is crossed.
C. 5 knots above Flaps 5 maneuver speed.
D. Max holding speed for assigned altitude.

A

A. Best holding speed for the aircraft gross weight, altitude and flap setting.

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24
Q

When is the EICAS caution message “AUTOTHROTTLE DISC” displayed and aural alert sounded?

A. When either reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle.
B. When thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
C. At touchdown, with wheel spin up and spoildr deployment.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

B. When thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.

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25
Q

How many GPS receivers does the B787 have?

A. Three: Left, Center and Right.
B. One Multi-unit receiver.
C. No receivers; only two transmitters.
D. Two: Left and Right.

A

D. Two: Left and Right.

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26
Q

The Approach (APP) Switch:

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.
B. When pushed, the glideslope will capture when the intercept track is within 80 degrees of the localizer even if localizer is not captured.
C. Pressing any other roll or pitch mode below 1500 ft can disengage approach mode.
D. Both A and B are correct.

A

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to capture.

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27
Q

How many FMCs does the B787 have, and how do they operate?

A. Two, one operates as the activ (primary) and the other is in standby but continuously updated.
B. Three, one operates as the master and the others are designated as a spare and a backup.
C. Three, one operates as primary, and the other two crosscheck.
D. Three, two operate simultaneously for the CA and FO and continually crosstalk, and the third is a standby.

A

B. Three, one operates as the master and the others are designated as a spare and a backup.

28
Q

Pushing the Altitude Selector inner knob during climb or descent:

A. With waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude window, deletes the next altitude constraint.
B. With no altitude constraints and the MCP altitude window set above the FMC cruise alt, will reset the FMC cruise altitude to the window value.
C. With no alt constraints and MCP altitude window set below the FMC CRZ altitude, the FMC cruise altitude is changed to the altitude window value.
D. Both A and B.

A

D. Both A and B.

29
Q

The IRS switches on the overhead panel:

A. Are functional in flight and on the ground.
B. Will turn off the respective IRS on the ground only when the aircraft is below 30 kts.
C. Can be used to turn off the IRS’s at anytime.
D. Both A and C.

A

D. Both A and C.

30
Q

The Bank Limit Selector _____.

A. In AUTO, controls bank limit between15 and 25 degrees when in LNAV.
B. When 5, 10, 15, 20, or 25 selected, this will be the maximum bank limit for all roll modes.
C. In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.
D. In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in LNAV depending on TAS.

A

C. In AUTO, controls bank limit between 15 and 25 degrees when in HDG SEL or TRK SEL depending on TAS.

31
Q

The ISFD provides:

A. Backup air data and attitude information to applicable instruments using the ALT SOURCE switch.
B. A backup attitude source and backup airspeed and altitude to the PFD.
C. No information at all until an AHRU failure.
D. Primary attitude information to the PFD.

A

B. A backup attitude source and backup airspeed and altitude to the PFD.

32
Q

Pushing the Lateral Navigation (LNAV) Switch:

A. Engages LNAV if the airplane is above 50 ft RA and within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
B. When engaged, displays LNAV in green on the PFD FMA roll window.
C. Engages HDG SEL if not within 2.5 NM of the active leg.
D. Both A and B.

A

D. Both A and B.

33
Q

If both IRS’s fail:

A. LNAV and VNAV are no longer available.
B. All Autopilot functions are lost.
C. LNAV and VNAV continue to operate normally.
D. LNAV remains available using GPS position information, but all VNAV functions are lost.

A

A. LNAV and VNAV are no longer available.

34
Q

When do the autothrottles disconnect automatically:

A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is raised to idle.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

35
Q

During an ILS autoland approach, what does LAND 3 displayed on the PFD indicate?

A. the autopilot system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing.
B. The aircraft ha passed 1,500 feet radio altitude and a self check has been completed satisfactorily.
C. The autopilot cannot be disconnected until touchdown, except by use of the disconnect bar.
D. Answers A and B are both correct.

A

D. Answers A and B are both correct.

36
Q

Which statement(s) is/are true regarding IRS alignment?

A. If GPS is available, manual entry of Present Position is not required.
B. On the ground the aircraft should not be moved during alignment.
C. Either IRS may be realinged in flight, if GPS is available.
D. All of the above are correct.

A

D. All of the above are correct.

37
Q

What are the indications of an operational IRS losing normal power while on the ground?

A. A horn in the nosewheel area sounds.
B. An EICAS ““IRS POWER”” message appears
C. An illuminated “ON BAT” light.
D. A and C are correct.

A

D. A and C are correct.

38
Q

If both IRS’s fail, will the FMC’s continue to operate?

A. Yes, GPS provides track and position to the FMC.
B. No, use of ALTN NAV is required.
C. Yes, the ISFD will provide all required FMC data.
D. No, all navigation systems are lost and crew must use mag compass and dead reckoning for position information.

A

A. Yes, GPS provides track and position to the FMC.

39
Q

Vertical RNP values may be entered on the CDU ____ page.

A. VNAV Cruise Page.
B. RNP Progress Page (Progress 4/4).
C. VNAV Desent Page.
D. POS INIT Page.

A

B. RNP Progress Page (Progress 4/4).

40
Q

With LOC and G/S armed, to capture the localizer, which of the following conditions must exist?

A. Aircraft heading must be within no more than 90 degrees of localizer.
B. ILS / GLS frequency must be selected in the FMC.
C. Aircraft heading must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. B and C.

A

D. B and C.

41
Q

The ADRS is the primary source for speed and altitude to:
A. Standby instruments.
B. Captains instruments.
C. EEC’s.
D. None of the above.

A

B. Captains instruments.

42
Q

How does a pilot know when the IRS alignment is complete?

A. The EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R is removed.
B. The horn in the nosewheel well sounds twice for two seconds each.
C. The FMC will not accept an uplink before alignment is complete.
D. Both answers A an C are correct.

A

A. The EICAS memo message IRU ALIGN MODE L+R is removed.

43
Q

What does the “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message mean when an amber line is drawn through the pitch mode on the FMA?

A. The engaged auto pilot has failed.
B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.
C. The pitch mode has failed and the auto pilot is disconnected.
D. All of the above.

A

B. The pitch mode has failed and the autopilot is continuing to operate.

44
Q

If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 kts on takeoff it cannot be engaged until above _____.

A. 400 ft.
B. 1000 ft.
C. 50 ft.
D. 800 ft.

A

A. 400 ft.

45
Q

During cruise with the autopilot engaged, how many autopilots actually control the aircraft?

A. All operating autopilots.
B. Only one: left, right, or center.
C. Any two: left & right, left and center, or right and center.
D. Two, both left and right.

A

A. All operating autopilots.

46
Q

During an autolanding, thrust is automatically retarded towards idle at ________.

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.
B. 100 ft MSL.
C. Minimums.
D. Touchdown.

A

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.

47
Q

Pushing the FLCH button in flight will automatically engage the autothrottles in what mode?

A. In the THR REF mode.
B. In the THR mode.
C. In the TO/GA mode.
D. In the HOLD mode.

A

B. In the THR mode.

48
Q

When climbing or descending in V/S or FPA, the AP/FD pitch mode will change to ______ when the selected altitude is reached.

A. VNAV ALT
B. VNAV PATH
C. ATT
D. ALT

A

D. ALT

49
Q

Below 1500 ft with LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated:

A. Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.
B. Only the right autopilot controls the aircraft.
C. The AIMS selects the appropriate autopilot according to flight conditions.
D. Both the left and right autopilots control the aircraft.

A

A. Any combination of two or more autopilots are controlling the aircraft.

50
Q

During an approach, when does TO/GA become armed?

A. whenever the flaps are out of up.
B. At glideslope capture.
C. When either TOGA button is pushed.
D. Either A or B.

A

D. Either A or B.

51
Q

During a Go-Around, pushing either TO/GA switch once causes the autothrottles to:

A. Engage in speed (SPD) mode.
B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.
C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.
D. Engage in hold (HOLD) mode.

A

B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2,000 fpm climb.

52
Q

The minimum altitude the autopilot may be initially engaged at is ____ with one or both engines operating.

A. 800 ft.
B. 400 ft.
C. 200 ft .
D. None of the above.

A

C. 200 ft .

53
Q

During CAT III LAND 3 operations, after landing, when does the autopilot automatically disengage.

A. When the reversers are stowed.
B. When the autobrakes are disengaged.
C. When the aircraft senses a pilot using the tiller.
D. It doesn’t automatically disconnect.

A

D. It doesn’t automatically disconnect.

54
Q

What envelope protection(s) does the autopilot provide during operation in the normal flight control mode?

A. Stall.
B. Overspeed.
C. Bank Angle.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

55
Q

What pitch and roll commands does the Flight Director provide during T/O?

A. V2 + 15 kts or the speed at rotation plus 15 kts whichever is greater.
B. Heading to maintain the track existing at lift-off.
C. If target speed is exceeded for 5 seconds, a new target speed up to V2 + 25 kts max.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

56
Q

During autoland operations, which of the following occurs at 1500 ft AGL?

A. Self test of autoland system.
B. Only 2 autopilots electrically isolate.
C. LAND 2 or 3 annunciated on the ASA (Rollout and Flare annunciated as armed).
D. A and C.

A

D. A and C.

57
Q

With the autothrottle FMA indication of THR REF, the thrust is set to _______.

A. MCT
B. Takeoff Power
C. The thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.
D. None of the above.

A

C. The thrust limit displayed on the EICAS.

58
Q

During the takeoff roll prior to lift off, if the autothrottles are not engaged by ______, they cannot be engaged until above 400 feet AGL.

A. 80 kts.
B. 100 kts.
C. 50 kts.
D. None of the above.

A

C. 50 kts.

59
Q

What display indicates positive engagement of a mode selected on the MCP?

A. The Flight Mode Annunciator.
B. The light in the switch on the MCP.
C. The EICAS display.
D. Either answer A or B is correct.

A

A. The Flight Mode Annunciator.

60
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Climb / Continuous (CLB / CON) Thrust Switch on the MCP?

A. Selecting CLB / CON with two engines operating selects FMC climb thrust.
B. Selecting CLB / CON with one engine operating selects max continuous thrust.
C. Selecting CLB / CON is not necessary after an engine failure at cruise altitude if ENG OUT is executed on the VNAV CRZ page of the CDU.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

61
Q

With an EICAS advisory message NO LAND 3 displayed, which of the following is true?

A. An ILS approach to CAT III minimums should not be attempted.
B. A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.
C. CAT III operations are not affected.
D. Only the Captain should fly the approach, regardless of current weather conditions..

A

B. A CAT III approach and autoland can be safely conducted to LAND 2 minimums if supported by airport and aircrew requirements.

62
Q

Approaches flown using IAN feature:

A. ILS signals.
B. GLS signals.
C. LNAV guidance.
D. Both A or B.

A

A. ILS signals.

63
Q

If the autopilot remains engaged below 100 ft. RA on a non-ILS approach, ____ is displayed.

A. NO AUTOLAND.
B. LAND 2.
C. The Master Warning.
D. Go-Around.

A

A. NO AUTOLAND.

64
Q

To use IAN feature, flight crews should use the _____ mode to enable the approach.

A. LOC
B. APP
C. LNAV
D. VOR

A

B. APP

65
Q

Without using the autopilot disconnect switches on the yolks, or the the Autopilot Disengage Bar on the MCP, can a pilot disconnect the autopilot?

A. Yes, by applying sufficient force to move the control wheel or control column.
B. Yes, by applying sufficient force to move the rudder pedals, but only if LAND 2 or LAND 3 is annunciated.
C. Yes, by manually inputing stab trim using the Alternate trim switches.
D. Either A or B is correct.

A

D. Either A or B is correct.

66
Q

When is TOGA inhibited on Approach and Landing?

A. <2 feet RA until above 5 feet RA for 3 seconds
B. At 50 feet RA on go-around
C. Once FLARE is engaged on Autoland
D. Never

A

A. <2 feet RA until above 5 feet RA for 3 seconds

67
Q

During a manual go-around (A/P disconnected) the throttles must be manually selected to go-around thrust once <2 feet RA until above 5 feet RA for 3 seconds, then select TOGA switch.

True False

A

True

UAL 787 SV Study Questions Nov 23 (13 decks)

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