Naval Science 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The presence of combat-ready seaborne forces near land areas where conflict threatens to break out is known as what?

A

Deterrence

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2
Q

Ships engaged in commerce are called what kind of ships?

A

Merchant Marine ships

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3
Q

What is a legal proceeding for military members that is similar to a civilian court trial?

A

Court-martial

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4
Q

What type of discharge is non-punitive and includes honorable discharge, general discharge, other than honorable discharge

A

Administrative Separation

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5
Q

What are the three types of court martials?

A

Summary, special, and general

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6
Q

How many members does the UN security council have?

A

15

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7
Q

According to the Yalta formula for procedural matters, how many votes are required from the UN security council in order for a matter to pass?

A

9

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8
Q

What is captain’s mast?

A

Another word for NJP (Non-judical punishment)

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9
Q

DOD personnel assigned to American embassies are called what?

A

Attaches

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10
Q

International law of collison regulations is known as what?

A

COLREGS

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11
Q

What are the Navy’s 2 basic functions?

A

Sea control and projection of power

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12
Q

What is the strongest deterrent in the US Navy’s strategic nuclear force, because they are considered invulnerable?

A

SSBNs (ballistic missile submarines)

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13
Q

What are the Navy’s three roles in the national military strategy?

A

Strategic nuclear deterrence, deployment of oversea forces, and security of the LOCs

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14
Q

Unintended damage to innocent civilians or private property is known as what?

A

Collateral damage

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15
Q

What does the nuclear traid consist of?

A

ICBMs, SSBNs, and long-range strategic bombers

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16
Q

What worldwide internet-based network that links together all US operational forces and allied forces?

A

JIE (Joint Information Environment)

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17
Q

Previously limited by the range of its guns, the Navy’s inland reach was expanded by what three factors?

A

Nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles, attack aircraft, and cruise missiles

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18
Q

What four developments emphasized the importance of oceans?

A

Increase in new nations, interdependence, inland reach of power, and nuclear technology

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19
Q

What organization administers and finances the Merchant Marine?

A

MARAD (maritime administration), under the department of transportation

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20
Q

What policy enabled the sale of excess cargo ships and required all cargo shipped between U.S. ports to be carried in American-owned, operated, and crewed ships?

A

The Jones Act or Merchant Marine Act of 1920

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21
Q

A department responsible for taking action to control damage caused by fire, collision, or other mishaps is called?

A

Damage Control

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22
Q

What does OBA and SCBA stand for?

A

Oxygen breathing apparatus, self contained breathing apparatus

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23
Q

The removal of water remaining after a fire has been extinguished, by draining or pumping is refered to as what?

A

Dewatering

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24
Q

What are the terms X-RAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA used to indicate on a ship?

A

Material Readiness Conditions (least to most protection/”tightness”)

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25
Q

What material readiness condition indicates a “darken ship” condition?

A

DOG-ZEBRA

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26
Q

What alarm is used to indicate a collision?

A

Three pulses following by a pause and three pulses

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27
Q

What are the principal means of communication throughout the ship during general quarters, which require only the speaker’s voice to be powered?

A

Sound-powered telephones

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28
Q

A group of personnel who attempt emergency repairs to any damaged vital equipment or ship’s structure are known as a?

A

Repair party

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29
Q

What is the fifth step of the intelligence cycle?

A

Dissemination (planning & direction, collection, processing, analysis & production, dissemination)

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30
Q

What does CSG stand for in Naval Operations?

A

Carrier strike group

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31
Q

What are the three basic concepts underlying future naval operations, as defined in Admiral Vernon Clark’s “Sea Power 21”

A

Sea strike, sea shield, and sea basing

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32
Q

What is the main mission of modern carrier strike groups?

A

To win command of the seas (by conducting strikes, sweeps and raids).

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33
Q

What is responsible for protecting a carrier battle group from surprise air attacks?

A

Combat Air Patrol (CAP)

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34
Q

A carrier strike group (CSG) has 1 carrier, and up to how many fighting (support) ships?

A

Up to 12

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35
Q

What are the 3 classifications of air warfare?

A

Air-to-Air, Air-to-Surface, Surface-to-Air

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36
Q

What are the four main categories of constructed navigational aids?

A

Lights, Buoys, Day Beacons, Ranges

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37
Q

Historically, what has always been the mission of the submarine?

A

To seek out and destroy enemy surface ships, both naval and merchant.

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38
Q

Who proposed the convoy system?

A

Admiral William Sims

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39
Q

What does MAGTF stand for?

A

Marine Air-Ground Task Force

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40
Q

Who was the first great Western strategist?

A

Alexander the Great

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41
Q

What were the four developments that emphasized the importance of the oceans?

A

2 political: Rapid increase in new nations (since WW2), steady increase in interdependence of nations; 2 technological: inland reach of power, nuclear technology.

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42
Q

What are the four main ocean areas that are of prime strategic importance to the US?

A

Atlantic (includes Mediterranean), Pacific, Arctic Ocean, and Afro-Asian Ocean.

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43
Q

Define deterrent in the Navy context.

A

Presence of mobile sea forces near land areas where conflict threatens to break out; a discouragement of potential action.

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44
Q

Who is credited for the doctrine of sea power?

A

Alfred Thayer Mahan.

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45
Q

What percentage of tin does the US import in order to produce steel?

A

More than 99%.

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46
Q

Define aquaculture.

A

Science of farming the sea.

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47
Q

What countries are harnessing the tides for energy?

A

Holland, France, Canada, and US (smaller extent).

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48
Q

Commercial fisheries concentrate how many varieties of fish out of how many known species?

A

20 out of 20,000.

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49
Q

What is unique about naval operations in the Arctic Ocean?

A

Made possible by the advent of nuclear submarines; with global warming, some surface shipping along the Northwest Passage is possible.

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50
Q

Define inland reach.

A

The capability of modern warships to extend their range via cruise missiles or nuclear tipped ballistic missiles launched from nuclear submarines, aircraft, or surface ships.

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51
Q

What three benefits do US fleets gain because of their ability to move freely on the high seas?

A

1) Establish a line of defense far from US shore 2) Prevent attack by enemy forces 3) Easily replenish fuel, stores, and ammunition.

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52
Q

What percent of world trade goods are transported by water?

A

Approximately 80%.

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53
Q

What percentage of US petroleum is imported?

A

25%.

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54
Q

What percentage of ores used to make steel such as aluminum and chromium are imported?

A

Nearly 100%.

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55
Q

What percentage of domestically consumed products are produced using materials transported via ship?

A

90%.

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56
Q

In billion tons, how much dry and liquid waterborne cargo is shipped domestically and internationally each year?

A

2.6.

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57
Q

Define merchant marine ships.

A

Ships engaged in commerce that carry goods and liquids over oceans and waterways.

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58
Q

Why did the merchant marine suffer a decline during the Civil War?

A

Southern commerce raiders preyed on Northern merchant shipping.

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59
Q

When did the peak of the Merchant Marine occur? And due to what ship?

A

American Revolution; clipper ship.

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60
Q

What four reasons did the merchant marine fleet decline after the Civil War?

A

European competition, noncompetitive wage scales, soaring insurance costs, and increasing domestic ship building costs.

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61
Q

What piece of legislation created the US Maritime Commission?

A

Merchant Marine Act of 1936.

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62
Q

What was the purpose of the Merchant Marine Act of 1936?

A

Paid for the design and construction of 500 ships in order to expand the merchant marine and lead to a competitive edge.

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63
Q

What two merchant marine ships were mass produced to meet merchant and auxiliary needs of the Navy in WW2?

A

Liberty and Victory class.

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64
Q

How many Liberty and Victory ships were made during WW2?

A

6,000.

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65
Q

What is the difference between Liberty and Victory class ships?

A

Victory ships are fast and have a longer range with the same capacity as Liberty.

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66
Q

Define mothballed.

A

Laid up at anchor; typically in the National Defense Reserve Fleet.

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67
Q

Present day federal merchant marine policy traces back to what?

A

Shipping Act of 1916.

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68
Q

What organization did the Shipping Act of 1916 establish?

A

US Shipping Board.

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69
Q

What is the EFC?

A

Known as the Emergency Fleet Corporation, or War Shipping Board, the EFC mobilizes American shipbuilding to meet wartime needs.

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70
Q

What are the main parts of the Jones Act/Merchant Marine Act of 1920?

A

1) Enabled the sale of EFC (Emergency Fleet Corporation)-built merchant ships; 2) Requires all cargo and passengers conveyed for hire between US ports to be carried in American-owned, -operated, and -crewed ships.

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71
Q

What was the EFC renamed to in 1927?

A

Merchant Fleet Corporation.

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72
Q

Since 1930, what has composed US Shipping Board Bureau?

A

Merchant Fleet Corporation, Shipping Board, and US Maritime Commission.

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73
Q

What was the Long Range Shipbuilding Program?

A

Authorization of 500 new merchant ships built in a 10 year period by the Merchant Marine Act of 1936.

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74
Q

What two acts are the basis for many programs that support our national merchant marine today?

A

Jones Act (Merchant Marine Act of 1920) and Merchant Marine Act of 1936.

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75
Q

What two organizations managed the greatest industrial shipbuilding and ship operation effort ever seen?

A

Maritime Commission and WSA.

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76
Q

What is the WSA?

A

War Shipping Administration: Organization that acquired ships built by Maritime Commission’s Emergency Shipbuilding Program.

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77
Q

When was the Maritime Commission abolished?

A

1950.

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78
Q

What replaced the Maritime Commission?

A

MARAD: Maritime Administration.

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79
Q

What cabinet level department is MARAD under?

A

Dept. of Transportation since 1981.

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80
Q

What organization operates the US Merchant Marine Academy at Kings Point, NY?

A

MARAD: Maritime Administration.

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81
Q

What two organizational fleets does MARAD own and operate?

A

Ready Reserve Force and National Defense Reserve Fleet (NDRF).

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82
Q

What is the most important stipulation of the Jones Act?

A

All commercial waterborne cargo and paying passengers transported between 2 points in the US must be carried by vessels built in the US and crewed by US citizens, and at least 75% owned by US citizens.

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83
Q

What percentage of US ships with commercial cargo must be American owned according to the Jones Act?

A

75%.

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84
Q

What percentage of US Government cargo must be carried by American-flag shipping?

A

50%.

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85
Q

What percentage of US military cargo must be carried by American-flag shipping?

A

100%.

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86
Q

What does American-flag shipping indicate?

A

The ship is registered in the US and abides by the Jones Act.

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87
Q

How many ships meet the Jones Act criteria? How many are over 1,000 tons and therefore readily used for cargo?

A

170; 90.

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88
Q

Fun fact: If planes fly, what do commercial ships do?

A

Ply.

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89
Q

What is the adverse effect of the Jones Act?

A

Increased cost (US-flag is 3x more expensive than foreign flag transport); therefore there have been many calls to repeal the Jones Act.

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90
Q

What is a rebate in relation to US Maritime Commerce?

A

An illegal kickback or bribe given by foreign manufacturers to foreign shipping companies to transport their products.

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91
Q

Define flags of convenience.

A

A ship operating under flags of convenience are neither US flag nor foreign flag. They are registered in foreign countries and crewed by foreigners but operated and owned by the US.

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92
Q

How many tons of cargo pass through US ports each year?

A

2.5 billion.

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93
Q

How many passengers pass through US ports each year?

A

150 million.

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94
Q

What are the 4 leading US Maritime Ports in order of volume?

A

New Orleans and Baton Rouge ports; Houston; New York and New Jersey at Newark; Beaumont TX.

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95
Q

What three countries account for 70% of the shipbuilding market?

A

Japan, South Korea, China.

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96
Q

What percentage of shipbuilding yards in the US specialize in military shipbuilding?

A

60%.

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97
Q

What are the four largest shipyards in the United States?

A

Newport News Shipbuilding in Newport News, VA; Ingalls Shipbuilding in Pascagoula, MS; National Steel and Shipbuilding Company in San Diego, CA; and West Coast commercial shipyard in Norfolk VA.

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98
Q

What is the builder of most Navy submarines?

A

Electric Boat Division of General Dynamics in Groton, CT.

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99
Q

What are the four modern merchant ships?

A

Freighters, tankers, cruise ships, special purpose vessels and tugs.

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100
Q

Cargo ships make up what percentage of the world’s merchant ships?

A

60%.

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101
Q

What are longshoremen?

A

Dockworkers handling cargo ashore.

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102
Q

Containerships are what type of specially designed ship, meant to interface seamlessly with other transport?

A

Intermodal ships.

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103
Q

What is the standard intermodal container that containerships are expressed in?

A

Twenty foot equivalent unit, or TEU.

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104
Q

What is the most commonly used shipping container (RECENT)?

A

FEU (forty foot equivalent unit).

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105
Q

What are the four types of Roll-on roll-off ships?

A

RoRo, RoPax, ConRo, and RoLo.

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106
Q

What is a reefer ship?

A

Refrigerated cargo ship.

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107
Q

How many passengers can cargo ship accommodate?

A

12

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108
Q

Define grand strategy

A

the art and science of employing national power to achieve national objectives

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109
Q

What four things govern US Grand Strategy?

A

Constitution, US Law, government policy regarding international law, and national security policy/national interest

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110
Q

What four basic principles is grand strategy based on?

A

defense of American territory & allies, protecting American citizens, supporting and defending constitutional values and govrenmnet, and promoting and securing US economy and standard of living

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111
Q

What is American exceptionalism?

A

Enduring impluse to promote democratic values and rule of law

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112
Q

Who wrote The Art of War?

A

Sun Tzu

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113
Q

Who was the first Western grand strategist?

A

Alexander the Great of Macedonia

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114
Q

What was and who wrote the most influential writing on grand strategy ever published?

A

Karl von Clausewitz Vom Kreige (On War)

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115
Q

What are the three schools of strategic thought?

A

Maritime, continental, and aerospace

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116
Q

What book did Alfred Thayer Mahan write that revolutionized strategic naval thought?

A

The Influence of Sea Power upon History (1890)

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117
Q

Who had the concept of “interior lines” of communication?

A

Frederick the Great

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118
Q

Define insular safety

A

safety resulting from our seperation from likely aggressors

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119
Q

Who emphasized the strategic importance of geographic landmasses?

A

Sir Halford J Mackinder

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120
Q

What was Mackinder’s Heartland-Rimland theory?

A

control of the Heartland consiting of Asiatic Russia and Eastern Europe would be key to controlling the rest of the world, or Rimland/Marginal Crescent/Inner

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121
Q

Who was the best-known advocate for air power?

A

Alexander de Seversky

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122
Q

What are the three main principles of the Nixon Doctrine?

A

1) The US would keep all of its treaty commitments 2) The US would provide a shield if nuclear power threatened the freedom of an allied nation 3) In other types of aggression, the US would furnish military and economic assistance

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123
Q

What did the Carter doctrine declare?

A

The US would resist with all military force an attempt by a foriegn power to gain control of any country in the Persian gulf region

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124
Q

What 5 principles of US strategy are in effect today, with little change since Vietnam?

A

1) Strategic nuclear sufficiency 2) Conventional capability 3) active military forces 4) research and development program 5) all volunteer active duty forces

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125
Q

What was the Reagan Corollary to the Carter Doctrine?

A

US would intervene to protect Saudi Arabia, who was threatened by the Iran-Iraq War

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126
Q

What policy laid the groundwork for Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm?

A

Reagan Corrollary to the Carter Doctrine

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127
Q

What was the Bush doctrine?

A

Threat to the US posed by rouge states and terrorists (who could be equipped with modern weapons of mass destruction) justified unilateral preemptive attacks

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128
Q

When did the United States begin large-scale military interventions in Afghanistan?

A

2001

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129
Q

When did the United States begin large-scale military interventions in Iraq?

A

2003

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130
Q

What did the Budget Control Act of 2011 accomplish?

A

2.4 trillion reduction in federal spending, 500 billion reduction in military defense spending, known as sequestration

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131
Q

What legislation accomplished sequestration?

A

Budget Control Act of 2011, in response to involvement in the Middle East

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132
Q

In 2007, what document was issued jointly by all three maritime services, the first of its kind?

A

A Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower

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133
Q

A Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower added which two critical elements to Naval strategy?

A

Maritime security, and humanitarian assistance/disaster response (HA/DR)

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134
Q

What did Alexander the Great postulate about war?

A

War is always conducted on two levels: physical and psychological

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135
Q

What was Machiavelli’s contrbution to strategic thinking?

A

Broadened strategic thinking by writing on sources, applications, and limitations of power

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136
Q

In what ways did the USSR and China led to the Cold War shortly following WW2?

A

Adopt communist ideologies

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137
Q

What was the strategy formulated by Truman to counter expansionist ideologies?

A

Containment strategy

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138
Q

When did containment end?

A

1991

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139
Q

Who warned against massive retailation?

A

SecState John Foster Dulles (Eisenhower administration)

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140
Q

What doctrine did both the US and USSR adopt during the Cold War?

A

Mutually assured destruction

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141
Q

How did massive retaliation change after the Cuban Missile Crisis?

A

It become flexible response instead (as to handle all levels of aggression)

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142
Q

What is World War IV?

A

global war against extremist violence and terrorism

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143
Q

Hugo Gortius published a landmark treatise titled Introduction to the Jurisprudence of Holland which combined the precepts of what two law systems?

A

Roman law (Civil law) and Dutch law (Canon/Catholic Church law)

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144
Q

What are the three broad categories of civil law systems?

A

Substantive law (which acts are liable for prosecution), Procedural law (where an act constitutes a criminal act), and Penal law (appropriate penalty)

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145
Q

What form of law has been practiced in Europe since 1804?

A

European Civil Code or Napoleon’s Civil Code

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146
Q

What form of law is practiced in Arabic countries?

A

Sharia law (Islamic law based on the Koran)

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147
Q

What is all law in the United States always considered?

A

Constitutional law (based on the U.S. Constitution)

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148
Q

What is the name for the power that gives Congress the ability to maintain a Navy and to establish rules and regulations for its operation?

A

Military law

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149
Q

Established in 1775, what established the laws that govern the U.S. Navy?

A

Rules for the Regulation of the Navy of the United Colonies

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150
Q

What is the name of the set of laws that cover the trail and punishment of offenders in ALL the U.S. armed forces?

A

Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)

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151
Q

The 146 articles that make up the UCMJ are divided into 12 groupings. What do the first nine deal with?

A

General provisions, rules for apprehension and restraint, and conduct of nonjudicial punishment (NJP) and courts-martial

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152
Q

The 146 articles that make up the UCMJ are divided into 12 groupings. What does group 10 deal with?

A

Specific infractions of military law; known as punitive articles

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153
Q

Under what article number of the UCMJ is cruel and unusual punishment prohibited?

A

55

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154
Q

According to the Bluejacket’s Manual, what are the three reasons punishments are imposed?

A

Defer offenders from breaking rules again, encourage them to do their duty, or to set an example

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155
Q

[Fill in the blank] In 1776, George Washington counseled his officers telling them “Reward and punish every man according to his merit, without _ or _.”

A

partiality, prejudice

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156
Q

Define apprehension

A

taking of a person into custody

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157
Q

Define arrest

A

restraint of a person by an order directing that person to remain withing certain limits

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158
Q

Define restricted

A

restraint of a person by an order directing that person to remain withing certain limits while requiring performance of usual military duties

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159
Q

Define confinement

A

physical restrain depriving a person from freedom

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160
Q

Define mitigation

A

circumstances that might tend to provide some plausible reason for the offense

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161
Q

Define extenuation

A

circumstances that lessen the punishment imposed

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162
Q

What are the two basic classes of official naval disciplinary action?

A

NJP/Captain’s Mast and courts-martial

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163
Q

Conducted by the XO, what is the purpose of a screening mast?

A

Determine the seriousness of the case and to ascertain the facts so that action may be recommended to the CO

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164
Q

What are the three types of courts-martial?

A

Summary, Special, General

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165
Q

What type of court-martial can a dishonorable discharge be awarded?

A

General Court-Martial

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166
Q

Define diplomacy

A

the management of international relations by negotiation, and the method by which these relations are adjusted and managed by ambassadors and envoys

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167
Q

What was written in 1513 by the person accredited to the term Machiavellian, used to describe unethical political activites?

A

The Prince

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168
Q

During the sixteenth century Italian stated developed which two specialized government service related to embassies?

A

Diplomatic service (political matters) and Consular service (trade and commerce)

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169
Q

Whose contribution to international law through writings such as the treatise in 1625 On the Law of War and Peace earned him the title of the “Father of International Law”?

A

Hugo Grotius

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170
Q

How is international law defined?

A

No universal text; uses numerous sources, including unwritten. Includes treaties, customs, humanity, writers, and national court decisions

171
Q

Define treaty

A

Formal written accord between independent nations specifying various rights and duties, depends on enforcement by parties involved

172
Q

Define conventions

A

Multilateral treaties (3+ parties) with a broad number of parties, normally negotiated under an international organization (like UN)

173
Q

Define agreement

A

Generic term to any international accord or instrument recognized by international law or anything less formal than a treaty

174
Q

Define country in terms of international law

A

territorial limits or geographic boundaries on a map

175
Q

Define nation in terms of international law

A

people and their common blood ties

176
Q

Define state in terms of international law

A

governmental authority of the political entity

177
Q

Define soverign states

A

legal entities that are considered capable of speaking for themselves

178
Q

According to the 1933 Montevideo Convention, what are the four characteristics that make a sovereign state?

A

Permanent population, a defined territory free from control by other states, established government, the ability to enter into associations with other states

179
Q

Since the Congress of Vienna in 1815, what has Switzerland been recognitied as that differs from sovereign state?

A

Neutralized state

180
Q

What are universally regarded as fundamental rights for soverign states to determine and self-enact?

A

Right to: continued existence, freedom from interference or intervention, and self-defense

181
Q

Define belligerents in terms of international law

A

states at war with each other

182
Q

Define diplomatic recognition

A

The act that one sovereign state does to recognize the soverign status of another

183
Q

What are the two forms of diplomatic recognition

A

De jure (by law) and de facto (in fact)

184
Q

What is the problem the US faces in its longtime recognition of the Nationalist Republic of China?

A

Withdrawl of recognition of one state or government in a geographic area my be accompanied by recognition of another

185
Q

Name the most signicant example of a US breach or break in diplomatic relations

A

Since 1961 when Fidel Castro annouced communist affiliations and alliance with Soviet Union, Cuba and the US had a breach. This was restored in 2015 by President Barack Obama

186
Q

Define right of legation

A

The right of a state to have representatives in other states for carrying on diplomatic negotiations

187
Q

According to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961, what are the three classes of heads on diplomatic missions?

A

Ambassador (heads of state), envoys and ministers (heads of state), and chargés d’affaires (ministers for foreign affiar)

188
Q

Define diplomatic immunity

A

freedom from arrest or prosecution for alleged volations of host country laws

189
Q

What does the acronym ALUSNA stand for

A

American Legation, U.S. Naval Attachés

190
Q

What was founded on 24 October 1945 after WWII?

A

United Nations Organization

191
Q

What are the three basic purposes of the UN?

A

maintain international peace and security, take effective collective action to prevent/minitgate threats to world peace, and cooperate in solving international problems

192
Q

Who are the five permanent members of the UN?

A

China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States

193
Q

What was founded in 1948 that comprised almost all 35 independent states (Cuba left 1962) in the Western Hemishpere?

A

Organization of American States (OAS)

194
Q

What are the three main precepts of international law OF THE SEA?

A

Freedom of the high seas, territorial seas, and special contiguous zones

195
Q

How far does territorial seas extend from baseline demarcation lines?

A

12 Nautical miles (22km)

196
Q

How far does contiguous zones extend from basline demarcation lines?

A

24 Nautical miles (44km)

197
Q

How far does exclusive economic zones extend from baseline demarcation lines?

A

200 Nautical miles (370km)

198
Q

What is sealift?

A

Transportation of most supplies and equipment needed to support wartime needs?

199
Q

Explain Operations Desert Shield

A

Defend Saudi Arabia and build up forces to eject Iraq from Kuwait

200
Q

Explain Operations Desert Storm

A

Followed Desert Shield in the same year, 1991: Expel Iraqi forces from Kuwait using aerial bombardment and ground assault

201
Q

Explain Operation Anaconda

A

First operation to eliminate Taliban and al-Qaeda from Afghanistan

202
Q

Explain Enduring Freedom

A

Dismantle al-Qaeda and remove Taliban from power in Afghanistan. This is GWOT

203
Q

Explain Iraqi Freedom

A

Remove Saddam Hussein from power in Iraq and establish democracy; simaltaneous to Enduring Freedom

204
Q

Briefly explain Operation Red Dawn

A

Capture of Saddam Hussein

205
Q

Briefly explain Operation Neptune Spear

A

Capture and killing of Osama bin Laden

206
Q

What is Military Sealift Command?

A

MSC is an organization within the Navy that controls most of its underway replenishment and military transport shipping

207
Q

What are the two hospital ships in the merchant marine?

A

USNS Comfort; USNS Mercy

208
Q

How can MSC naval ships be identified?

A

Horizontal blue and gold band on their stacks

209
Q

What is different about an MSC ships designation?

A

They are called USNS (US Naval Ships) and their type designators and hull numbers are preceded by T

210
Q

Who maintains the Ready Reserve Force?

A

Maritime Administration

211
Q

How can RRF ships be identified?

A

Red, white, and blue bands on their stacks

212
Q

In summary, the Ready Reserve Fleet (RRF) is a subset of the NDRF (National Defense Reserve Fleet) established by MARAD in 1977 (after WW2).

A

More information in chapter 2 of unit 1

213
Q

Ships flying under flag of convenience are known as what?

A

Effective US controlled ships (EUSC)

214
Q

What are all of the sources of US sealift assests? (6)

A

MSC ships (Military Sealift Command), RRF ships (Ready Reserve Fleet), MSP ships (Maritime Security Program), VISA ships (Voluntary Intermodal Sealift Agreement), EUSC ships (Effective US Controlled), and Foriegn-flag ships (in which there is an agreement).

215
Q

Define strategic materials

A

vital raw materials and energy resources that support our national economy and defense establishment

216
Q

What was a Q ship?

A

A merchant raider: a ship that looked like a cargo vessel but carried hidden weapons

217
Q

What is V/STOL

A

Vertical or short takeoff and landing

218
Q

What is UAV?

A

Unmanned aerial vehicle

219
Q

Define grand strategy

A

the art and science of employing national power to achieve national objectives

220
Q

What four things govern US Grand Strategy?

A

Constitution, US Law, government policy regarding international law, and national security policy/national interest

221
Q

What four basic principles is grand strategy based on?

A

defense of American territory & allies, protecting American citizens, supporting and defending constitutional values and govrenmnet, and promoting and securing US economy and standard of living

222
Q

What is American exceptionalism?

A

Enduring impulse to promote democratic values and rule of law

223
Q

Who wrote The Art of War?

224
Q

Who was the first Western grand strategist?

A

Alexander the Great of Macedonia

225
Q

What was and who wrote the most influential writing on grand strategy ever published?

A

Karl von Clausewitz Vom Kriege (On War)

226
Q

What are the three schools of strategic thought?

A

Maritime, continental, and aerospace

227
Q

What book did Alfred Thayer Mahan write that revolutionized strategic naval thought?

A

The Influence of Sea Power upon History (1890)

228
Q

Who had the concept of “interior lines” of communication?

A

Frederick the Great

229
Q

Define insular safety

A

safety resulting from our separation from likely aggressors

230
Q

Who emphasized the strategic importance of geographic landmasses?

A

Sir Halford J Mackinder

231
Q

What was Mackinder’s Heartland-Rimland theory?

A

control of the Heartland consisting of Asiatic Russia and Eastern Europe would be key to controlling the rest of the world, or Rimland/Marginal Crescent/Inner

232
Q

Who was the best-known advocate for air power?

A

Alexander de Seversky

233
Q

What are the three main principles of the Nixon Doctrine?

A

1) The US would keep all of its treaty commitments 2) The US would provide a shield if nuclear power threatened the freedom of an allied nation 3) In other types of aggression, the US would furnish military and economic assistance

234
Q

What did the Carter doctrine declare?

A

The US would resist with all military force an attempt by a foreign power to gain control of any country in the Persian gulf region

235
Q

What 5 principles of US strategy are in effect today, with little change since Vietnam?

A

1) Strategic nuclear sufficiency 2) Conventional capability 3) active military forces 4) research and development program 5) all volunteer active duty forces

236
Q

What was the Reagan Corollary to the Carter Doctrine?

A

US would intervene to protect Saudi Arabia, who was threatened by the Iran-Iraq War

237
Q

What policy laid the groundwork for Operation Desert Shield and Desert Storm?

A

Reagan Corollary to the Carter Doctrine

238
Q

What was the Bush doctrine?

A

Threat to the US posed by rogue states and terrorists (who could be equipped with modern weapons of mass destruction) justified unilateral preemptive attacks

239
Q

When did the United States begin large-scale military interventions in Afghanistan?

240
Q

When did the United States begin large-scale military interventions in Iraq?

241
Q

What did the Budget Control Act of 2011 accomplish?

A

2.4 trillion reduction in federal spending, 500 billion reduction in military defense spending, known as sequestration

242
Q

What legislation accomplished sequestration?

A

Budget Control Act of 2011, in response to involvement in the Middle East

243
Q

In 2007, what document was issued jointly by all three maritime services, the first of its kind?

A

A Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower

244
Q

A Cooperative Strategy for 21st Century Seapower added which two critical elements to Naval strategy?

A

Maritime security, and humanitarian assistance/disaster response (HA/DR)

245
Q

What did Alexander the Great postulate about war?

A

War is always conducted on two levels: physical and psychological

246
Q

What was Machiavelli’s contribution to strategic thinking?

A

Broadened strategic thinking by writing on sources, applications, and limitations of power

247
Q

In what ways did the USSR and China led to the Cold War shortly following WW2?

A

Adopt communist ideologies

248
Q

What was the strategy formulated by Truman to counter expansionist ideologies?

A

Containment strategy

249
Q

When did containment end?

250
Q

Who warned against massive retaliation?

A

Sec State John Foster Dulles (Eisenhower administration)

251
Q

What doctrine did both the US and USSR adopt during the Cold War?

A

Mutually assured destruction

252
Q

How did massive retaliation change after the Cuban Missile Crisis?

A

It become flexible response instead (as to handle all levels of aggression)

253
Q

What is World War IV?

A

global war against extremist violence and terrorism

254
Q

What are the Navy’s two basic functions?

A

Sea control and power projection

255
Q

Define neutralization

A

Rendement of hostile spacecraft, aircraft, surface ships, and submarines ineffective

256
Q

Define sea control

A

Mastery of the entire battlespace and preventing approach of enemy forces

257
Q

How can projection of power be accomplished? (3)

A

Carrier air strikes, amphibious assaults, and cruise missile attacks

258
Q

What are strategic weapons? (example)

A

Intercontinental-range weapons of mass destruction

259
Q

Define tactics

A

Art and science of fighting battles

260
Q

How is strategy different from tactics?

A

Strategy is the use of national capabilities to achieve national objectives and interests.

261
Q

Give two examples of ICBMs?

A

Nuclear bombs or ballistic missiles with nuclear warheads

262
Q

Define battlespace (four components)

A

surface, sub-surface, air, and near-Earth space above designated sea and littoral areas

263
Q

What are the three areas of naval warfare?

A

Surface, subsurface, aerospace

264
Q

What are the functional roles of the Navy? (role in national military strategy)

A

Strategic nuclear deterrence, demployment of overseas forces, and security of the lanes of communications/sea lanes

265
Q

What three fleets play a vital role in National military strategy?

A

6th fleet (Mediterranean and Atlantic), 5th fleet (Afro-Indian Ocean), 7th (West Pacific/Japan-side)

266
Q

What is a tactical nuclear weapon?

A

Low yield nuclear weapon delivered by artillery and short/intermediate range missiles

267
Q

What is a smart weapon?

A

Highly accurate class of weapons used in almost all conflicts

268
Q

When were smart weapons used first to great tactical advantage?

A

Persian Gulf War in 1991

269
Q

What is collateral damage?

A

Unintended damage to innocent civilians or private property

270
Q

What forms the nuclear triad?

A

ICBM (intercontinental ballistic missiles), SSBNs (ballistic missile submarines), long-range strategic bombers

271
Q

What is the difference between joint operations and combined operations?

A

Joint operations refer to collaborations with other branches, whereas combined operations are with allied forces

272
Q

Define capabilities, intentions, and vulnerabilities in the simplest terms

A

What can a potential adversary do?; what will the adversary do?; what are the adversary’s weaknesses?

273
Q

What are the principles of war? (9)

A

Define the objective, mass forces, maneuver, take the offensive, economize force, achieve unity of command, maintain simplicity, achieve surprise, maintain security

274
Q

What are the three main forms that large scale armed conflict might take?

A

General war, limited war, and irregular warfare

275
Q

What two preconditions should exist before a general war is declared?

A

Threat of national destruction or assurance of victory

276
Q

What is limited war?

A

Armed encounters, in which major powers or their proxies voluntarily restrict their actions in order to prevent escalation to general war.

277
Q

What is a proxy war?

A

Form of limited war in which a major power’s satellite state engages other major powers or its allies

278
Q

What is irregular warfare?

A

Unconventional warfare or asymmetric warfare that involves opposing forces greatly unequal in conventional military resources; results in the smaller force using unconventional methods of warfare to overcome this using extreme violence or terrorism

279
Q

What is another name for irregular warfare?

A

Special warfare

280
Q

What class of ships are designed for special operations against terrorists?

A

San Antonio LPD

281
Q

What are the three basic considerations in evaluating an external threat? Which is the hardest to asses?

A

Capabilities, intentions, and vulnerability; intentions are the hardest to assess

282
Q

Why are naval and air operations less risky than ground invasion?

A

Ground warfare implies more than a temporary presence (direct quote pg 45)

283
Q

Who said “Any and all means are justified to attain desired ends, without regard for stupid scruples about benevolence, righteousness, and morality?

A

Mao Tse-tung

284
Q

What new forms of irregular warfare became widespread in the new millennium?

A

Violent extremism and terrorism

285
Q

What ship was built in part with scrap steel from the ruins of the World Trade Center buildings?

A

USS New York

286
Q

What must an established government do to combat an irregular warfare threat?

A

Special warfare tactics and moral warfare

287
Q

What position is held by the highest-ranking officer in the US military?

A

Chairman of the JCS

288
Q

Define naval operations

A

The employment and movements of various types of naval ships and forces in carrying out the Navy’s mission

289
Q

Who wrote Seapower 21? (The Blueprint for the 21st Century Navy, written in 2002)

A

CNO Adm. Vernon Clark

290
Q

In Seapower 21, what are the three basic concepts underlying all future naval operations?

A

Sea strike, sea shield, and sea basing

291
Q

Define sea strike

A

Ability to project offensive power from the sea worldwide

292
Q

Define sea shield

A

naval operations related to homeland defense and defense of allied sea and land forces

293
Q

Define sea basing

A

maintenance of deployed fast response forces sufficient to carry out the Navy’s mission worldwide

294
Q

What is a unified combatant command?

A

Broad commands with one commander; composed of at least 2 combatant forces with operations carried out in particular geographical region or broad functional responsibilities (ex: Pacific Command, Cyber Command, etc)

295
Q

How many unified commands are there?

296
Q

What is a specified command? (Differs from a unified command)

A

They are only composed of forces from one service or have only functional responsibilities.

297
Q

There has not been a ____________ command since the dissolution of Strategic Air Command in ____.

A

Specified, 1992

298
Q

Who composes the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A

Chairman, Vice Chairman, Chief of Staff of the Army, Chief of Naval Operations, Chief of Staff of the Air Force, Commandant of the Marine Corps, and Chief of the National Guard Bureau

299
Q

What is a theater?

A

a particular geographic area of responsibility

300
Q

What is a joint task force? Combined joint task force (CJTF)?

A

task forces composed of forces from 2 or more services; multinational task force

301
Q

What four intelligence agencies have dual roles as combat support agencies (CSAs)?

A

Defense Intelligence Agency, National Security Agency, National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency, National Reconnaissance Office

302
Q

What is strike warfare?

A

Naval air, surface, or submarine forces using conventional non nuclear weapons against land or sea targets

303
Q

What four naval forces are used in strike warfare?

A

carriers, cruisers, submarines, destroyers

304
Q

What two U.S. Navy ships were out at sea and not present during the attack on Pearl Harbor?

A

USS Lexington, USS Enterprise

305
Q

What are carrier strike groups?

A

A naval strike force built primarily around the carrier

306
Q

What are A2/AD operations? (Defined in regards to carrier strike groups and surface action groups)

A

Anti-access/area denial

307
Q

What is HA/DR?

A

Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief

308
Q

The Marine amphibious forces operate in AOAs, which stands for?

A

Amphibious objective areas

309
Q

What is the difference between a sweep and a raid?

A

A sweep is a series of strikes in a general area; a raid is a sudden destructive attack against a limited target

310
Q

What protects the Carrier Strike Group (CSG) from air attack?

A

Combat air patrol (CAP)

311
Q

What are the Marine Corps two amphibious assault ships? (Name the designators)

A

LHAs or LHDs

312
Q

What are the aircraft that deploy on board an aircraft carrier called?

A

Carrier air wings

313
Q

What types of aircraft deploy on board amphibious assault ships?

A

Marine air groups

314
Q

What is the difference between a carrier air wing and a marine air group?

A

Both are aircraft squadrons, but carrier air wings are comprised of naval aircraft squadrons to deploy from carriers, and Marine air groups are composed of Marine air squadrons deployed from amphibious ships

315
Q

How many aircraft carriers are currently active?

316
Q

How many carrier air wings are active?

317
Q

What are the two Marine fighter aircraft?

A

Harriers and F-35Bs

318
Q

What does the yellow-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Yellow: aircraft handlers, catapult and arresting gear officers

319
Q

What does the green-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Green: maintenance personnel, troubleshooters, helicopter landing signalmen

320
Q

What does the blue-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Blue: Assistant plane handlers, elevator operators, tracker drivers

321
Q

What does the purple-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Purple: aviation fuel personnel

322
Q

What does the red-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Red: Ordnance, EOD, crash and salvage

323
Q

What does the brown-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

Brown: Plane captains, LPOs

324
Q

What does the white-colored jersey worn by flight deck personnel on ships signify?

A

White: safety observers, air wing landing signal officers (LSO)

325
Q

What are the three main classifications of air warfare?

A

Air to surface, air to air, and surface to air

326
Q

What are the three phases of fleet air warfare tactics?

A

1) Identifying possible enemy attack threat 2) Initial air warfare 3) Full aggregate air defense power

327
Q

What is Aegis, the best defensive and offensive weapons system ever developed?

A

Integrated naval weapons control system; tracks and destroys enemy targets SPECIFICALLY low altitude anti ship missiles

328
Q

What is a SAG?

A

Surface action group; part of a carrier strike group that pursue and attack when traditional surface action/engagement occurs

329
Q

How many Ohio-class guided-missile submarines are there?

A

Answer: 4
FUN FACT: These four submarines make up more than half of the total cruise missile launch capability of the US submarine force! These are highly coveted submarines.

330
Q

What does the designation SSGN mean?

A

Guided missile submarines (as opposed to SSBN: Ballistic missile submarines)

331
Q

What is the primary electronic detection device used in USW operations?

332
Q

What types of sensors are used to locate submarines?

A

Radio sonobuoys, magnetic anomaly detection (MAD), dipping sonar, infrared detection, towed arrays

333
Q

What 3 major developments established undersea warfare during WW1?

A

The Convoy system, hydrophone, and depth charge

334
Q

What does the hydrophone do?

A

Uses triangulation to pinpoint a submarine’s location based on the sounds of its engines and propellers

335
Q

Who proposed the convoy system, in which ships are grouped together for mutual protection?

A

Admiral William Sims

336
Q

What are the four strategic benefits provided by the Navy’s amphibious warfare capabilities?

A

1) Freedom of action [forces can loiter indefinitely in international waters] 2) Deterrence 3) Assured access 4) Uncertainty for adversaries

337
Q

Fleet air warfare (AW) tactics are designed to provide _______ __ _____ to the carrier or other high value ships in a strike group.

A

defense in depth

338
Q

What is a tomahawk?

A

Long-range surface to surface cruise missile

339
Q

What is the primary objective of submarines?

A

Sink enemy submarines

340
Q

What is a depth charge?

A

A large canister of explosives fired from a destroyer that destroys a submarine by detonating at a preset depth

341
Q

What does SONAR stand for?

A

SOund Navigation And Ranging system

342
Q

What is the basic amphibious warfare unit in the US Navy?

A

MAGTF (Pronounced “mag-taff”): Marine Air Ground Task Force

343
Q

What is an LCAC (Pronounced “L-cack”)?

A

Landing craft, air cushioned: high speed landing craft used for transport

344
Q

What four ships make up an ATF (amphibious task force)?

A

LHA, LHD, LPD, LSD

345
Q

Define the following designators for amphibious forces: LHA, LHD, LPD, and LSD

A

LHA: Amphibious assault ship, LHD: Amphibious assault ship, LPD: amphibious transport dock, LSD: dock landing ships

346
Q

__________ task forces (ATF) transport Marine Air Ground Task Forces (MAGTFs), called the ________ force, and the two combined are called a __________ _____ _____ (ARG).

A

Amphibious, landing, amphibious ready group

347
Q

What is a ESG? What things does is it comprised of?

A

An expeditionary strike group: contains the amphibious ready group (ARG=ATF+MAGTF) and CSG (carrier strike group), which supports it in transit

348
Q

What are the 4 Cs in C4ISR?

A

Command, Control, Communications, Computers (ISR= Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance)

349
Q

What is information warfare?

A

Information operations: any action taken to negatively affect information, information systems, or C4ISR

350
Q

All branches of service rely on Navy satellites for what?

A

Ultra high frequency (UHF) narrow-band communications

351
Q

What is the new Navy communications satellite system that extends UHF cell phone capabilities?

A

Mobile User Objective System

352
Q

Define naval communication:

A

transmission and reception of military instructions and information by sound, electronics, or visual means

353
Q

What 3 qualities must naval communications have?

A

Reliable, secure, and rapid

354
Q

What are the main functions of naval telecommunications?

A

meet the command and control needs of the operating forces

355
Q

What are the secondary functions of naval telecommunications?

A

allow administration of the naval establishment

356
Q

What are the largest of the Navy’s communications facilities called? How many are there?

A

naval computer and telecommunications area master stations (NCTAMS); 6

357
Q

Which officer is in charge of a ship’s communications organization?

A

Fleet commanders

358
Q

What alphabet is used for voice communications by radio?

A

NATO phonetic alphabet

359
Q

What are the main Navy visual communications methods?

A

Flashing light, flaghoist, and semaphore

360
Q

What is the principal use of flaghoist?

A

Send uniform maneuver instructions: originating ship hoists the flag, receiving ships duplicates the flag to show the message is sent, and the originating ship that rapidly hauls down the flag to signal execution time

361
Q

What is the Nancy system and what is its advantage?

A

Infrared light signaling; very secure because it can only be visible with special optical receiver and can be seen for 7.5 miles

362
Q

What is a semaphore?

A

use of signals transmitted by various arm positions of the signal for short distance communications; faster and more secure than flashing light

363
Q

How fast can words be transmitted using semaphore?

A

15 words per minute

364
Q

What is the Gertrude system?

A

A waterborne sound communications method that uses an underwater acoustic system associated with submarine or destroyer equipment; not very secure and limited in range

365
Q

What are groups of military communication satellites in orbit called?

A

Constellations

366
Q

Where is visual signaling done on a ship?

A

Signal bridge

367
Q

How fast can a signalman transmit words using international Morse code?

A

14 words per minute

368
Q

What are pyrotechnics used for?

A

Emergency signals

369
Q

What is the difference between intelligence and information?

A

Raw information is the material collected from all sources about a given subject or country; intelligence is this information gathered together and analyzed in order to be useful

370
Q

What are the 5 steps in the intelligence process?

A

Planning and direction; collection; processing; analysis and production; dissemination

371
Q

What are the 6 basic national intelligence sources?

A

1) signals intel 2) imagery intel 3) measurement and signature intel 4) human-source intel 5) open-source intel 6) geospatial intel

372
Q

What kind of information is naval intelligence primarily interested in collecting?

A

Tactical information: Information of interest to the Navy, such as intel on friendly and unfriendly ships, weapons systems, strategies and tactics, facilities, etc

373
Q

What two kinds of new technology are being used for recon and intel-gathering purposes?

A

Spy satellites and UAV (unmanned aerial vehicles)

374
Q

What is the US intelligence community?

A

All of the primary agencies that produce intelligence in the US

375
Q

What new department was created in 2002 to coordinate national strategy against domestic terrorism?

A

Department of Homeland Security

376
Q

What is the primary manager and producer of foreign military intelligence?

A

Defense Intelligence Agency

377
Q

What is a military attache?

A

Military officers that provide military expertise to embassies in foreign countries

378
Q

What is the organization responsible for carrying out the intelligence mission of the Navy?

A

Office of Naval Intelligence

379
Q

What does Naval Criminal Investigative Service do?

A

Primary criminal investigative and counterintelligence agency of the Navy

380
Q

What are the two categories of espionage?

A

Military and political

381
Q

What is counterintelligence?

A

The protection of a nation’s secrets against espionage or other intel-gathering activities; in other words, security

382
Q

What are the three levels of security classification in the US?

A

In order from most to least importance: top secret, secret, confidential

383
Q

Explain the security breach of the late 1960s and mid 1980s that compromised submarine quietness technology?

A

John Walker compromised highly classified technology that allowed the Soviet technology to advance rapidly

384
Q

What was the worst intelligence disaster in US history?

A

FBI Agent Robert Hanssen sold US secrets to the Russian Federation over a 20 year period; including passing the names double agents who were killed as a result

385
Q

In 2013, what ex-NSA analyst perpetrated an infamous security breach?

A

Edward Snowden: released 1.7M top secret NSA documents on Patriot Act programs

386
Q

What type of intelligence was extensively used in Vietnam?

A

Air intelligence

387
Q

What are the two most notable secret high-speed jet aircraft used in air intelligence (spy planes)?

A

U-2 and SR-71 Blackbird

388
Q

What legislation created the US Intelligence Community, National Security Council, and CIA?

A

National Security Act of 1947

389
Q

Which president established the Intelligence Community? How? What date?

A

Ronald Reagan by executive order in 1981

390
Q

When did modern logistics begin?

391
Q

What is the relationship between strategy, tactics, and logistics?

A

Strategy is concerned with general plan for the employment of fighting forces; tactics involve the specific maneuvers and techniques (or operation execution), and logistics refers to the total process by which resources are mobilized towards achieving those military goals

392
Q

What are the six functional areas of logistics?

A

Supply, maintenance, transportation, engineering, health services, other services

393
Q

What are the four elements of logistics that come into play in each functional area?

A

Acquisition, distribution, sustainment, disposition

394
Q

What are maritime prepositioned force ships?

A

Part of the Maritime Prepositioning Force, these ships are preloaded with supplies and ammunitions in key destinations

395
Q

What percentage of heavy-lift logistics for deployed forces are delivered via sealift by the Military Sealift Command?

396
Q

Define retrograde in logistics?

A

war material removed from a theater of operations

397
Q

Who manages the Navy’s R&D program?

A

Secretary of the Navy, who is under the SecDef

398
Q

What is the Office of Naval Research’s corporate R&D corporate laboratory?

A

Naval Research Laboratory

399
Q

What is DARPA?

A

Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency: department of DoD

400
Q

What are the three main DARPA program areas?

A

national-level problems, operational dominance, high-risk high-payoff technologies

401
Q

What branch of international law deals with contracts, torts, and offenses that occur in the oceans?

A

Admiralty law

402
Q

Who is the father of international law?

A

Hugo Grotius

403
Q

How far does territorial sea extend?

A

12 (before 1900, it was only 3 miles)

404
Q

What part of the sea does no nation have exclusive use of or sovereignty of?

405
Q

What are the three main precepts of international law of the sea?

A

freedom of the high seas, territorial seeds, and special contiguous zones

406
Q

When were international laws of the sea officially ratified?

407
Q

What right do foreign ships have in territorial waters?

A

Allowed the right of innocent passage (expeditious and continuous manner)

408
Q

What are archipelagic waters?

A

waters containing an archipelagic state

409
Q

What are contiguous zones?

A

An additional 12 miles from the limits of territorial waters

410
Q

What right applies in contiguous zones?

A

Right of hot pursuit; laws of the territorial nation can only be enforced if broken in the territorial or internal waters

411
Q

What is the exclusive economic zone?

A

extends 200 miles for access to resources

412
Q

What rights are given in the continental shelf?

A

Coastal states have exclusive right to minerals and nonliving material (living creatures only in EEZ)

413
Q

Where has the Chinese government built up reefs to form artificial islands in order to expand their territorial waters?

A

South China Sea, Spratly Islands group

414
Q

What is a thalweg?

A

A channel boundary line that is the channel’s centerline

415
Q

What does riparian mean?

A

bordering on the river (ex: riparian countries)

416
Q

What percentage of the world’s surface is high seas/international seas?

A

more than 70%

417
Q

What is COLREGS?

A

International rules of the road (comes from COLlisions REGulations guidelines of 1972)

418
Q

What are the 2 requirements to be classified as a warship?

A

1) vessel must be commissioned as a part of naval forces and displaying an appropriate identifying flag 2) must be commanded by a member of the military forces and crewed by the military

419
Q

What is the “right to approach”?

A

under international law, any authorized ship can approach another vessel to verify its nationality

420
Q

How do warships request the name and nationality of merchant ships in international waters?

A

Flashing light

421
Q

What is the difference between warships and merchant ships when in a foreign port?

A

Warships are considered extension of the territory of registry, but merchant ships become local jurisdiction

422
Q

What does CBR warfare stand for?

A

Chemical, biological, and radiological

423
Q

What is a quarantine in regards to naval blockade?

A

A limited and selective form of naval blockade directed against specific prohibited cargo useful for making war (ex contraband)