NAVEDTRA 14308A, OPERATIONS SPECILIST, VOL 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which battleship was one of the first ships to have radar installed?

A

USS California

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What provides organized collection, processing, display, competent evaluation, and rapid dissemination of pertinent tactical information and intelligence to command and control stations?

A

CIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the guidance and assistance given to aircraft by personnel not actually engaged in the flight?

A

Air control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which instruction along with the CV NATOPS manual assigns the responsibility for tactical and mission control of aircraft during assigned missions to the CIC officer?

A

OPNAVINST 3120.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Whenever you use a navigation chart, you must take radar fixes at least every how many minutes and recommend courses of action to the navigator, based on positions obtained by radar?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which operations deny the enemy the effective use of its submarines?

A

ASW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

ASW aircraft are usually controlled by an Operation Specialist known as the what?

A

ASTAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What action is required to destroy or to reduce the enemy’s air and missile threat to an acceptable level?

A

Air Warfare (AW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the international radiotelephone urgency signal meaning the calling station has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft, or other vehicle; or the safety of a person?

A

PAN PAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“Mayday” spoken how many times and followed by the aircraft’s cell sign means the pilot is threatened with danger and needs help immediately?

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What pattern will a lost aircraft hat has voice communications problems fly in?

A

Triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which operations involve the movement of troops, supplies, and vehicles from ship to shore?

A

Amphibious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Until which year was all minesweeping conducting by wooden-hulled boats and ships which steamed through the minefield trailing special minesweeping gear behind them?

A

1971

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is defined as a military action that uses electromagnetic spectrum?

A

Electronic Warfare (EW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many divisions is Electronic Warfare broken down into?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How many major functions is information handling composed of?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the collecting of combat information from various sources referred to as?

A

Gathering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What consists of sorting, inspecting, appraising, and correlating all information so the resulting filtered information may be displayed and disseminated as necessary?

A

Processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the process of considering and weighing all available information to arrive at a sound operational decision?

A

Evaluating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the process of distributing evaluated information to the various control stations and others throughout the ship who need to know?

A

Disseminating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many basic conditions of readiness are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which condition is set when the ship is at General Quarters, with all hands at battle stations and all equipment lighted off and ready for instant action?

A

Condition I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many hours can the crew endure condition I?

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the maximum number of days that the crew can endure condition III settings?

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which condition can be set permanently?

A

Condition IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a chief source of information for indoctrinating new personnel in CIC operations?

A

CIC doctrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who acts as direct advisor to command from the display and decision (D&D) area and must be kept informed of the general tactical situation in order to make the best evaluation of the information available in CIC?

A

Evaluator/ TAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Who acts as liaison between the weapons control station and CIC?

A

Ship’s Weapon Coordinator (SWC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who acts as a liaison between weapons control and CIC during surface engagements and shore bombardment operations (NSFS)?

A

Gunnery Liaison Officer (GLO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who coordinates all surface and tactical information, makes recommendations to the evaluator/TAO and to conn, and supervises the collection and display of all available information on surface contacts?

A

Surface Watch Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who supervises the radar navigation team to ensure accurate and prompt fixing of the ship’s position by using all electronic means available?

A

Piloting officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who advises conn of the position, course, speed, and closest point of approach (CPA) of all surface contacts in the area, with particular emphasis on small craft appearing at short range and contacts that have changed course or have erratic courses and speeds?

A

Shipping Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which type of plot is a large area, true display showing the position, movement, and strength of own and enemy sea, land, and air forces within a prescribed area of operations?

A

Strategic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which type of plot is a true display of the position and tracks of friendly, enemy, and unidentified surface, subsurface, and certain air contacts?

A

Geographic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of plot is a comprehensive relative display of positions and tracks of friendly, enemy, and unidentified surface and subsurface targets?

A

Surface summary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What provide a listing of current tactical information which, because of space limitations, cannot be presented on plots but must be available immediately for proper evaluations?

A

Status boards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which method is used to task and disseminate to components, subordinate units, and command and control agencies projected sorties, capabilities and/or forces to targets and specific missions?

A

ATO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which type of board lists the mode II personal identifications (PIF) code assignments for every ship and aircraft expected to be encountered during a particular operating period?

A

Identification Status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DI codes are entered into the TDS system for readout on what?

A

Link 11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which type of board contains a listing of all voice calls of ships, commands, and task organizations?

A

Voice call signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which board indicates radio circuit assignments, frequencies, equipment allocation, radio remote station channelization, and use?

A

Communication status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which board displays a summary of surface data such as own ship and base course and speed, guard assignments, formation guide, screen stations, and wind direction and speed?

A

Surface status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which system was designed to provide naval forces with increased combat direction capabilities?

A

Tactical Data System (TDS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which system is merely a network of metal tubes designed to carry the sound of the voice from one station to another?

A

Voice tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are used for relaying written messages between communication stations in some ships?

A

Pneumatic tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which systems transmit orders and information between stations within the ship, by means of direct, amplified voice communications?

A

Mutli–Channel (MC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which systems (also called central amplifier systems), are designed to broadcast orders or information to a large number of stations simultaneously?

A

Shipboard announcing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which system provides two-way communications for stations dealing with air operations on aircraft carriers?

A

19MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which system is used primarily to pass combat intelligence from each main plotting group in CIC to a variety of users?

A

20MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which system provides two-way transmission of ship control orders and information among key stations?

A

21MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which system is used to pass information and orders concerning radio facilities, as well as data, between radio rooms and certain other radio operating stations?

A

22MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which system provides two-way transmission of flag orders and information between selected stations?

A

24MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which system provides one-way communication from sonar operators to the captain’s tactical plot, open bridge, pilothouse, CIC, underwater battery plot, and the ASW attack station?

A

29MC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which is a computer- controlled voice system that serves as the ship’s internal telephone system and replaces the majority of the circuits traditionally associated with sound- powered telephones?

A

IVCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Sometimes, as you are transmitting a message, but before you complete the transmission, you may realize that you made an error that you can correct only by stating the massage over. Or , you may realize that you shouldn’t have sent the message. In such instances, use what phrase?

A

Belay my last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Altitude of raid aircraft is always expressed in what?

A

feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which brevity code word pertains to he height of friendly aircraft only?

A

angels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

information received in CIC is recorded in notebooks or standard ledgers. What are these notebooks called that are required to provide a permanent, continuous record of the ship’s operations?

A

Logs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Generally, information contained in CIC logs is divided into three categories; personal, equipment, and what else?

A

Operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which form is used for recording radar contacts?

A

OPNAV Form 3100/5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which form are most CIC logs maintained on?

A

OPNAV Form 3100/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many groups can log entries be divided into?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the captain’s instructions to the watch?

A

Captain’s night order book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The TGT tactical/Warning net log along with which other log are among the most important radiotelephone logs?

A

TG reporting net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

To perform CIC functions intelligently, operations specialists must have certain advance information. Two major sources of such information are the operation plan (OpPlan) along with what else?

A

Operation order (OpOrder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which publication should be referred to for detailed information concerning operation plans and operation orders?

A

NWP 5-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which directive is issued by a senior command for operations over a large geographical area and, usually, for a considerable period of time?

A

Operation plan (OpPlan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which directive is issued by a commander to subordinates that specifies how an operation should take place?

A

Operation order (OpOrder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which publications provides current, approved U.S. Navy tactics, doctrine, procedures, and terminology?

A

Naval warfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What contains information gleaned from previous actions or operations that is or may be useful in planning and conducting future actions or operations?

A

Lessons Learned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A TACMEMO is automatically canceled after how many years if it is not reissued, replaced by a TACNOTE, or made part of an NWP?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is a tactic that has been fully evaluated and accepted as an approved tactic for use by the appropriate operational command and units?

A

TACNOTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the central point within a command where NWPs are administered and maintained?

A

NWPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Binders for U.S naval warfare publications are color-coded according their security classifications. What is the color code for TOP secret?

A

Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Binders for U.S naval warfare publications are color coded according their security classifications. What is the color code for secret?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Binders for U.S naval warfare publications are color coded according their security classifications. What is the color code for Confidential?

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Binders for U.S naval warfare publications are color coded according their security classifications. What is the color code for Unclassified?

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What refers to the manner in which classified material is protected by physical or mechanical means?

A

Storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who is responsible for the preparation and proper execution of all NWPL transactions, record keeping, and other duties associated with the NWPL?

A

NWPL publications clerk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a guide to the naval warfare publication system, including periodic reviews and procedures, publication procurement, a general summary of each publication, and guidance for the operation of a naval warfare publication library (NWPL)

A

NWP 1-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a glossary of the most commonly used terminology of naval warfare?

A

NWP 1-02

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What establishes the basic doctrine, policies, and principles governing operational communications?

A

NWP 6-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What contains composite warfare concepts and the composite warfare chain of command?

A

NWP 3-56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What presents the planning process related to the conduct of naval warfare for operations, logistics, communications, intelligence and psychological warfare?

A

NWP 5-01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What provides the tactical action officer (TAO) with rote-type information, which he might momentarily forget in a rapidly developing situation but may need quickly to make a tactical decision?

A

NWP 1-10.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What describes operational procedures and equipment for the replacement of ships at sea?

A

NWP 4-01.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What provides guidance to units assigned SAR responsibilities?

A

NWP 3-50.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which publication presents the planning and execution of ship to shore movements and the organization, functions, and tactical employment of the naval beach group during amphibious operations?

A

NWP 3-02.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which publication details AW organization and doctrine?

A

NWP 3-01.01

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

which publication provides doctrine and procedures for electronic warfare?

A

NWP 3-13.1.13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which publication describes the mandatory operational procedures and training requirements for the shipboard employment for helicopters?

A

NWP 3-04.1M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which publication describes in detail the theory and technical application of TMA, using the sonar systems and ranging techniques applicable for surface ships?

A

NWP 3-21.51.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which publication establishes tactics and procedures for conducting submarine and antisubmarine exercise, with criteria for evaluating results?

A

FXP 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which publication presents procedures and tactics for conducting aircraft exercises, as well as criteria for evaluating the exercise?

A

FXP 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which publication provides exercises for all types of ships and guidance for observers in evaluating the exercises?

A

FXP 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which publication promotes effective communications within NATO by providing standardized terminology for military use?

A

AAP 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which publications provides information on conducting allied exercises and criteria for evaluating those exercises?

A

AXPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How many categories does destruction of classified material fall into?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The level of security classification of the material being destroyed determines the destruction procedures used. These procedures are established by what series?

A

SECNAVISNT 5510.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

How many witnesses are required for destruction of TOP Secret and Secret material?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When Top secret material and special types of information are placed in a burn bag or actually destroyed a record of destruction must be retained for how many years?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The destruction of superseded and obsolete classified material that have served their purpose is called what?

A

Routine destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

For commands holding COMSEC material, additional emergency destruction guidance is contained in what?

A

CMS 1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which type of material has the highest priority for emergency destruction?

A

Cryptographic material (COMSEC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

You may jettison classified material at sea at depths of how many fathoms or more?

A

1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Marconi announced that he had noticed the reflection of radio waves by objects many miles away in what year?

A

1922

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the shortest radio waves called?

A

microwaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Recognizing the importance of radar, the US Navy ordered it for its ships in 1936. What was the first vessel to use radar in 1938?

A

USS New York

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What part of a RADAR system takes the RF energy from the transmitter and radiates it in a highly directional beam?

A

Antenna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Which part of a RADAR system amplifies the weak returning echoes and produces them as video pulses to be applied to the indicator?

A

Receiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What produces a visual trace of the area being searched by the radar and accurately displays the returning video echo on this trace?

A

Indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Radio frequency (RF) waves travel through space at the speed of light - how many statute miles per second?

A

186,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

For naval purposes, the speed of light is 164000 nautical miles, or how many yards, per second?

A

328,000,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

how many basic characteristics do radio waves have?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the measure of a wave’s energy level?

A

amplitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is one complete reversal of an alternating current, starting at zero and going through a positive peak; than a negative peak; and back to zero?

A

Cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Since cycles occur at a regular rate; a definite interval of time is required to complete each cycle. This time interval is known as the wave’s what?

A

Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the frequency at which the transmitter operates?

A

Carrier frequency (FC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

The number of times the transmitter is turned on each second is known as what property of the radar?

A

pulse repetition rate (PRR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is the time between radar pulse?

A

Rest time (RT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the actual time that a radar transmits?

A

Pulsewidth (PW)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

There are two types of RF power associated with a radar transmitter; peak power and what else?

A

Average power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The propagation velocity of RF energy is how many yards per microsecond?

A

328

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Search radars are calibrated on the basis of how many yards per nautical mile?

A

2,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Various kinds of indicators are used as radar repeaters. What is the most familiar indicator in use today?

A

Plan position indicator (PPI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What determines the maximum theoretical range of a radar?

A

Pulse repetition rate (PRR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is the ability of radar to give separate indications of individual targets called?

A

Resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Radar antennas radiate RF energy in which type of patterns that extend outward from the antenna in only one direction for a given antenna position?

A

Lobes or Beams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How many important characteristics do directional antennas have?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which antenna property refers to the degree of sharpness of its beam?

A

Directivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is one means of changing a spherical wave front into a plane wave front?

A

Parabolic reflector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Energy that is not directed toward the paraboloid has a wide-beam characteristic that would destroy the narrow pattern from the parabolic reflector. What can be used to prevent this occurrence which directs most radiation toward the parabolic surface?

A

Hemispherical shield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What may be described as any set of conductors used to carry signals or energy from one location to another?

A

Transmission lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Various types of transmission lines can be used, depending on the frequency of the radar. The two most common types are coaxial cables and what else?

A

Waveguides

135
Q

Which electronic switching device permits fitting a radar with a single antenna for both transmitting and receiving?

A

Duplexer

136
Q

A natural property of light rays (and radio waves) is that the direction of their transmission path changes as they pass between media having different densities. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Refraction

137
Q

The means by which a wave bends around edges of an object and penetrates into the shadow region behind it is called what?

A

Diffraction

138
Q

What is the scattering and absorption of energy as it passes through a medium called?

A

Attenuation

139
Q

The temperature and moisture content of the atmosphere normally decrease with height above the surface of Earth. Under certain conditions, temperature may first decrease with height and then begin to increase. Such a situation is called a what?

A

Temperature inversion

140
Q

Some of the energy radiated by a radar strikes the surface of the sea near the ship. Most of this energy is reflected off the waves at various angles away from the ship. Some of it is reflected back to the radar where it is detected as target echoes. What are these echoes called?

A

Sea return

141
Q

What is the device used to display radar information known as?

A

Radar indicator

142
Q

What is a polar-coordinate display of the surrounding area, with own ship represented by the origin of the sweep (normally) located in the center of the scope?

A

PPI scope

143
Q

What provides the operator with a processed radar display (symbology and other information) as opposed to the raw video display on the basic PPI scope?

A

TDS Scope

144
Q

What is an advanced navigation, air search, and tactical situation solid-state radar indicator designed for both CIC and bridge environments?

A

AN/SPA-25G

145
Q

How many types of tactical information (input data) to the ADS console are there?

A

2

146
Q

What is the studying of radar echoes for characteristics that will reveal the identification, character, and intent of targets?

A

Scope interpretation

147
Q

There are four main pip characteristics you must consider in echo interpretation and evaluation. These are shape, size, fluctuation, and what else?

A

Motion

148
Q

An aircraft flying at 20,000 feet should be detectable at about how many nautical miles by an air search radar?

A

185

149
Q

Most radars have certain areas where contacts cannot be detected. These areas are predictable and are called what?

A

Fade Areas

150
Q

These are two recommended methods for marking a track- the continuous line method and what other method?

A

Dot

151
Q

Within a range of how many nautical miles, you will be able to determine the number of ships and their positions within the formation by the number, position, and bearing of the echoes?

A

10

152
Q

The average range of detection for hurricanes is about how many nautical miles?

A

200 to 250

153
Q

Most tornadoes move in a northeasterly direction at a forward speed of up to about how many knots?

A

45

154
Q

Radar contacts made on targets that cannot be seen are often given what erroneous title?

A

Phantom contacts

155
Q

Often, you will see one or several lines that move rapidly across the screen. these lines are usually caused by another radar transmitter operating on or near your radar’s frequency. What are they called because of their unusual appearance on the scope?

A

Running rabbits

156
Q

What is the system that ships and stations use to identify friendly aircraft and ships?

A

Identification friend or for (IFF)

157
Q

In 1963, the US Armed Forces pooled their requirements and efforts under an Air Force project office and created a set of requirements for a new IFF system, designed what?

A

AIMS

158
Q

What is IFF called in the civil air traffic control environment?

A

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SRR)

159
Q

What is an identification friend or foe (IFF) digital transponder required to replace outdated technology with digital technology as well as to improve the reliability and maintainability of the aging MK XII IFF systems?

A

APX-118

160
Q

Which type of functions are those in which the codes of targets in the active area on the display are read out on the intratarget data indicator?

A

Active

161
Q

The IFF system has several anti-jamming features and will be enhanced with more of these in the years ahead. The decoder contains special circuitry to reduce jamming caused by constant transmission of signals known as what?

A

Reset tags

162
Q

For voice communication with military craft, a set of standard brevity codes has been established by what?

A

ACP 165 (F)

163
Q

There are a number of IFF antennas; two of the most common are the OE120 Electronically steerable Antenna (ESA), and what Omni-directional antenna?

A

AS177

164
Q

What is probably the oldest form of navigation?

A

Dead reckoning (DR)

165
Q

What is the basic navigation compass?

A

Magnetic Compass

166
Q

The amount the needle is offset on the magnetic compass from true north by the Earth’s magnetic field is called what?

A

Variation

167
Q

The amount a magnetic compass needle is deflected by magnetic materials in the ship around it is called what?

A

Deviation

168
Q

What do ships use for primary navigation to eliminate the directional problems associated with magnetic compasses?

A

Gyrocompass

169
Q

What is the only fully functional Global navigation satellite system (GNSS)?

A

Global Positioning System (GPS)

170
Q

What is a COTS-based Sonar In-situ Mode Assessment system (SIMAS II) and has a common integrated Tactical picture (CITP) capability associated with the AN/SQQ-89 ASW Combat system combining improved sensors and weapon control systems with acoustic data processing and display?

A

Tactical Decision Support Subsystem (TDSS)

171
Q

What is the paperless digital replacement for the DRT?

A

CADRT

172
Q

What provides Multi-Platform coordination, tactical decision making & mission planning along with tactical decision Aids (TDAs) that will tailor the tactical picture, and are shared across multiple workstations to show current geographical situational plot, historical tracks and future projections?

A

CADRT

173
Q

Which device allows a straightedge- positioned in any desired direction, to be moved anywhere on the plotting surface, at all times maintaining the same direction?

A

PMP

174
Q

How many operations specialists are required whenever the Halifax plot is used?

A

3

175
Q

When the APS is used for tracking contacts, the how many yards per inch scale is the most popular?

A

2000

176
Q

When a man overboard report is received, a plotter must quickly mark the bug, indicating ship’s present position, and change the APS scale to how many yards to the inch?

A

200

177
Q

What is simply a direction to a target (or object)?

A

Bearing

178
Q

The principal bearing used in CIC are true and what else?

A

Relative

179
Q

What is the angular measurement between own ship’s head (own course) and the line of bearing to the object?

A

Relative Bearing

180
Q

What is a bearing that is 180 degrees, plus or minus, from any given bearing?

A

Reciprocal

181
Q

What is the movement of one object in relation to another the movement that takes place between two objects when one or both is moving independently?

A

Relative movement

182
Q

What is a drawing to scale showing the position of one moving object relative to other objects?

A

Relative plot

183
Q

Which type of plot (also called the navigation plot) shows the true movement of surface, subsurface, and certain air contacts?

A

Geographic

184
Q

What is a comprehensive, relative display of the positions and tracks of friendly, enemy, and unidentified surface and subsurface targets, of geographical points, and of other data required for an understanding of the complete surface picture?

A

Surface plot

185
Q

What is a large-area true display showing the position, movement, and strength of own and enemy sea, land, and air forces within a prescribed area of operations?

A

Strategic plot

186
Q

The symbology, based on historical se and the tactical data system (TDS), is divided into how many fundamental types?

A

3

187
Q

Until an air contact is identified, it is referred to by what term and is assumed to be an enemy contact?

A

Bogey

188
Q

Whenever you plot a contact, obtain and plot its course and speed after the first how many minutes of tracks and checked them frequently thereafter to ensure that you note any significant changes?

A

3

189
Q

What is the mean line between a number of plots and normally is computed to even tens of degrees?

A

course

190
Q

What is the heart of ASW operations in CIC?

A

APS plot

191
Q

Before the Halifax plot is used, the APS paper should first be lightly marked off with parallel north-south and east-west lines about how many inches apart?

A

2

192
Q

If at all possible, the ship should maintain a speed of how many knots while emergency plotting is in progress, to support dead reckoning?

A

15

193
Q

What is a method of tracking a submarine by using information obtained by passive means?

A

Target motion analysis (TMA)

194
Q

What is a simple, logical, and orderly method of viewing the relationship of own ship and the target ship during all phases of approach and attack?

A

LOS diagram

195
Q

What is change of target bearing, in degrees per minute?

A

Bearing rate

196
Q

A bearing rate of about how many degrees per minute or higher is a strong indication that the target is close enough for the TAO to consider going to an active search?

A

3 degrees

197
Q

What techniques attempt to estimate target course, speed, and range by fitting trial target tracks (speed strips) to a set of bearing lines drawn from own ship’s position at designated times?

A

Geographic plotting

198
Q

What is a method of solving for target course and range by using an assumed target speed?

A

Strip plot

199
Q

What is used to determine the relative motion between own ship and a contact?

A

Maneuvering board

200
Q

a change of position in relation to the Earth is called geographical or what type of motion?

A

True

201
Q

What is the motion of one object with respect to another object called?

A

relative motion

202
Q

The maneuvering board is a polar-coordinate plotting sheet devised to solve relative motion problems. It contains ten equally spaced circles and how many radial bearing lines?

A

36

203
Q

What is used to measure the rate of travel?

A

speed

204
Q

What is the time rate of motion in a specified direction?

A

Velocity

205
Q

What is a quantity having both magnitude and direction and is represented graphically by an arrow?

A

Vector

206
Q

What is the speed at which the maneuvering ship is moving in relation to the reference ship?

A

Relative speed

207
Q

how many types of scales does the maneuvering board contains

A

3

208
Q

An acceptable alternate to using several maneuvering boards is to do all contact solutions on the same board, using a scale of what for both distance and speed?

A

5:1

209
Q

What is the position of a contact when it reaches its minimum range to own ship?

A

Closest Point of Approach (CPA)

210
Q

how many plots are normally needed to get an accurate CPA and time of CPA solution?

A

4

211
Q

What is the direction and speed from which the wind appears to be blowing?

A

Relative wind

212
Q

Which instrument is used for measuring the velocity of the wind?

A

Anemometer

213
Q

Which type of map is designed for navigators?

A

Nautical chart

214
Q

What represents a section (large, medium, or small) if the Earth’s surface?

A

Chart

215
Q

There are two types of projection- Mercator and what else?

A

Gnomonic

216
Q

Which types of projection charts are the most commonly used charts in CIC?

A

Mercator

217
Q

Which type of projection preserves the natural curvature of the meridians and parallels, so you see them as though you were looking directly at a point on the surface of the Earth?

A

Gnomonic

218
Q

What are the lines running in the N-S direction, from pole to pole called?

A

Meridians

219
Q

What are the lines running E-W around the entire globe called?

A

Parallels

220
Q

What is the reference line for all meridians which passes through the Royal observatory at Greenwich, England?

A

Prime meridian (0 degrees)

221
Q

What is located halfway between the poles and divides the globe into northern (N) and southern (S) hemispheres?

A

Equator

222
Q

On the Earth’s surface, 1st of latitude is considered to be how many miles in length, whereas the length of 1 degree of longitude varies with latitude?

A

60

223
Q

which property of a chart indicates the relationship between the size of a feature on the chart and the actual size of the feature on the Earth’s surface?

A

Scale

224
Q

Harbor charts are scales larger than what scale?

A

1:50,000

225
Q

Which type of charts are used for inshore navigation, for entering bays and harbors considerable width, and for navigating large inland waterways?

A

Coast

226
Q

Which type of charts are used for coastal navigation outside outlying reefs and shoals when the vessel is generally within sight of land or aids to navigation and its course can be directed by piloting techniques?

A

General

227
Q

which type of charts are used in fixing the ship’s position as it approaches the coast from the open ocean, or for sailing between distant coastal ports?

A

Sailing

228
Q

Depths on charts are given in feet, fathoms, or what else?

A

Meters

229
Q

What is a light said to be when it is off for a longer period of time than it is on?

A

Flashing

230
Q

There are four standard colors for lights; red (R), green (G), yellow (Y), and what else?

A

White

231
Q

What shape is the chart symbol for a buoy?

A

Diamond

232
Q

In CIC, three types of coordinates can be used to locate any given position; geographical, polar, and what else?

A

Grid

233
Q

Three types of grids are in use in the Navy today; Cartesian coordinates, the world geographic reference (GEOREF) system, and the what?

A

Universal Transverse Mercator (UTM)

234
Q

Which grid system is used for position reporting in large-scale naval operations?

A

Cartesian Coordinate

235
Q

Which system is a worldwide reporting system and is used for exchanging position information with the U.S Air Force and some of our allies, using cross tell long-range communication circuits?

A

GEOREF

236
Q

What is a simple and rapid method of expressing latitude and longitude?

A

AGEOREF

237
Q

A Ship’s CIC functions best when target positions are maintained in what system?

A

Polar

238
Q

The military grid reference system divides the surface of the Earth into two grid systems; universal transverse Mercator (UTM) and what else?

A

Universal Polar stereographic (UPS)

239
Q

All ships using GPS as the primary fix source are required to log figure of merit and to obtain a visual and/or RADAR fix at how many times the intervals indicated?

A

3

240
Q

What is an internal GPS receiver calculation that indicates the best accuracy achievable from the satellites being tracked?

A

FOM (Figure of Merit)

241
Q

What is a U.S Navy system that distributes highly accurate navigation data to shipboard systems and provides an electronic display of Digital Nautical Charts for use by the ship’s navigation team?

A

Navigation Senor System Interface (NAVSSI)

242
Q

Which system is designed to automate time consuming tasks related to voyage planning and monitoring, including management of chart data?

A

VMS

243
Q

Which system interfaces with the ship’s Global Positioning System receivers and other navigation sensors to give the ship’s watchstanders a computerized real-time view of the ship’s position and movement on an electronic-chart display?

A

ECDIS-N

244
Q

What provides military and classified bathymetric data required by the Navy?

A

TOD

245
Q

What is a standard format, structure and organization for large geographic databases that are based on a georelational data model and are intended for direct use?

A

VPF

246
Q

Whaat is an unclassified vector-based digital geospatial intelligence database depicting significant features essential for safe marine navigation?

A

DNC

247
Q

NGA charts have numbers consisting of one to how many digits?

A

5

248
Q

The U.S Navy uses how many portfolio (grouping) systems to assign charts into allowances for ship’s?

A

3

249
Q

Your ship will undoubtedly have some classified charts and publications on board. These charts and publications must be handled and stored according to the requirements of what?

A

SECNAVINST 5510.36

250
Q

What is a highly accurate form of navigation involving frequent determination of a ship’s position relative to geographic references?

A

Piloting

251
Q

Every ship has specific maneuvering characteristics known as the what?

A

Ship’s Tactical data

252
Q

What is the distance gained in the direction of the original course when the ship is turning?

A

Advance

253
Q

What is the distance gained at right angles to the original course when the ship is turning, to the point of completion of the turn?

A

Transfer

254
Q

What is the distance gained to the right or left of the original course when a turn of 180 degrees has been completed, when constant rudder angle is used?

A

Tactical diameter

255
Q

There are two general types of lines of position; bearing lines and what else?

A

Range arcs

256
Q

What is a special type of bearing line that provides a line of position to the edge of a point of land that is sufficiently abrupt to provides a definite point for measurement?

A

Tangent

257
Q

In most situations, the most accurate position obtained by radar is determined by using two or more (preferably how many) ranges?

A

3

258
Q

What is the direction toward which the forces tent to push a vessel?

A

Set

259
Q

The navigational plotter wears what sound-powered phone and receives information from the navigational PPI operator, the radar navigation log recorder, and the fire control radar talker stationed nearby?

A

21JS

260
Q

What are specific rules for all vessels sailing on the high sea and in connecting waters navigable by seagoing vessels?

A

International rules

261
Q

The international rules were formalized at the convention on the international regulations for preventing collisions at sea, 1972. What are these rules commonly called?

A

72 COLREGS

262
Q

The international and inland rules contain how many rules that compose the main body of the rules and five annexes, which are the regulations?

A

38

263
Q

Which term includes every description of, including non-displacement craft and seaplanes, used or capable of being used as a means of transportation on water?

A

Vessel

264
Q

What are the lines delineating waters upon which mariners must comply with the 72 COLREGS and waters upon which mariners must comply with the inland navigation rules?

A

Demarcation lines

265
Q

An overtaking vessel is one that is approaching another vessel from any direction more than how many degrees shaft its beam?

A

22.5 degrees

266
Q

a vessel of how many meters or more in length must be provided with a whistle and a bell?

A

12

267
Q

if whistles are fitted farther apart than how many meters on a vessel, only one of the whistles may be used for giving maneuvering and warning signals?

A

100

268
Q

The minimum visible range for light in 2 miles for inland rules and how many miles for international rules?

A

5

269
Q

If the powered-driven vessel about to be overtaken agrees to the maneuver, it must sound a similar sound signal. If it is in doubt about the maneuver, it must sound the danger signal of at least how many short, rapid blasts?

A

5

270
Q

What is the use of available personnel and facilities to render aid to persons and property in distress?

A

SAR

271
Q

What provides for the control and coordination of all available assets for all types of search and rescue operations?

A

National SAR plan

272
Q

What has specific statutory authority and responsibility for developing, establishing, maintaining, and operating rescue facilities on and over the high seas and waters subject to the jurisdiction of the United states?

A

Coast Guard

273
Q

Who is the official responsible for coordinating and, as appropriate, controlling SAR operations in a SAR region, sub-region, or sector?

A

SAR Coordinator (SC)

274
Q

What is established to coordinate and control all participating search and rescue units and facilities within his area of responsibility?

A

Rescue Coordination Center (RCC)

275
Q

Who is the official designated by the SAR coordinator for coordinating and controlling a specific SAR mission?

A

SMC

276
Q

Who controls SAR operations and communications at the scene of a distress mission when the SAR mission coordinator cannot exercise control of the mission?

A

OSC

277
Q

What is a SAR facility that actually conducts the search, rescue, or similar operation during any of the SAR stages?

A

SRU

278
Q

The SRU will establish communications with the OSC approximately how many minutes before it arrive at the SAR scene?

A

15

279
Q

An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is considered overdue when neither communications nor radar contact can be established with it and how many minutes have passed after its estimated time over a specified or compulsory reporting point or at a clearance limit?

A

30

280
Q

An aircraft not on a flight plan is considered overdue if a reliable source reports it how long overdue at its destination?

A

1 hour

281
Q

The urgency signal consists of three transmissions of what word preceding the transmission of the urgent message?

A

PAN

282
Q

Which type of signals are used to indicate that a craft or person is threatened by grave and imminent danger?

A

Distress

283
Q

Two methods that an aircraft can use to show distress on radar are dropping chaff and flying in what pattern?

A

Triangular

284
Q

Chaff dropped from an aircraft at a rate of four drops at how many-minute intervals, followed by four 360 degrees left-hand turns, is recognized as a distress signal?

A

2

285
Q

Which manual contains detailed procedures for calculating distress craft position, search area characteristics, and search patterns?

A

National SAR Manual

286
Q

What is the probable position of survivors, with a draft correction called?

A

Datum

287
Q

What is the movement of a floating object due to various currents called?

A

Drift

288
Q

What is the distance between adjacent search tracks called?

A

Track spacing

289
Q

What may be anything observed that is unusual or our of place in relation to the surrounding environment?

A

Sightings

290
Q

The Navy carries our SAR responsibilities as detailed in step-by-step procedures contained in appropriated what?

A

OPORDERS

291
Q

What can be defined as the transmission and reception of electronic impulses or signals through space by means of electromagnetic waves?

A

Radio

292
Q

What is the primary means of communicating between ships and between ships and stations known as?

A

Telecommunications

293
Q

Radio equipment can be divided into three broad categories: transmitting equipment, receiving equipment, and what other equipment?

A

Terminal

294
Q

The commercial broadcast band extends from about 550 kHz to what frequency?

A

1700 kHz

295
Q

What is the process of varying some characteristic of a periodic wave with an external signal?

A

Modulation

296
Q

What is a digital mode of transmission commonly used in radio-teletype applications?

A

Frequency-Shift Keying (FSK)

297
Q

What occurs when a transmitted electromagnetic wave passes through the receiver antenna and induces a voltage in the antenna?

A

Reception

298
Q

What is the ability to distinguish a particular station’s frequency from all other station frequencies appearing at the antenna?

A

Selection

299
Q

What is the extraction of the modulation from an rf signal?

A

Detection

300
Q

What is the action of converting the electrical signals to sound waves that can be interpreted by the ear?

A

Reproduction

301
Q

What is a conductor or system of conductors that radiates or intercepts energy in the form of electromagnetic waves?

A

Antenna

302
Q

How many ways are there to monitor a communications net?

A

4

303
Q

Link-11 data communications must be capable of operation in either the high-frequency (HF) or what bands?

A

UHF

304
Q

Correctly matching the positions held by your own ship with those of other units is known as what?

A

Gridlock

305
Q

How many modes are there of DTS operation?

A

6

306
Q

What is used to establish initial communications?

A

Net Synchroniztion

307
Q

What is the normal mode of operation for Link-11?

A

Roll call

308
Q

What is a single data transmission to all members of the net by a station that may be acting as either picket or NCS?

A

Short Broadcast

309
Q

How many types of radio are used in Link-11?

A

2

310
Q

What is the central controller for the Link-11 net?

A

NCS

311
Q

What is the degree of communication among units called?

A

Connectivity

312
Q

The HF surface and air ranges are about how many miles?

A

300

313
Q

A surface range for UHF is about how many miles?

A

25

314
Q

For surface-to-air, the UHF range can be extended to how many miles?

A

150

315
Q

One measure of what is the time required for NCS to complete a polling sequence of all PUs?

A

Net Cycle Time (NCT)

316
Q

Every dummy PU will add how many seconds to the link’s NCT?

A

0.6

317
Q

What converts encrypted TDS data, Hamming codes, and control codes to a digital format for transmission through a modern, satellite, or other communication device with a synchronous digital interface?

A

Wireline

318
Q

During the previous decades, the UHF portion of the MARISAT satellites was leased by the U.S. Navy and given what name?

A

Gapfiller

319
Q

What is a communications satellite said to be in when it travels from west to east at a constant altitude at the same speed as the rotation of the earth, so that its position appears to be stationary with respect to the earth’s surface?

A

Geosynchronous orbit

320
Q

Satellites in geosynchronous orbit maintain their positions approximately how many miles above the equator?

A

23000

321
Q

What was designed to improve Link-11 connectivity while ensuring backward compatibility with existing Link-11 equipment?

A

MFL

322
Q

Ground-based radars are limited to a how many-mile surface range by the horizon?

A

40

323
Q

Which NATO designation is used by the US Navy when referring to Tactical Digital information Link (TADIL)?

A

Link-16

324
Q

What is an ordered conference whose participants have common information needs or similar functions to perform?

A

Net

325
Q

Which protocol is the Link-11 net normally operated according to?

A

Roll Call

326
Q

Which principle is used by Link-16?

A

Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

327
Q

How many frequencies are available for JTIDS transmissions?

A

51

328
Q

The Link-11 data is divided into how many-bit frames, with two frames constituting a Link-11 message?

A

24

329
Q

In Link-16, three types of messages are possible; fixed format, free text, and what else?

A

Variable format

330
Q

Which message distribution system provides the interfaces between the TDS computer and the JTIDS terminal?/

A

C2P

331
Q

What consists of searching for, detecting, identifying, and tracking objects which have tactical significance to the strike group?

A

Surveillance

332
Q

What is the raw, unevaluated EW intercepts and parameters received from systems such as the SLQ-32 or LAMPS?

A

Parametric data

333
Q

What is evaluated data and normally means that an EW coordinator or other qualified operator has evaluated the intercepts from one or more participants and hs developed a product which deemed to be of general tactical significance?

A

Product data