Naval Science 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is prevention of war by instilling fear in potential enemies?

A

Deterrence

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2
Q

What is the US first carrier-launched strike-fighter?

A

F/A-18 Hornet

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3
Q

What is the Navy’s all-weather, carrier-based, tactical-warning and control-system aircraft?

A

E-2C Hawkeye

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4
Q

What is the world’s first production tiltrotor aircraft?

A

V-22 Osprey

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5
Q

What fighter/attack aircraft was extensively used during Operation Desert Storm in 1991?

A

F/A-18 Hornet

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6
Q

What percentage of your body is water?

A

60-70

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7
Q

What is the number one cause of death among 15- to 24-year-olds?

A

Drinking and driving

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8
Q

What is information placed at the outer edge of a map?

A

Marginal Information

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9
Q

What is a unit of measurement that is approximately 6,080 feet - which is one minute of latitude; it is slightly longer than a statute mile?

A

Nautical Mile

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10
Q

What does OK4R mean as a studying method?

A

Overview, Key Ideas, Read, Recall, Reflect, Review

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11
Q

What does PQRST mean as a studying method?

A

Preview, Question, Read, State, Test

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12
Q

What 1942 World War II battle marked a turning point in naval aviation when aircraft launched from carriers met in battle for the first time?

A

Battle of the Coral Sea

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13
Q

What capability did the angled flight deck give aircraft carriers?

A

Launching and recovering aircraft at the same time

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14
Q

What was the name of the U.S. Navy’s first aircraft carrier?

A

USS Langley

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15
Q

What is the mission of the T-45 A Goshawk?

A

Trainer

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16
Q

What is the name of the Navy’s carrier-based antisubmarine aircraft?

A

S-3B Viking

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17
Q

What aircraft is an unmanned aerial vehicle whose mission includes surveillance, target-acquisition, and battle-damage assessment?

A

RQ-2A Pioneer

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18
Q

What general term is used for an armed naval vessel?

A

Man of war

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19
Q

During what war did air power start to have significance?

A

WWII

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20
Q

Which Navy aircraft’s mission is to jam enemy radar?

A

F/A 18G Growler

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21
Q

Which article of the constitution provides for changing the constitution by amendment?

A

Article V

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22
Q

What is a twin engine cargo/passenger aircraft whose primary mission is carrier on board delivery?

A

C-2A Greyhound

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23
Q

Which of the following helicopters operates from carriers and other warships?

A

MH-53E Sea Dragon

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24
Q

Good leaders emerge from ___ ?

A

The ranks of able followers

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25
Q

What is the display of the attitudes, behaviors, and actions that help a leader succeed at leading?

A

followership

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26
Q

What are the 4 traits of a leader?

A

Honest, competent, forward-looking, inspiring

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27
Q

What are the 4 traits of a follower?

A

Honest, competent, dependable, cooperative

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28
Q

What is an effective follower?

A

Independent, responsible, supports unit goals

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29
Q

What is an alienated follower?

A

Complains, criticizes ideas, questions policies

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30
Q

What are the two types of independent followers?

A

Effective and alienated

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31
Q

Followers who go along without their own thoughts are ___ ?

A

Dependent followers

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32
Q

What are the qualities of a good follower?

A

Loyalty, initiative, common sense, intelligence

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33
Q

_____ is how prepared a team member is to carry out a particular task(s)

A

readiness

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34
Q

What 3 factors determine readiness?

A

Ability, willingness, confidence

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35
Q

What are the 4 levels of Readiness?

A

1: Unable and Unwilling, 2: Unable and Willing, 3: Able and Unwilling, 4: Able and Willing

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36
Q

What is considered the most important trait in both followers and leaders?

A

Self- discipline

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37
Q

How should leaders determine follower abilities?

A

Consider the task and its outcome, and then decide which follower is best suited for that task based on skill

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38
Q

What happens to follower confidence over time?

A

It increases

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39
Q

What is the importance of follower readiness?

A

Understanding the readiness of followers is a key element of leadership

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40
Q

What is the first step to becoming a leader?

A

Learn to follow

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41
Q

Who are considered the heart of an effective team?

A

Followers or “worker bees “

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42
Q

Why are leader and follower traits similar?

A

Roles of leader and follower are closely related

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43
Q

What is situational leadership?

A

Leadership based on team abilities and motivation with no single best way to lead

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44
Q

What is a leader’s engagement in supportive, two-way communication with their team members?

A

Relationship behavior

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45
Q

What is the ability to understand; be aware of and sensitive to, the feelings, thoughts, and experiences of others?

A

empathy

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46
Q

What is leadership?

A

The art of influencing and directing people to accomplish a mission

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47
Q

What is management?

A

Supervising the use of resources to achieve team objectives

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48
Q

What is the main difference between leadership and management?

A

You lead people but manage things

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49
Q

What is relationship behavior?

A

orientation towards people; a leaders engagement in communication with their team

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50
Q

What is situational leadership?

A

A leadership style that says there is no single best way to lead people, and that they change based on the environment

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51
Q

What is a leader’s involvement in defining the duties and responsibilities of an individual/group?

A

Task behavior

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52
Q

What do task behaviors include?

A

Directing what, how, and when tasks are done

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53
Q

What are two primary orientations to leadership behavior?

A

Relationship and task behavior

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54
Q

What are the 4 styles of leadership?

A

Selling, Telling, Delegating, Participating

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55
Q

Describe the “participating” leadership style in terms of relationship and task orientation

A

High relationship oriented, low task oriented

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56
Q

Describe the “delegating” leadership style in terms of relationship and task orientation

A

Low relationship oriented, low task oriented

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57
Q

Describe the “selling” leadership style in terms of relationship and task orientation

A

High relationship oriented, high task oriented

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58
Q

Describe the “telling” leadership style in terms of relationship and task orientation

A

High relationship oriented, low task oriented

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59
Q

Describe the “selling” style of leadership

A

Supervising closely, following up, supporting progress, encouraging questions, explaining relationships between tasks and team goals

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60
Q

Describe the “telling” style of leadership

A

Directing others, surpervising them closely, following up to ensure completion of the task

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61
Q

Describe the “delegating” style of leadership

A

Setting task boundaries, letting others make their own decisions, providing help when asked, monitoring progress

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62
Q

Describe the “participating” style of leadership

A

Asking team members for ideas, listening, encouraging others to try out their ideas, sharing control and accountability

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63
Q

What are the primary factors of leadership situations?

A

The mission, the people, the leadership style, and the environment

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64
Q

Why is personal appearance important for leaders?

A

It shows pride in every detail

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65
Q

What are 6 leadership traits?

A

Integrity, Loyalty, Commitment, Energy, Decisiveness, and Selflessness

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66
Q

What are the 8 personal qualities of an effective leader?

A

Courage, responsibility, ability to set an example, self-discipline, confidence, a sense of humor, tact, common sense

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67
Q

An individual’s _________is constant, defines him/her as a leader and serves as the basis for decision and treatment of others

A

character

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68
Q

What term is used to refer to a willingness to act?

A

Decisiveness

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69
Q

What term is used to refer to the sacrifice of personal needs and wants for a greater good?

A

Selflessness

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70
Q

NJROTC units with 151-299 cadets are organized into a __________

A

Battalion

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71
Q

How should a leader tailor their approach?

A

Based on task, environment, and team readiness

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72
Q

What is readiness in leadership?

A

Ability and willingness to accomplish a task

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73
Q

What behaviors are included in relationship behavior?

A

Listening, praising, collaborating, counseling

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74
Q

Why should task and relationship behavior go hand in hand?

A

To balance team satisfaction and productivity

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75
Q

What is the ability to deal with others in a respectful manner?

A

Tact

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76
Q

Why should leaders have a sense of humor?

A

It can ease tennsions and restore morale

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77
Q

___ is the willingness to be accountable for your actions

A

Responsibility

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78
Q

Why should leaders have courage?

A

So they can be confident in their descisions and be willing to make though decisions

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79
Q

What is motivation?

A

The inner force that drives people to act

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80
Q

What are Maslow’s Hierachy of Needs?

A

Physiological, safety, love/belonging, esteem, actualization

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81
Q

Describe each tier of Maslow’s Hierachy of Needs

A

Physiological: food, water, shelter Safety: personal and community security, Love/Belonging: family, community, group acceptance, Esteem: friendship and love, Actualization: personal fulfilment

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82
Q

What is self-actualization?

A

The need to feel that you have reached your full potential in life

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83
Q

What is an external aim to which one directs one’s efforts?

A

goal

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84
Q

How does one create a goal?

A

Ones motive helps form their goal

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85
Q

What are the two types of motivation?

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic

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86
Q

What are 5 common intrinsic motivations?

A

Affiliation, achievement, power, wisdom, security

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87
Q

What are 5 common extrinsic motivations?

A

Money, food, threats/fears, status/promotion, awards/recognition

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88
Q

What is an intrinsic motivation?

A

a drive people feel that is based on internal factors, factors that originate from/motivate you within your personality

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89
Q

What is an extrinsic motivation?

A

a force that drives people to act that is based on factors outside the individual

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90
Q

What is something that incities determination/action?

A

incentive

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91
Q

What is a negative approach to motivation?

A

punishment/disciplinary action

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92
Q

What is a positive approach to motivation?

A

find what motivates a person, and use that to get them to do a better job

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93
Q

What is an individual that helps others develop their talents and skills?

A

a mentor

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94
Q

What is a less experienced person who benefits froma mentor’s guidance and advice?

A

protege

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95
Q

How can a mentor better understand their protege?

A

Put aside preconceived ideas, be nonjudgemental, put themselves in the proteges shoes, be objective

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96
Q

What is the purpose of a mentor?

A

To advise, rather than change/reform the protege (be objective)

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97
Q

What is the key to an effective mentor-protege relationship?

A

creating trust between the two people

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98
Q

What is active listening?

A

Two way communication

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99
Q

What do active listening skills include?

A

Avoiding distraction, making good eye contact, letting the other person speak

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100
Q

What is leading by example?

A

Setting a good example that others should follow

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101
Q

What is leading by imitation?

A

Imitating leadership beahviors you admire in others

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102
Q

What is leading by consensus?

A

sharing the leadership load, getting team members to cooperate and pull their weight

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103
Q

How can you tell if you are an effective leader?

A

seek input/feedback from your leader, talk with team members, learn from your efforts, reflect on your own past experiences

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104
Q

How do Maslow’s needs motivate your own behavior?

A

Those who meet the needs at each level become more flexible and have more options

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105
Q

How do Maslow’s needs motivate your own behavior?

A

Goals change your behavior so that you can meet that goal

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106
Q

How do you become an active listener?

A

Repeat key ideas, ask questions related to the topic, test the accuracy of the speaker

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107
Q

What are some ways to assess your leadership style and effectiveness?

A

Lead by example, limitation, consensus and then evaluate your leadership behavior

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108
Q

According to Abraham Maslow, why do most people fail to reach the point where the need for self-actualization is their main motivation?

A

They spend most of their time attempting to satisfy their lower level needs

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109
Q

Leaders must remember that people are usually motivated _________rather than __________

A

individually, as a group

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110
Q

The best way to lead is by _________

A

example

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111
Q

In evaluating their own leadership effectiveness, cadets should focus on questions about their teams’ ___________

A

goals and obstacles

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112
Q

What is a basic requirement for effective leadership?

A

Understanding of human behavior

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113
Q

What are the basic human needs?

A

Food, water, safety, respect and acceptance

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114
Q

What are the most basic human needs?

A

Survival needs

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115
Q

What do human motivation theories describe?

A

Series of steps or levels

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116
Q

Who proposed the hierarchy of human needs?

A

Psychologist Abraham Maslow

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117
Q

What are the first level needs in Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Physical needs—food, water, shelter

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118
Q

What needs come after physical needs in Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Safety and security needs

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119
Q

What needs are categorized under esteem in Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Friendship and love

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120
Q

What is the highest need in Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Self-actualization or personal fulfillment

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121
Q

What must people do before moving to the next level in Maslow’s hierarchy?

A

Satisfy needs at each succeeding level

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122
Q

What are belonging needs?

A

Need to be liked and accepted by family, friends, community

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123
Q

What do esteem needs relate to?

A

Desire to feel important

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124
Q

What is the cycle of goal-directed activity?

A

Motive forms a goal, behavior directed toward goal

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125
Q

What is respect?

A

the attention, regard, and consideration given to people and their rights, belongings, and ideas

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126
Q

What must a leader do to be effective?

A

Earn respect from group members

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127
Q

What did the Founding Fathers state in the Declaration of Indepedence in regards to respect?

A

every human being has basic, inherent value and rights

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128
Q

What 3 unalienable rights to the Founding Fathers list in the Declaration of Independence?

A

Life, Liberty, Pursuit of Happiness

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129
Q

People develop resepct for others when they feel that others respect their ______

A

personal dignity

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130
Q

What is personal dignity?

A

the internal strength that helps people feel connected, worthwhile, and valued

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131
Q

What is mutual respect?

A

a two-way relationship that develops between people or members of groups

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132
Q

This action will NOT help to create greater group effectiveness

A

Making excuses for mistakes

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133
Q

An unfair judgment of an individual or group is known as ________

A

Prejudice

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134
Q

term used to refer to unfair treatment of a particular group of people based on prejudice?

A

Discrimination

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135
Q

When people have a limited perception of people based on whether they are male or female, they are displaying ___________stereotyping

A

gender

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136
Q

What question will help you decide if you are showing tolerance to others?

A

Is this the way I would like to be treated?”

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137
Q

What type of intolerance has caused numerous conflicts throughout history?

A

Religious

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138
Q

To increase the effectiveness of a group, members, should view differences as a ________________________

A

Strength

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139
Q

How can group leaders ensure team effectiveness as the members work toward accomplishing the goals?

A

Devise ways to measure results or movement toward results

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140
Q

To increase the effectiveness of the group, each member must be ________

A

Accountable

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141
Q

Effective groups look for ________answers and solutions which can be used to measure their effectiveness

A

Concrete

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142
Q

What can serve as a kind of glue to hold a group together?

A

mutual respect

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143
Q

Conflicts in ________involve the reasons that people do what they do, generally because of their different values

A

Perspective

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144
Q

Since conflicts in perspective are often unsolvable, people must ________as best they can

A

Compromise

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145
Q

If people disagree about the team’s goals and objectives, there is a conflict in _________

A

Purposes

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146
Q

Problems regarding processes and procedures are classified as conflicts in ___________

A

Practice

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147
Q

Operating procedures should be established before work begins, with the leader ensuring that they are _________

A

supportive of the team’s objectives

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148
Q

What is rationalization?

A

Concealing true motivation with incorrect explanations

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149
Q

What is encountering in conflict resolution?

A

Facing a conflict head-on to reach a solution

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150
Q

What is the substitution of a favorable trait or behavior for an undesirable one in order to present a better picture of oneself?

A

Compensation

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151
Q

What are the four main ways people handle conflict?

A

Retreating, standing still, detouring, encountering

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152
Q

Which is the best way to handle problems?

A

Encountering

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153
Q

What are three causes of prejudice?

A

Fear, misunderstanding, and perceptions of history

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154
Q

What is diversity?

A

Variation or difference

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155
Q

How can you tell if your team is working effectively?

A

When your team has a common goal and are able to communicate about their plan of actions to achieve that goal, they come together and bond, communication is used to accept other people’s differences

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156
Q

What does retreating involve in conflict handling?

A

Blocking or moving away from a problem

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157
Q

How is respect earned?

A

Through your words and deeds

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158
Q

Why might someone retreat after loss?

A

Fear of future loss, rejection, or loneliness

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159
Q

What is standing still in conflict handling?

A

Avoiding conflict using defense mechanisms

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160
Q

What are some defense mechanisms of standing still?

A

Rationalization, projection, daydreaming

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161
Q

What is detouring in conflict handling?

A

Avoiding a problem by moving around it

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162
Q

What is projection?

A

Falsely attributing own feelings to others

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163
Q

What are the three possible outcomes in any conflict?

A

Win–lose, Lose–lose, Win–win

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164
Q

How can most conflicts be resolved with both sides winning?

A

Through communication, compromise, and common sense

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165
Q

What does tolerance mean?

A

Understanding and standing up for differences

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166
Q

What are barriers to tolerance?

A

Prejudice, discrimination, lack of diversity value

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167
Q

What does prejudice mean?

A

Judging ahead of time

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168
Q

How should one respond to a prejudiced statement?

A

Think logically to overcome prejudice

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169
Q

What term refers to something that can be but has not yet been developed?

A

Potential

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170
Q

maturity

A

Being fully grown/developed

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171
Q

Personality

A

What a person is inside as well as what he/she shows to others,and is comprised of such things as actions, opinions, and beliefs

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172
Q

A persons attitude is rooted in their ___ ?

A

Thoughts, feelings, or beliefs

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173
Q

Perspective

A

Someone’s way of seeing the world

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174
Q

A human being’s natural desire to feel like he/ she is part of a group is known as ___________ ____

A

Affiliation need

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175
Q

Defense Mechanism

A

behaviors that people use to deal with anxieties and stress

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176
Q

Displacement

A

Taking impulses on or transferring feelings about a a person or thing to a less threatening , more acceptable object

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177
Q

What is Denial?

A

The refusal to accept the existence of a problem or painful reality

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178
Q

A defense mechanism in which someone pushes disturbing thoughts from his/her conscious mind while the feelings continue at the subconcious level is known as __________

A

Repression

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179
Q

What is rationalization?

A

Concealing true motivation with incorrect explanations

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180
Q

What is projection?

A

Falsely attributing own feelings to others

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181
Q

While emotions are spontaneous feelings, _________ are more a temporary state of mind or general feeling if some emotion

A

Moods

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182
Q

Because expressing strong emotions is important, people should deal with them in constructive ways, such as having a sense of humor, engaging in physical activity, and ___________

A

Talking with someone they trust

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183
Q

What was the theme of Thomas Anthony Harris “ 1969 book I’m OK, You’re OK?

A

People can change their attitude to feel and act better

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184
Q

According to Thomas Anthony Harris ‘ 1969 book, which of these attitudes reflects the approval both of oneself and of others that a healthy, well- adjusted person feels?

A

I’m OK, you’re OK

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185
Q

When young people must decide between going along with the group and behaving in accordance with their values, their __________________ are tested

A

Self-Knowledge and perspective

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186
Q

Which of these statements about desire is NOT accurate?

A

The mistakes people make in dealing with desires fortunately always have only short-term effects

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187
Q

Desire are things you want either for yourself or those you care for, while beliefs are strong and deeply held _____ that shape your thinking

A

ideas

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188
Q

To learn from a mistake, a healthy, well- adjusted person will adjust his/her behavior and _________ ___ __ ______ __

A

determine not to repeat it

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189
Q

What do actions reveal?

A

A persons attitudes

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190
Q

With proper planning and positive attitude, ____ will come your way, as in Thomas Jefferson’s statement, the harder he worked, the more of it he had

A

luck

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191
Q

What is a learning curve?

A

time needed to perfect a task or reach a goal

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192
Q

What is the greatest danger of the constant use of defense mechanisms?

A

people fail to take responsibility for their actions and remain immature

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193
Q

In support of the power of positive thinking, Norman Vincent Peale wrote, “ How you _____ _____ _ _______ is more important than the problem itself “

A

think about a problem

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194
Q

The way that people _________ their experiences is very influential on their lives and their ability to lead

A

interpret

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195
Q

In the process of maturing, a person develops a ________ ________ and then uses it to meet life’s challenges

A

positive attitude

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196
Q

What happens to a person’s decision- making skills as he/she matures?

A

they improve with the growing ability to interpret events and use experiences

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197
Q

Which one of these behaviors is NOT considered a method of changing an attitude?

A

wishing positive things would happen

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198
Q

How does your perspective affect your life experiences?

A

Your perspective is your “take” on the world It drives the way you interpret your life experiences

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199
Q

What shapes perspective?

A

attitude, personality, and behavior

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200
Q

How do a person’s perspective and affiliation need interact?

A

Your perspective drives the purposes you strive toward; your passions, or the things you feel strongly about; and the practices you follow in life Affiliation need is a desire to be and feel a part of a groups

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201
Q

How do a person’s goals influence his or her actions?

A

They shape what a person does

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202
Q

What are five common defense mechanisms?

A

Displacement, Repression, Denial, Projection, Rationalization, and Acting Out

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203
Q

Which respected individuals speak about early life experiences shaping their future?

A

Colin Powell, John McCain, Meryl Streep

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204
Q

What does attaining maturity mean?

A

Becoming aware of abilities, goals, and place

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205
Q

What is an important step in creating a beneficial attitude?

A

Understanding attitude and personality differences

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206
Q

How does experience affect your personality?

A

Experience shapes personality, foundation of attitudes

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207
Q

What is a behavior?

A

An observable action based on personality and attitude

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208
Q

What is the effect of an achievement-focused attitude?

A

It leads to better results

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209
Q

What does winning motivate people to do?

A

Push themselves harder

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210
Q

What is a citizen?

A

A legally recognized member of a country with rights and responsibilities

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211
Q

What are the two main ways to become a U S citizen?

A

Birthright (jus soli) and naturalization

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212
Q

What does jus sanguinis mean?

A

Citizenship by having U S citizen parents

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213
Q

What amendment defines U S citizenship?

A

The 14th Amendment

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214
Q

What is the process by which immigrants become U S citizens?

A

Naturalization

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215
Q

What test must naturalized citizens pass?

A

The U S civics and history test

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216
Q

What is the Oath of Allegiance?

A

A pledge new citizens take to uphold U S laws and values

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217
Q

What government agency handles naturalization?

A

U S Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS)

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218
Q

What are the three unalienable rights in the Declaration of Independence?

A

Life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

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219
Q

What is the main responsibility of U S citizens regarding government?

A

Voting

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220
Q

What amendment lowered the voting age to 18?

A

The 26th Amendment

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221
Q

What law banned racial discrimination in voting?

A

The Voting Rights Act of 1965

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222
Q

Why must citizens obey laws?

A

To maintain order and stability in society

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223
Q

What is a civic duty that involves serving in court?

A

Jury duty

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224
Q

How do taxes benefit society?

A

They fund public services like roads, schools, and defense

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225
Q

What organization must U S males register for at age 18?

A

The Selective Service

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226
Q

Who created the Bill of Responsibilities?

A

The Freedoms Foundation at Valley Forge

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227
Q

What does “Freedom is not free” mean?

A

Citizens must protect and uphold their rights

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228
Q

What does the Bill of Responsibilities emphasize?

A

That rights come with duties

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229
Q

What responsibility ensures a fair justice system?

A

Serving on a jury

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230
Q

Why should citizens respect private property?

A

To uphold the rights of others

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231
Q

What is the main purpose of obeying laws?

A

Maintaining liberty and order

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232
Q

What are the three branches of the U S government?

A

Legislative, Executive, Judicial

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233
Q

Who wrote Democracy in America?

A

Alexis de Tocqueville

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234
Q

What document is the supreme law of the land?

A

The U S Constitution

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235
Q

What principle prevents one branch of government from becoming too powerful?

A

Checks and balances

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236
Q

What is the purpose of the Constitution’s Preamble?

A

To outline the goals of the government

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237
Q

What government body makes federal laws?

A

Congress

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238
Q

What is the highest court in the U S ?

A

The Supreme Court

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239
Q

What branch enforces laws?

A

The Executive Branch

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240
Q

What document declared American independence?

A

The Declaration of Independence

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241
Q

Who wrote the Declaration of Independence?

A

Thomas Jefferson

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242
Q

What historical document first established the idea of self-government?

A

The Mayflower Compact

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243
Q

What are the first ten amendments to the Constitution called?

A

The Bill of Rights

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244
Q

What does the First Amendment protect?

A

Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition

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245
Q

Who was known as the “Father of the Constitution”?

A

James Madison

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246
Q

What does separation of church and state mean?

A

The government cannot establish a national religion

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247
Q

What government organization serves as the U S military reserve?

A

The National Guard

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248
Q

What was the significance of United Flight 93?

A

Passengers prevented a 9/11 terrorist attack

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249
Q

What non-military ways can citizens serve the nation?

A

Volunteering, voting, and public service

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250
Q

Why is community service important?

A

It strengthens local communities

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251
Q

What are first responders?

A

Police, firefighters, and emergency medical personnel

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252
Q

What is the main role of the U S military?

A

National defense

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253
Q

What does FEMA stand for?

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency

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254
Q

How can citizens prepare for disasters?

A

By having emergency plans and supplies

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255
Q

What are the three ways of becoming an American citizen?

A

By birth, naturalization, and by act of congress

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256
Q

What is a citizen’s allegiance?

A

A tie of loyalty to a country

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257
Q

What does a country owe its citizens?

A

Protection

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258
Q

What is one purpose of the NJROTC program in relation to citizenship?

A

To develop informed, responsible citizens

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259
Q

Who rules in a dictatorship?

A

One person

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260
Q

Where does government power derive in a democracy?

A

From the people

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261
Q

What are laws in simplest terms?

A

Agreements by which people live

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262
Q

What did the Decleration of independence officially do?

A

The Decleration of independece cut the 13 colonies’ political ties from Britain

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263
Q

Who was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence?

A

Thomas Jefferson

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264
Q

What are the five parts of the Declaration of Independence?

A

Preamble, Statement of Rights, List of Grievances, Prior Attempts to Redress, Declaration of Independence

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265
Q

Which English philosopher heavily influenced the Declaration of Independence?

A

John Locke

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266
Q

What was the first governing document of the United States?

A

The Articles of Confederation

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267
Q

What rebellion highlighted the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation?

A

Shays’ Rebellion

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268
Q

Who is known as the “Father of the Constitution”?

A

James Madison

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269
Q

What was the name of the compromise that created a bicameral legislature?

A

The Great Compromise

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270
Q

What is the bicameral legislature of the U S called?

A

Congress

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271
Q

What are the two chambers of Congress?

A

The Senate and the House of Representatives

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272
Q

How many senators does each state have?

A

Two

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273
Q

How is representation determined in the House of Representatives?

A

By state population

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274
Q

How many branches of government are established by the U S Constitution?

A

Three

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275
Q

What is the main function of the legislative branch?

A

To make laws

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276
Q

What is the main function of the executive branch?

A

To enforce laws

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277
Q

What is the main function of the judicial branch?

A

To interpret laws

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278
Q

What is the supreme law of the land in the United States?

A

The U S Constitution

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279
Q

How many amendments are in the Bill of Rights?

A

Ten

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280
Q

What are the first ten amendments to the Constitution called?

A

The Bill of Rights

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281
Q

What freedoms does the First Amendment protect?

A

Freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition

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282
Q

Which amendment guarantees the right to bear arms?

A

The Second Amendment

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283
Q

Which amendment prohibits unreasonable searches and seizures?

A

The Fourth Amendment

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284
Q

What amendment abolished slavery?

A

The Thirteenth Amendment

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285
Q

What amendment gave women the right to vote?

A

The Nineteenth Amendment

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286
Q

What amendment lowered the voting age to 18?

A

The Twenty-Sixth Amendment

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287
Q

What type of government is established by the U S Constitution?

A

A constitutional republic

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288
Q

What system prevents one branch of government from becoming too powerful?

A

Checks and balances

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289
Q

What is federalism?

A

The division of power between national and state governments

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290
Q

What was the purpose of the Federalist Papers?

A

To support the ratification of the U S Constitution

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291
Q

Who were the three main authors of the Federalist Papers?

A

Alexander Hamilton, James Madison, and John Jay

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292
Q

What is the Necessary and Proper Clause?

A

A clause that gives Congress the power to make laws needed to carry out its duties

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293
Q

What is the Supremacy Clause?

A

A clause that establishes the Constitution as the highest law of the land

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294
Q

What is judicial review?

A

The Supreme Court’s power to declare laws unconstitutional

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295
Q

Which case established judicial review?

A

Marbury v Madison

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296
Q

What is the process of formally approving the Constitution called?

A

Ratification

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297
Q

How many states were needed to ratify the Constitution?

A

Nine

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298
Q

What are the three branches of the U S military under civilian control?

A

The Army, Navy, and Air Force

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299
Q

Who is the Commander-in-Chief of the U S Armed Forces?

A

The President of the United States

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300
Q

What is the highest court in the United States?

A

The Supreme Court

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301
Q

How many justices serve on the Supreme Court?

A

Nine

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302
Q

Who presides over the Senate in the absence of the Vice President?

A

The President Pro Tempore

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303
Q

What is the system that allows each branch of government to limit the powers of the other branches?

A

Checks and balances

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304
Q

What is an amendment?

A

A formal change to the Constitution

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305
Q

Which amendment gave African American men the right to vote?

A

The Fifteenth Amendment

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306
Q

What is the process by which a President can be removed from office?

A

Impeachment

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307
Q

What is the term length for a U S Senator?

A

Six years

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308
Q

What is the term length for a member of the House of Representatives?

A

Two years

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309
Q

What is the term length for the President of the United States?

A

Four years

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310
Q

What does the 1st Amendment do

A

Guarantees freedom of speech, religion, press, assembly, and petition

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311
Q

What does the 2nd Amendment do?

A

Protects the right to bear arms

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312
Q

What does the 3rd Amendment do?

A

Prohibits the forced quartering of soldiers in private homes during peacetime

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313
Q

What does the 4th Amendment do?

A

Protects against unreasonable searches and seizures without a warrant

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314
Q

What does the 5th Amendment do?

A

Protects against self-incrimination, double jeopardy; ensures due process and just compensation for property taken by the government (eminent domain)

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315
Q

What does the 6th Amendment do?

A

Guarantees the right to a speedy and public trial, an impartial jury, an attorney, and the ability to confront witnesses

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316
Q

What does the 7th Amendment do?

A

Guarantees a jury trial in civil cases involving disputes over $20

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317
Q

What does the 8th Amendment do?

A

Prohibits excessive bail, fines, and cruel and unusual punishment

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318
Q

What does the 9th Amendment do?

A

States that rights not listed in the Constitution are still protected for the people

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319
Q

What does the 10th Amendment do?

A

Reserves powers not given to the federal government to the states or the people

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320
Q

What does the 13th Amendment do?

A

Abolishes slavery and involuntary servitude, except as punishment for a crime

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321
Q

What does the 14th Amendment do?

A

Grants citizenship to all persons born or naturalized in the U S ; guarantees equal protection under the law and due process

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322
Q

What does the 15th Amendment do?

A

Grants All men the right to vote

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323
Q

What does the 19th Amendment do?

A

Grants women the right to vote

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324
Q

What does the 26th Amendment do?

A

Lowers the voting age from 21 to 18

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325
Q

What does the 16th Amendment do?

A

Allows Congress to levy an income tax

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326
Q

What is detailed in Article I of the Constitution?

A

It details Congress’s duties and membership requirements

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327
Q

What powers does Section 8 of Article I grant Congress?

A

Declare war, support armies, maintain a navy

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328
Q

What does Article II of the Constitution describe?

A

It describes the president’s powers and election process

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329
Q

Who is the commander in chief according to Article II, Section 2?

A

The president is the commander in chief

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330
Q

What does Article III of the Constitution cover?

A

It covers the judicial branch and federal courts

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331
Q

What does the preamble of the Constitution state?

A

It states the intentions for forming the republic

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332
Q

When was the Declaration of Independence signed?

A

August 2nd 1776

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333
Q

When was the Declaration of Independence adopted by congress?

A

July 4th 1776

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334
Q

Who drafted the Declaration of Independence?

A

Thomas Jefferson

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335
Q

How many parts does the Declaration of Independence have?

A

Five parts

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336
Q

What three unalienable rights were listed in the Preamble of Decleration of Independence?

A

Life, liberty, and the pursuit of happiness

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337
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the U S Department of Defense?

A

To protect the nation and oversee the armed forces

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338
Q

What are the six branches of the U S military?

A

The Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Space Force, and Coast Guard

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339
Q

What is the role of the U S Army?

A

To conduct ground operations and protect national interests

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340
Q

What is the role of the U S Navy?

A

To maintain freedom of the seas and project naval power

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341
Q

What is the role of the U S Air Force?

A

To provide air and space superiority

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342
Q

What is the role of the U S Marine Corps?

A

To serve as an amphibious and expeditionary force

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343
Q

What is the role of the U S Space Force?

A

To protect U S interests in space and cyberspace

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344
Q

What is the role of the U S Coast Guard?

A

To enforce maritime law and conduct search and rescue missions

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345
Q

What law reorganized the U S military and created the Department of Defense?

A

The National Security Act of 1947

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346
Q

Who is the Commander-in-Chief of the U S Armed Forces?

A

The President of the United States

347
Q

Who are the Joint Chiefs of Staff?

A

A group of senior military leaders advising the President

348
Q

What does NATO stand for?

A

The North Atlantic Treaty Organization

349
Q

What is the purpose of NATO?

A

To provide collective defense for its member nations

350
Q

What is deterrence?

A

The strategy of preventing war by maintaining strong military capabilities

351
Q

What is the U S military’s highest-ranking officer?

A

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

352
Q

What does the Department of Homeland Security oversee?

A

Domestic security, counterterrorism, and disaster response

353
Q

What is the primary mission of the National Guard?

A

To serve both state and federal governments in emergency response

354
Q

What is the purpose of military reserves?

A

To provide trained personnel for active-duty forces in times of need

355
Q

What is military conscription?

A

A system that requires citizens to serve in the armed forces, also known as the draft

356
Q

What is an aircraft carrier?

A

A warship designed to deploy and recover aircraft

357
Q

What is the name of the U S military’s global command structure?

A

Unified Combatant Commands

358
Q

What is the largest branch of the U S military?

A

The U S Army

359
Q

What is cyber warfare?

A

The use of technology to attack or defend against cyber threats

360
Q

What is a military alliance?

A

An agreement between nations for mutual defense and security cooperation

361
Q

What is the purpose of a military base?

A

To house personnel, conduct training, and support operations

362
Q

What is an ICBM?

A

An Intercontinental Ballistic Missile capable of delivering nuclear warheads

363
Q

What is the role of the Pentagon?

A

It serves as the headquarters of the U S Department of Defense

364
Q

What is the main mission of the U S Cyber Command?

A

To protect military networks and conduct cyber operations

365
Q

What is a military chain of command?

A

The hierarchy of authority in the armed forces

366
Q

What is asymmetric warfare?

A

Warfare in which smaller forces use unconventional tactics to combat a stronger opponent

367
Q

What is the Posse Comitatus Act?

A

A law restricting the military’s role in domestic law enforcement

368
Q

What is the role of the Secretary of Defense?

A

To oversee the Department of Defense and advise the President on military matters

369
Q

What is military intelligence?

A

The collection and analysis of information to support military operations

370
Q

What is the Geneva Convention?

A

A set of international treaties that establish laws for humanitarian treatment in war

371
Q

What is a preemptive strike?

A

A military attack launched to prevent an imminent threat

372
Q

What is a no-fly zone?

A

An airspace area where military aircraft are restricted from flying

373
Q

What is a Special Forces unit?

A

An elite military group trained for unconventional warfare and covert operations

374
Q

What is military logistics?

A

The planning and movement of troops, equipment, and supplies

375
Q

What is an amphibious assault?

A

A military operation that involves landing forces from the sea onto land

376
Q

What is a UAV?

A

An Unmanned Aerial Vehicle, also known as a drone

377
Q

What is military occupation?

A

The control and governance of a territory by military forces

378
Q

What is the difference between active-duty and reserve military service?

A

Active-duty serves full-time, while reserve serves part-time with potential activation

379
Q

What is an airstrike?

A

A military attack using aircraft to bomb or destroy targets

380
Q

What is the role of the Coast Guard during wartime?

A

To support naval operations and protect U S waterways

381
Q

What is a defense budget?

A

The amount of money allocated for military spending

382
Q

What is a military coup?

A

The overthrow of a government by its own armed forces

383
Q

What is the difference between an offensive and defensive military strategy?

A

Offensive aims to attack, while defensive focuses on protection

384
Q

What is the purpose of military training exercises?

A

To prepare troops for combat and improve coordination

385
Q

What is nuclear deterrence?

A

The strategy of preventing war by threatening nuclear retaliation

386
Q

What is a rapid deployment force?

A

A military unit capable of being quickly sent to a conflict zone

387
Q

What is a military tribunal?

A

A court run by the armed forces to try military personnel or wartime offenses

388
Q

What is the Selective Service System?

A

The organization that manages military drafts in the U S

389
Q

What is the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA)?

A

A government agency that develops emerging military technologies

390
Q

What is a war game?

A

A simulated military exercise used to test strategies

391
Q

What is a peacekeeping mission?

A

A military operation designed to maintain or enforce peace in conflict areas

392
Q

What is military espionage?

A

The act of gathering intelligence on foreign governments or threats

393
Q

What is a combat medic?

A

A military personnel trained to provide emergency medical care in battle

394
Q

What is a warship?

A

A naval vessel designed for combat

395
Q

What is electronic warfare?

A

The use of electromagnetic signals to attack or disrupt enemy systems

396
Q

What is an armored vehicle?

A

A military transport with heavy protective plating

397
Q

What is the military-industrial complex?

A

The relationship between the military and defense contractors

398
Q

What is an air defense system?

A

Technology used to detect and intercept incoming aircraft or missiles

399
Q

What is military enlistment?

A

The act of joining the armed forces

400
Q

What is counterinsurgency?

A

A strategy to combat guerrilla warfare and rebellion forces

401
Q

What is military diplomacy?

A

The use of armed forces to promote national interests without direct conflict

402
Q

What is a missile defense system?

A

A system designed to intercept and destroy incoming missiles

403
Q

What is a forward operating base (FOB)?

A

A military outpost used for operations in foreign territories

404
Q

What is the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA)?

A

A U S agency that collects foreign military intelligence

405
Q

What is an air superiority fighter?

A

A combat aircraft designed to dominate enemy airspace

406
Q

What is a naval blockade?

A

The use of ships to prevent goods and supplies from entering enemy territory

407
Q

What is a military convoy?

A

A group of vehicles traveling together for protection

408
Q

What is psychological warfare?

A

The use of propaganda or tactics to weaken enemy morale

409
Q

What is a peace treaty?

A

A formal agreement that ends a conflict between nations

410
Q

What is homeland security?

A

The protection of a country’s borders and domestic security

411
Q

What is an insurgency?

A

A rebellion or uprising against an established government

412
Q

What is the purpose of military alliances?

A

To strengthen defense capabilities through mutual cooperation

413
Q

What is the Rules of Engagement (ROE)?

A

Guidelines that dictate when and how military force can be used

414
Q

What powers does Article I of the Constitution give Congress?

A

Declare war, raise armies, maintain navy

415
Q

To whom do military officers swear an oath?

A

The United States Constitution

416
Q

What is Congress’s role in military funding?

A

Appropriating funds for defense

417
Q

What role does the president play in the military?

A

Commander in chief, directs military actions

418
Q

What does JROTC stand for?

A

Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps

419
Q

About how many JROTCs programs are there?

A

about 3,000

420
Q

What 3 countries have JROTCs apart from the United States?

A

Spain, Italy, Japan

421
Q

The idea for the JROTC program was created by ___(branch, rank, full name)___ in 1911, and he hoped to teach high school students the values and discipline of a military life, hoping to mold these students into better citizens

A

Army inspector Lt Edgar R Stevens, 1911

422
Q

The formation of the JROTC program came with the signing of which act?

A

National Defense Act of 1916

423
Q

Where and when was the first JROTC program established?

A

Leavenworth High School in Kansas in 1917

424
Q

Which act allowed the other service branches to offer JROTC programs?

A

JROTC Vitalization Act of 1964

425
Q

When did the first NJROTC units begin?

426
Q

About how many NJROTC and NNDCC units are there?

427
Q

When did Congress add a section to the Vitalization Act of 1964 which provided for the establishment of NNDCC programs?

428
Q

Who is in charge of the maintenance and countinyed support of the NJROTC program?

A

Secretary of the Navy

429
Q

Where was the Naval Service Training Command established?

A

Great Lakes, IL

430
Q

Who is in charge of managing funding along with the personnel and materials the NJROTC and NNDCC units use?

431
Q

Who is in charge of the NJROTC’s areas of operation and are responsible for maintaining the integrity of units in their areas?

A

Area Manager

432
Q

Which act stated the JROTC programs mission as being “to instill in students the value of citizenship, service to the United States, personal responsibility, and a sense of accomplishment?”

A

National Defense Act of 1916

433
Q

What are the Navy Core Values?

A

Honor, Courage, Commitment

434
Q

_____ are ones most deeply held ideals, beliefs, or principles

435
Q

What does the acronym LATAR stand for in NJROTC leadership training?

A

Learn, Adopt, Think, Act, Reevaluate

436
Q

What is hazing, and is it allowed in NJROTC?

A

Hazing is any cruel, abusive, or humiliating behavior

437
Q

What is the purpose of military drill in NJROTC?

A

To teach discipline, teamwork, and attention to detail

438
Q

What physical fitness achievement is recognized with a ribbon in NJROTC?

A

Passing the NJROTC physical fitness exam

439
Q

What is the purpose of NJROTC Leadership Academy?

A

To provide advanced training for cadets preparing for leadership roles

440
Q

What are some skills taught at NJROTC Leadership Academy?

A

Commanding troops, field leadership, social etiquette, physical fitness, and sailing

441
Q

What military career benefit does NJROTC provide to cadets?

A

Enlistment at a higher pay grade (E-3 instead of E-1)

442
Q

How can NJROTC help cadets apply for the U S Naval Academy?

A

Through nominations by NJROTC instructors and demonstrating leadership potential

443
Q

What scholarship opportunity does NJROTC help prepare students for?

A

Naval Reserve Officers Training Corps (NROTC) scholarships

444
Q

What is the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)?

A

The legal system governing military personnel

445
Q

What is ‘seamanship’ in NJROTC training?

A

The skill of operating and navigating ships

446
Q

What is ‘maritime geography’?

A

The study of oceans, seas, and their impact on global trade and military strategy

447
Q

What is ‘oceanography’?

A

The scientific study of ocean environments and their physical characteristics

448
Q

What is the purpose of military customs and courtesies in NJROTC?

A

To teach respect, discipline, and professionalism

449
Q

From which branches can NJROTC instructors have retired from?

A

Marine Corps, Navy, Coast Guard

450
Q

What is the difference between a career and a job?

A

A job is for earning money, while a career includes growth, learning, and advancement

451
Q

What is a profession?

A

A career requiring specialized education and training, such as law or medicine

452
Q

What is an occupation?

A

Any activity that serves as a person’s regular source of livelihood

453
Q

What does career advancement usually involve?

A

Working extra hours, taking on challenging assignments, and further education

454
Q

What is an example of a career that doesn’t require a college degree?

A

Skilled trades like electrician, plumber, or mechanic

455
Q

Why is it important to start thinking about career choices early?

A

It helps students focus and plan for future education and job opportunities

456
Q

What are some signs that a person has a mechanical aptitude?

A

Enjoying taking things apart and putting them back together

457
Q

What are some careers suited for people with strong mathematical skills?

A

Accountant, engineer, scientist, financial analyst

458
Q

What does the term “insight” mean in career planning?

A

The ability to understand one’s skills and interests to make better career choices

459
Q

What is an aptitude?

A

Talents or skills you have or can develop

460
Q

How can a part-time job help someone decide on a career?

A

It provides hands-on experience and insights into what they enjoy or dislike

461
Q

What are values, and why are they important in career selection?

A

Values are principles that guide decisions; they help people choose careers that align with their beliefs and goals

462
Q

What is temperament, and how does it affect career choice?

A

A person’s typical way of thinking or behaving, which influences how well they fit into different work environments

463
Q

What is an example of a career requiring a calm temperament?

A

Air traffic controller, emergency room doctor, police officer

464
Q

What are interest inventories?

A

Tests that help people identify careers that align with their interests

465
Q

What is the public sector?

A

Jobs in government organizations, such as law enforcement, education, or military service

466
Q

What is the private sector?

A

Jobs in privately owned businesses and corporations

467
Q

What is an entrepreneur?

A

A person who starts and runs their own business

468
Q

What are some advantages of working in the public sector?

A

Job security, benefits, and opportunities for service

469
Q

What are some advantages of working in the private sector?

A

Potential for higher pay, career growth, and innovation

470
Q

What is the purpose of setting career goals?

A

To create a clear path for education, training, and job selection

471
Q

What are some factors to consider when choosing a career?

A

Interests, aptitudes, job demand, salary potential, and work-life balance

472
Q

What is the significance of career mentorship?

A

Learning from experienced professionals to gain knowledge and guidance

473
Q

What is an example of a career requiring strong leadership skills?

A

Military officer, business executive, project manager

474
Q

What is the U S Naval Academy, and where is it located?

A

A military college for training Navy and Marine Corps officers, located in Annapolis, Maryland

475
Q

What is required to apply to the U S Naval Academy?

A

A nomination from a U S senator, representative, or the vice president

476
Q

How can NJROTC help cadets gain entry into the U S Naval Academy?

A

Through leadership experience and instructor nominations

477
Q

What is the NROTC scholarship program?

A

A program that provides college funding in exchange for military service

478
Q

What is the benefit of enlisting in the military after completing NJROTC?

A

Entering at a higher pay grade (E-3 instead of E-1)

479
Q

What are the five branches of the U S military?

A

Army, Navy, Air Force, Marine Corps, Coast Guard

480
Q

What is a midshipman?

A

A student training to become a Navy officer at the Naval Academy or through NROTC

481
Q

What is the Merchant Marine, and how does it relate to national defense?

A

A fleet of civilian ships that support military operations and transport goods

482
Q

What is the difference between an enlisted service member and an officer?

A

Enlisted members carry out duties, while officers lead and manage operations

483
Q

What is a commission in the military?

A

A formal appointment to the rank of officer

484
Q

What is a common requirement for becoming a military officer?

A

A four-year college degree and officer training

485
Q

What is the purpose of military academies like West Point and the U S Naval Academy?

A

To train future officers in leadership, military strategy, and academics

486
Q

What is the Air Force’s equivalent of the Naval Academy?

A

The United States Air Force Academy (USAFA) in Colorado Springs

487
Q

What is the importance of developing good study habits?

A

It helps with time management, improves learning, and reduces stress

488
Q

What is an example of a good study habit?

A

Taking organized notes and reviewing them regularly

489
Q

What is the benefit of setting a study schedule?

A

It helps manage time effectively and prevents procrastination

490
Q

What is the relationship between discipline and career success?

A

Self-discipline leads to responsibility, efficiency, and better job performance

491
Q

What is “time management,” and why is it important in both school and careers?

A

Organizing tasks effectively to maximize productivity and reduce stress

492
Q

What are some ways to improve time management skills?

A

Setting priorities, using a planner, avoiding distractions

493
Q

Why is networking important for career development?

A

It helps people find job opportunities and build professional relationships

494
Q

What is the role of internships in career development?

A

They provide hands-on experience and exposure to different industries

495
Q

How can NJROTC help cadets prepare for leadership roles?

A

By teaching responsibility, teamwork, and decision-making skills

496
Q

What are the four stages of an active pulse jet?

A

Intake, Compression, Combustion/Power, Exhaust

497
Q

Who are considered government employees?

A

Federal, state, or local government workers

498
Q

What is a career?

A

A progression of one’s working life

499
Q

What is a job?

A

Work done to make a living

500
Q

What does moving up a career ladder typically result in?

A

More authority and more money

501
Q

How do people often advance their careers?

A

Moving between companies or industries

502
Q

Why is it beneficial to have a boss give a good reference?

A

Shows punctuality, reliability, and good customer skills

503
Q

What two questions help in choosing a career?

A

What do I want to do? What am I suited to do?

504
Q

What physical abilities are important for certain careers?

A

Strength, stamina, good eyesight, hand-eye coordination

505
Q

What is the purpose of an attitude inventory?

A

Identify qualities to develop or overcome

506
Q

What is the purpose of an attitude inventory?

A

Identify qualities to develop or overcome

507
Q

What is the impact of leadership skills on career success?

A

Strong leadership leads to better opportunities and career advancement

508
Q

What are the five components of physical fitness?

A

Cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition

509
Q

What is the FIT principle?

A

Frequency, Intensity, and Time of exercise

510
Q

What is aerobic exercise?

A

Exercise that requires oxygen, such as running or swimming

511
Q

What is anaerobic exercise?

A

Short bursts of intense activity without oxygen, like sprinting or weightlifting

512
Q

What are isotonic exercises?

A

Exercises where muscles change length, like push-ups and squats

513
Q

What are isometric exercises?

A

Exercises where muscles contract without movement, like planks

514
Q

What are isokinetic exercises?

A

Exercises performed with specialized machines that control resistance

515
Q

What are some benefits of regular exercise?

A

Improves cardiovascular health, strengthens muscles, boosts mental health, and helps with weight management

516
Q

How often should adults engage in moderate-intensity exercise per week?

A

At least 150 minutes

517
Q

Why is warming up important before exercise?

A

Prepares muscles, reduces injury risk, and increases flexibility

518
Q

What are the three phases of exercise?

A

Warm-up, workout, and cool-down

519
Q

What is the role of proteins in fitness?

A

Help build and repair muscles

520
Q

What is the best time to stretch during a workout?

A

After warming up or at the end of a workout

521
Q

How can someone calculate their target heart rate?

A

(220 - Age) x Desired intensity percentage

522
Q

What are examples of cardiovascular exercises?

A

Running, swimming, cycling, jumping rope

523
Q

What is the difference between strength training and endurance training?

A

Strength training builds muscle power, while endurance training improves stamina

524
Q

Why is rest important in an exercise program?

A

Allows muscle recovery, prevents injuries, and improves performance

525
Q

How does exercise impact mental health?

A

Reduces stress, anxiety, and depression while improving mood

526
Q

What are some signs of overtraining?

A

Fatigue, soreness, insomnia, and decreased performance

527
Q

What is cross-training?

A

Engaging in different types of exercises to improve overall fitness

528
Q

How does exercise benefit heart health?

A

Lowers blood pressure, reduces cholesterol, and strengthens the heart

529
Q

What is a good way to stay motivated in an exercise routine?

A

Setting goals, tracking progress, and working out with a partner

530
Q

What is the role of hydration in exercise?

A

Prevents dehydration, maintains performance, and regulates body temperature

531
Q

What is obesity?

A

A condition of excessive body fat accumulation affecting health

532
Q

What are calisthenics?

A

Bodyweight exercises such as push-ups, squats, and lunges

533
Q

What is cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

The ability of the heart and lungs to supply oxygen to muscles during exercise

534
Q

What is body composition?

A

The ratio of fat to lean muscle, bone, and other tissues in the body

535
Q

What is the purpose of a cool-down?

A

To gradually bring heart rate and muscles back to a resting state

536
Q

How can exercise help with stress management?

A

Releases endorphins, reduces tension, and improves sleep

537
Q

What are flexibility exercises?

A

Stretches that improve range of motion, such as yoga

538
Q

What is interval training?

A

Alternating short bursts of high-intensity exercise with rest or low-intensity periods

539
Q

What is a common mistake when starting a new exercise routine?

A

Doing too much too soon, leading to injury

540
Q

What should you wear when exercising in hot weather?

A

Light-colored, breathable clothing

541
Q

What should you wear when exercising in cold weather?

A

Layers that can be removed as needed

542
Q

Why is good posture important in exercise?

A

Prevents injuries and ensures proper muscle engagement

543
Q

What is a personal fitness plan?

A

A structured exercise routine tailored to individual goals

544
Q

What are some common barriers to exercise?

A

Lack of time, motivation, or access to facilities

545
Q

What is the recommended amount of sleep for optimal fitness recovery?

A

7-9 hours per night

546
Q

What is the purpose of a physical fitness assessment?

A

To evaluate an individual’s current fitness level and track progress

547
Q

What are the five components of physical fitness?

A

Cardiovascular endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, and body composition

548
Q

What is cardiovascular endurance?

A

The ability of the heart, lungs, and blood vessels to deliver oxygen during prolonged physical activity

549
Q

What are two common methods of measuring cardiovascular endurance?

A

The mile run and step test

550
Q

What is muscular strength?

A

The maximum amount of force a muscle can exert in a single effort

551
Q

How is muscular endurance different from muscular strength?

A

Muscular endurance is the ability of a muscle to sustain repeated contractions over time

552
Q

What test is commonly used to measure upper body strength?

A

The push-up test

553
Q

What fitness test evaluates core strength?

A

The sit-up or plank test

554
Q

How is flexibility commonly assessed?

A

Using the sit-and-reach test

555
Q

Why is flexibility important for fitness?

A

It helps prevent injuries and improves mobility

556
Q

What is body composition?

A

The ratio of fat to lean muscle, bones, and other tissues in the body

557
Q

What is BMI, and how is it calculated?

A

Body Mass Index (BMI) is calculated by dividing weight (kg) by height (m²)

558
Q

What is considered a healthy BMI range?

A

18 5 to 24 9

559
Q

What are the limitations of BMI?

A

It does not differentiate between muscle and fat, so it may not accurately reflect body composition

560
Q

What is the purpose of measuring resting heart rate?

A

It indicates overall cardiovascular fitness

561
Q

What is a normal resting heart rate for most adults?

A

60-100 beats per minute

562
Q

What is a target heart rate zone?

A

The ideal heart rate range during exercise for maximum cardiovascular benefits

563
Q

How do you calculate your maximum heart rate?

A

220 minus your age

564
Q

What is the ideal target heart rate percentage during exercise?

A

50-85% of maximum heart rate

565
Q

What is the principle of progressive overload?

A

Gradually increasing exercise intensity to improve fitness levels

566
Q

How often should adults engage in moderate-intensity aerobic exercise?

A

At least 150 minutes per week

567
Q

How often should adults engage in muscle-strengthening activities?

A

At least twice per week

568
Q

What role does hydration play in fitness?

A

It prevents dehydration, supports muscle function, and regulates body temperature

569
Q

What is the importance of recovery days?

A

They allow muscles to repair and prevent overuse injuries

570
Q

What are signs of overtraining?

A

Fatigue, persistent soreness, insomnia, and decreased performance

571
Q

What is a simple way to track physical fitness progress?

A

Keeping a workout log or using a fitness tracker

572
Q

What is the difference between absolute and relative strength?

A

Absolute strength is total force exerted, while relative strength considers body weight

573
Q

How does genetics influence fitness levels?

A

It affects muscle fiber composition, endurance, and strength potential

574
Q

Why is consistency important in a fitness routine?

A

It ensures long-term progress and reduces injury risk

575
Q

How does weight training benefit long-term health?

A

It increases bone density, boosts metabolism, and prevents muscle loss

576
Q

What are the benefits of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

A

It improves cardiovascular endurance and burns calories in a short time

577
Q

What is functional fitness?

A

Exercises that mimic daily movements to improve everyday physical activities

578
Q

How does stress impact fitness levels?

A

It can lead to muscle tension, fatigue, and reduced motivation

579
Q

Why is sleep important for fitness recovery?

A

It aids muscle repair, hormone regulation, and overall recovery

580
Q

What is the difference between static and dynamic stretching?

A

Static involves holding a position, while dynamic includes movement-based stretches

581
Q

What is the relationship between fitness and mental health?

A

Regular exercise reduces stress, anxiety, and depression

582
Q

How can fitness assessments be used for goal setting?

A

They help identify strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement

583
Q

What is the purpose of agility drills?

A

To improve speed, reaction time, and coordination

584
Q

Why is heart rate recovery an important fitness indicator?

A

Faster recovery indicates better cardiovascular fitness

585
Q

What are plyometric exercises?

A

High-impact movements like jump squats that build power and speed

586
Q

How does body fat percentage differ from BMI?

A

Body fat percentage measures actual fat mass, while BMI is based on weight and height

587
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Age-related muscle loss that can be slowed with strength training

588
Q

How can exercise help prevent chronic diseases?

A

It reduces the risk of heart disease, diabetes, and obesity

589
Q

What is the difference between aerobic and anaerobic exercise?

A

Aerobic uses oxygen for energy, while anaerobic relies on stored muscle energy

590
Q

How can you prevent common workout injuries?

A

By warming up, using proper form, and gradually increasing intensity

591
Q

What is nutrition?

A

The process of providing the body with essential nutrients for growth, repair, and energy

592
Q

What are the three macronutrients?

A

Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats

593
Q

What is the main function of carbohydrates?

A

To provide the body with energy

594
Q

What are the two types of carbohydrates?

A

Simple carbohydrates (sugars) and complex carbohydrates (starches and fiber)

595
Q

What is an example of a food high in complex carbohydrates?

A

Whole grains, brown rice, oats, and beans

596
Q

What is the glycemic index?

A

A ranking system for carbohydrates based on how they affect blood sugar levels

597
Q

Why is fiber important in a diet?

A

It promotes digestion, regulates blood sugar, and supports heart health

598
Q

What is the primary function of protein?

A

To build and repair tissues, muscles, and organs

599
Q

What are examples of complete proteins?

A

Meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy

600
Q

What are examples of plant-based protein sources?

A

Beans, lentils, tofu, quinoa, and nuts

601
Q

What are the two types of fats?

A

Saturated and unsaturated fats

602
Q

What is an example of a healthy fat?

A

Avocados, nuts, olive oil, and fatty fish

603
Q

Why should trans fats be avoided?

A

They increase bad cholesterol (LDL) and raise the risk of heart disease

604
Q

What is the function of vitamins in the body?

A

They help with metabolism, immunity, and overall health

605
Q

What is the difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins?

A

Fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) are stored in fat, while water-soluble vitamins (B, C) dissolve in water and must be consumed daily

606
Q

Why is vitamin C important?

A

It boosts the immune system and helps heal wounds

607
Q

What is the primary function of vitamin D?

A

It helps the body absorb calcium and promotes bone health

608
Q

What are examples of mineral nutrients?

A

Calcium, iron, potassium, magnesium, and zinc

609
Q

Why is calcium important?

A

It strengthens bones and teeth

610
Q

What foods are rich in calcium?

A

Dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified cereals

611
Q

What is the role of iron in the body?

A

It helps produce hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood

612
Q

What is anemia?

A

A condition caused by low iron levels, leading to fatigue and weakness

613
Q

What is the recommended daily water intake for adults?

A

About 8-10 glasses (64-80 ounces), but varies by individual

614
Q

What are the signs of dehydration?

A

Dry mouth, dizziness, fatigue, and dark urine

615
Q

What is the role of electrolytes in hydration?

A

They help regulate nerve function, muscle contractions, and fluid balance

616
Q

What are common sources of potassium?

A

Bananas, oranges, potatoes, and spinach

617
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

A condition caused by insufficient or imbalanced nutrient intake

618
Q

What is the difference between undernutrition and overnutrition?

A

Undernutrition is a lack of nutrients, while overnutrition is an excess of unhealthy foods

619
Q

How does excessive sugar intake affect health?

A

It increases the risk of obesity, diabetes, and heart disease

620
Q

What is the function of omega-3 fatty acids?

A

They support brain function and reduce inflammation

621
Q

What foods contain omega-3 fatty acids?

A

Salmon, flaxseeds, walnuts, and chia seeds

622
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of added sugar?

A

No more than 25-36 grams per day

623
Q

What is considered a balanced diet?

A

A diet that includes all food groups in appropriate portions

624
Q

What is the difference between whole and refined grains?

A

Whole grains contain all parts of the grain, while refined grains have been processed, removing fiber and nutrients

625
Q

Why is meal planning important?

A

It helps ensure a balanced diet and prevents unhealthy eating habits

626
Q

What is portion control?

A

Managing the amount of food eaten to prevent overeating

627
Q

What are empty calories?

A

Calories that provide little to no nutritional value, often found in sugary drinks and junk food

628
Q

What are the dangers of skipping meals?

A

It can lead to low energy, poor concentration, and binge eating later

629
Q

What are some strategies for healthy snacking?

A

Choosing whole foods like nuts, fruits, and yogurt instead of processed snacks

630
Q

What is mindful eating?

A

Paying attention to hunger cues and eating slowly to avoid overeating

631
Q

How does fast food impact health?

A

It is often high in calories, unhealthy fats, and sodium, increasing health risks

632
Q

What is the role of probiotics?

A

They support gut health by promoting beneficial bacteria

633
Q

What foods are high in probiotics?

A

Yogurt, kefir, sauerkraut, and kimchi

634
Q

What is a calorie deficit?

A

Consuming fewer calories than the body burns, leading to weight loss

635
Q

What is a calorie surplus?

A

Consuming more calories than the body burns, leading to weight gain

636
Q

What is the best diet for long-term health?

A

A balanced, nutrient-rich diet with a variety of whole foods

637
Q

What are macronutrients?

A

Nutrients required in large amounts: carbohydrates, proteins, and fats

638
Q

What are micronutrients?

A

Vitamins and minerals needed in small amounts for proper body function

639
Q

What is the main function of carbohydrates?

A

To provide energy

640
Q

What are the two types of carbohydrates?

A

Simple (sugars) and complex (starches and fiber)

641
Q

What is the role of protein in the body?

A

Building and repairing tissues, producing enzymes and hormones

642
Q

What are the two types of proteins?

A

Complete (contains all essential amino acids) and incomplete

643
Q

What are examples of complete proteins?

A

Meat, fish, eggs, dairy, quinoa, and soy

644
Q

What is the primary function of fats?

A

Energy storage, insulation, and cell function

645
Q

What are the three types of fats?

A

Saturated, unsaturated, and trans fats

646
Q

What are examples of healthy fats?

A

Avocados, nuts, seeds, olive oil, and fatty fish

647
Q

What are examples of unhealthy fats?

A

Fried foods, processed snacks, and margarine

648
Q

What is the difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins?

A

Fat-soluble (A, D, E, K) are stored in fat; water-soluble (B, C) must be consumed daily

649
Q

Why is vitamin A important?

A

It supports vision, immune function, and skin health

650
Q

What foods are high in vitamin A?

A

Carrots, sweet potatoes, and leafy greens

651
Q

Why is vitamin D essential?

A

It helps the body absorb calcium for strong bones

652
Q

How can the body produce vitamin D?

A

Through sun exposure

653
Q

Why is vitamin E important?

A

It acts as an antioxidant and supports skin and immune health

654
Q

What foods contain vitamin E?

A

Nuts, seeds, and spinach

655
Q

What is the function of vitamin K?

A

It helps with blood clotting

656
Q

What is the role of B vitamins?

A

They support energy production and brain function

657
Q

What foods are high in B vitamins?

A

Whole grains, eggs, and leafy greens

658
Q

Why is vitamin C important?

A

It supports immune function and helps with collagen production

659
Q

What are good sources of vitamin C?

A

Citrus fruits, strawberries, and bell peppers

660
Q

What is calcium’s primary function?

A

Bone and teeth development

661
Q

What are calcium-rich foods?

A

Dairy products, broccoli, and almonds

662
Q

What is the role of iron in the body?

A

It helps produce red blood cells

663
Q

What foods are high in iron?

A

Red meat, spinach, and lentils

664
Q

What is the role of potassium?

A

It regulates fluid balance and muscle contractions

665
Q

What foods are rich in potassium?

A

Bananas, potatoes, and beans

666
Q

Why is magnesium important?

A

It supports muscle and nerve function

667
Q

What are sources of magnesium?

A

Nuts, whole grains, and dark chocolate

668
Q

What is the role of zinc in the body?

A

It supports immune function and wound healing

669
Q

What foods are high in zinc?

A

Meat, shellfish, and seeds

670
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of water?

A

8-10 glasses (64-80 ounces) per day

671
Q

What is dehydration?

A

A condition caused by excessive loss of fluids

672
Q

What are symptoms of dehydration?

A

Dry mouth, dizziness, and dark urine

673
Q

Why are electrolytes important?

A

They help maintain fluid balance and nerve function

674
Q

What foods contain natural electrolytes?

A

Coconut water, bananas, and spinach

675
Q

What is malnutrition?

A

A lack of essential nutrients leading to health issues

676
Q

What is the best way to ensure proper nutrition?

A

Eating a balanced diet with a variety of whole foods

677
Q

What is the effect of too much sodium in the diet?

A

It can lead to high blood pressure

678
Q

What is the importance of fiber?

A

It aids digestion and helps regulate blood sugar

679
Q

What are good sources of fiber?

A

Fruits, vegetables, and whole grains

680
Q

What is the best approach to weight management?

A

A combination of healthy eating and regular exercise

681
Q

Why should processed foods be avoided?

A

They often contain high levels of sugar, salt, and unhealthy fats

682
Q

What is the purpose of dietary guidelines?

A

To promote healthy eating habits and reduce the risk of disease

683
Q

What organization provides dietary guidelines in the U S ?

A

The U S Department of Agriculture (USDA) and the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

684
Q

How often are dietary guidelines updated?

A

Every five years

685
Q

What is MyPlate?

A

A nutrition guide created by the USDA to promote balanced eating

686
Q

What are the five food groups in MyPlate?

A

Fruits, vegetables, grains, protein, and dairy

687
Q

What percentage of your plate should be fruits and vegetables?

A

Half of the plate

688
Q

What are whole grains?

A

Grains that contain all parts of the grain kernel, including bran, germ, and endosperm

689
Q

Why are whole grains better than refined grains?

A

They contain more fiber, vitamins, and minerals

690
Q

What is an example of a whole grain?

A

Brown rice, quinoa, and whole wheat bread

691
Q

How much dairy should the average person consume daily?

A

About 3 cups per day

692
Q

What are some non-dairy sources of calcium?

A

Leafy greens, fortified plant-based milk, and almonds

693
Q

What is the difference between lean and fatty proteins?

A

Lean proteins have less fat, while fatty proteins contain more saturated fats

694
Q

What is an example of a lean protein?

A

Chicken breast, fish, tofu, and beans

695
Q

Why should saturated fats be limited?

A

They can increase bad cholesterol (LDL) and raise the risk of heart disease

696
Q

What are trans fats, and why should they be avoided?

A

Artificially created fats that increase heart disease risk

697
Q

What is the recommended daily limit for added sugars?

A

No more than 10% of daily calories

698
Q

What is the daily recommended sodium intake?

A

Less than 2,300 mg

699
Q

What are the dangers of consuming too much sodium?

A

High blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke

700
Q

How can meal planning support a healthy diet?

A

It helps ensure balanced nutrition and prevents unhealthy food choices

701
Q

What is portion control?

A

Managing how much food is eaten in one sitting

702
Q

What are empty calories?

A

Calories from foods with little to no nutritional value

703
Q

What are examples of foods with empty calories?

A

Sugary drinks, candy, and fried foods

704
Q

Why is drinking water important for digestion?

A

It helps break down food and absorb nutrients

705
Q

What is mindful eating?

A

Paying attention to what you eat and listening to hunger cues

706
Q

What are some strategies to reduce sugar intake?

A

Avoiding sugary drinks, reading food labels, and eating whole foods

707
Q

Why is fiber important in the diet?

A

It helps digestion, regulates blood sugar, and lowers cholesterol

708
Q

What is an example of a high-fiber food?

A

Oatmeal, lentils, and berries

709
Q

How does protein help with muscle recovery?

A

It repairs and rebuilds muscle tissue after exercise

710
Q

What is a common food allergy?

A

Nuts, dairy, shellfish, and gluten

711
Q

What is lactose intolerance?

A

The inability to digest lactose, a sugar found in milk

712
Q

What is a foodborne illness?

A

An illness caused by consuming contaminated food

713
Q

How can foodborne illnesses be prevented?

A

Proper food handling, cooking, and storage

714
Q

Why is it important to wash fruits and vegetables before eating them?

A

To remove pesticides, bacteria, and dirt

715
Q

What is the recommended way to thaw frozen food safely?

A

In the refrigerator, in cold water, or in the microwave

716
Q

Why does the body need fat?

A

It provides energy, supports cell growth, and helps absorb vitamins

717
Q

What are the three types of fats?

A

Saturated fats, unsaturated fats, and trans fats

718
Q

Which type of fat is the healthiest?

A

Unsaturated fats

719
Q

What are examples of foods high in unsaturated fats?

A

Avocados, nuts, olive oil, and fatty fish

720
Q

What are examples of foods high in saturated fats?

A

Butter, cheese, red meat, and fried foods

721
Q

Why should saturated fats be consumed in moderation?

A

They can raise LDL (bad) cholesterol and increase heart disease risk

722
Q

What are trans fats?

A

Artificial fats created through hydrogenation, commonly found in processed foods

723
Q

Why are trans fats harmful?

A

They increase LDL cholesterol and lower HDL (good) cholesterol

724
Q

What are common sources of trans fats?

A

Fried foods, baked goods, margarine, and processed snacks

725
Q

How can you identify trans fats on food labels?

A

Look for “partially hydrogenated oils” in the ingredients list

726
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of fat?

A

About 20-35% of total daily calories

727
Q

What happens if you consume too much fat?

A

It can lead to weight gain, heart disease, and high cholesterol

728
Q

How does the body store excess fat?

A

It is stored in fat cells as an energy reserve

729
Q

What is the role of omega-3 fatty acids?

A

They reduce inflammation and support brain and heart health

730
Q

What are sources of omega-3 fatty acids?

A

Salmon, flaxseeds, walnuts, and chia seeds

731
Q

What is cholesterol?

A

A fatty substance found in blood that is necessary for cell function but can be harmful in excess

732
Q

What are the two types of cholesterol?

A

LDL (bad) cholesterol and HDL (good) cholesterol

733
Q

How does exercise affect cholesterol levels?

A

It helps raise HDL (good) cholesterol and lower LDL (bad) cholesterol

734
Q

What is a healthy cholesterol level?

A

Total cholesterol below 200 mg/dL

735
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

A type of fat found in the blood, stored for energy

736
Q

What can cause high triglyceride levels?

A

Excess sugar intake, lack of exercise, and too much alcohol

737
Q

What are the risks of high-fat diets?

A

Obesity, heart disease, high cholesterol, and stroke

738
Q

How can you reduce fat intake?

A

Choosing lean meats, grilling instead of frying, and using healthy oils

739
Q

What is a fat substitute?

A

A product used in place of fat to reduce calorie content in food

740
Q

What are some natural fat substitutes?

A

Applesauce, mashed bananas, and Greek yogurt

741
Q

How can fiber help control fat intake?

A

It helps remove cholesterol from the body and promotes fullness

742
Q

What role does metabolism play in fat management?

A

A higher metabolism burns more calories and prevents excess fat storage

743
Q

Why is portion control important in fat consumption?

A

It prevents overeating and excessive calorie intake

744
Q

How can stress affect fat metabolism?

A

It can lead to overeating and increased fat storage

745
Q

What is the best way to maintain a healthy fat balance?

A

Eating a variety of whole foods and exercising regularly

746
Q

hy is personal hygiene important?

A

It prevents illness, promotes self-confidence, and maintains overall health

747
Q

How often should you wash your hands?

A

Before eating, after using the restroom, and whenever they are dirty

748
Q

What is the proper way to wash hands?

A

Scrubbing with soap and water for at least 20 seconds

749
Q

How often should you shower?

A

At least once a day or after sweating heavily

750
Q

Why is it important to brush your teeth daily?

A

To prevent cavities, gum disease, and bad breath

751
Q

How often should you replace your toothbrush?

A

Every 3-4 months or when the bristles are worn

752
Q

Why is flossing important?

A

It removes plaque and food particles between teeth that brushing misses

753
Q

What is the importance of regular dental checkups?

A

They help prevent cavities and detect oral health issues early

754
Q

How can sleep affect overall health?

A

Poor sleep can lead to weight gain, weakened immunity, and reduced concentration

755
Q

What are signs of sleep deprivation?

A

Irritability, trouble focusing, and increased risk of illness

756
Q

What is the recommended amount of sleep for teenagers?

A

8-10 hours per night

757
Q

What are good bedtime habits to improve sleep quality?

A

Avoiding screens before bed, maintaining a consistent sleep schedule, and creating a relaxing bedtime routine

758
Q

How does drinking enough water benefit the body?

A

It helps digestion, improves skin health, and regulates body temperature

759
Q

What are symptoms of dehydration?

A

Dry skin, dizziness, dark urine, and fatigue

760
Q

What is the best way to stay hydrated?

A

Drinking water regularly throughout the day, especially before feeling thirsty

761
Q

Why is physical activity important for self-care?

A

It reduces stress, strengthens the body, and improves mood

762
Q

How does stress affect the immune system?

A

Chronic stress weakens the immune response, making the body more prone to illness

763
Q

What is the best way to manage stress?

A

Regular exercise, meditation, deep breathing, and getting enough sleep

764
Q

Why is posture important for overall health?

A

Good posture prevents back pain and improves breathing

765
Q

How does excessive screen time impact health?

A

It can cause eye strain, poor sleep, and decreased physical activity

766
Q

What is the 20-20-20 rule for reducing eye strain?

A

Every 20 minutes, look at something 20 feet away for 20 seconds

767
Q

What are common causes of poor posture?

A

Slouching, prolonged sitting, and weak core muscles

768
Q

How can stretching improve posture?

A

It relieves tension and strengthens muscles that support good posture

769
Q

Why is sun protection important?

A

It prevents sunburn, skin cancer, and premature aging

770
Q

What is the minimum recommended SPF for sunscreen?

771
Q

What are the benefits of regular physical exams?

A

They help detect health problems early and promote overall wellness

772
Q

How often should you visit a doctor for a checkup?

A

At least once a year

773
Q

What is the importance of mental health check-ins?

A

They help identify stress, anxiety, or depression early

774
Q

How can journaling improve mental health?

A

It helps express emotions, reduce stress, and track personal growth

775
Q

What is mindfulness?

A

Focusing on the present moment without judgment

776
Q

How can social interactions improve well-being?

A

Positive relationships provide emotional support and reduce stress

777
Q

What are signs of poor mental health?

A

Persistent sadness, irritability, loss of interest in activities, and fatigue

778
Q

What is self-care?

A

Activities that promote physical, mental, and emotional well-being

779
Q

What are examples of self-care activities?

A

Reading, exercising, meditating, and spending time with loved ones

780
Q

What is stress?

A

The body’s response to physical or emotional demands

781
Q

What is the difference between eustress and distress?

A

Eustress is positive stress that motivates, while distress is negative stress that harms health

782
Q

What are common causes of stress?

A

Work, school, relationships, financial concerns, and health issues

783
Q

What are physical symptoms of stress?

A

Headaches, muscle tension, fatigue, and upset stomach

784
Q

What are emotional symptoms of stress?

A

Anxiety, irritability, mood swings, and depression

785
Q

What is the fight-or-flight response?

A

The body’s natural reaction to danger, increasing heart rate and adrenaline

786
Q

What are long-term effects of chronic stress?

A

High blood pressure, heart disease, obesity, and weakened immune function

787
Q

What is the role of cortisol in stress?

A

It is a hormone that regulates stress responses but can be harmful if chronically elevated

788
Q

How does stress affect sleep?

A

It can cause insomnia or restless sleep

789
Q

What are relaxation techniques for stress relief?

A

Deep breathing, meditation, yoga, and progressive muscle relaxation

790
Q

What is the best way to manage time to reduce stress?

A

Prioritizing tasks, setting realistic goals, and avoiding procrastination

791
Q

How does exercise help reduce stress?

A

It releases endorphins, which improve mood and reduce tension

792
Q

What is deep breathing, and how does it reduce stress?

A

A technique to calm the nervous system and lower heart rate

793
Q

What is mindfulness, and how can it help with stress?

A

Being present in the moment and focusing on one’s thoughts and feelings without judgment

794
Q

What is guided imagery?

A

A relaxation technique using mental visualization to reduce stress

795
Q

How does listening to music help relieve stress?

A

It can lower heart rate, reduce anxiety, and improve mood

796
Q

Why is social support important in stress management?

A

Talking to friends or family can provide comfort and perspective

797
Q

What is journaling, and how does it help with stress?

A

Writing down thoughts and feelings to process emotions and reduce stress

798
Q

What are signs of burnout?

A

Extreme fatigue, lack of motivation, irritability, and poor concentration

799
Q

How can taking breaks improve stress levels?

A

It allows the mind and body to reset and refocus

800
Q

What is substance abuse?

A

The misuse of legal or illegal drugs

801
Q

What is drug addiction?

A

A chronic disease characterized by compulsive drug use despite harmful consequences

802
Q

What is nicotine?

A

A highly addictive stimulant found in tobacco products

803
Q

What are the short-term effects of nicotine use?

A

Increased heart rate, dizziness, and increased blood pressure

804
Q

What are the long-term effects of smoking?

A

Lung cancer, heart disease, and respiratory illnesses

805
Q

What are the dangers of secondhand smoke?

A

It increases the risk of lung disease and heart disease in non-smokers

806
Q

What is vaping, and is it safer than smoking?

A

The use of electronic cigarettes; it still carries health risks

807
Q

What are the effects of alcohol on the body?

A

Impaired judgment, slower reflexes, and liver damage

808
Q

What is binge drinking?

A

Consuming large amounts of alcohol in a short period

809
Q

What is the legal drinking age in the U S ?

A

21 years old

810
Q

What are withdrawal symptoms from drug addiction?

A

Anxiety, nausea, sweating, shaking, and mood swings

811
Q

What is the most commonly abused prescription drug?

A

Opioids (painkillers)

812
Q

How do illegal drugs affect the brain?

A

They alter brain chemistry and can lead to addiction

813
Q

What are examples of stimulants?

A

Cocaine, methamphetamine, and caffeine

814
Q

What is the main effect of depressants on the body?

A

They slow down brain activity, causing relaxation or drowsiness

815
Q

What are hallucinogens?

A

Drugs that alter perception, such as LSD and magic mushrooms

816
Q

What are the long-term effects of marijuana use?

A

Memory loss, lung problems, and mental health issues

817
Q

What are signs of drug addiction?

A

Loss of control, withdrawal symptoms, and neglect of responsibilities

818
Q

What is first aid?

A

Immediate care given to an injured or ill person before medical help arrives

819
Q

What are the ABCs of first aid?

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

820
Q

What is the purpose of first aid?

A

To preserve life, prevent the condition from worsening, and promote recovery

821
Q

What is the first thing you should do in an emergency?

A

Check the scene for safety before assisting the injured person

822
Q

How do you determine if a person is conscious?

A

Tap them and ask loudly, “Are you okay?”

823
Q

What should you do if someone is unresponsive but breathing?

A

Place them in the recovery position to keep the airway open

824
Q

What should you do if someone is not breathing?

A

Begin CPR immediately

825
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

826
Q

How many chest compressions should be given in CPR?

A

30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths

827
Q

What is the correct depth for chest compressions in adults?

A

About 2 inches

828
Q

What is the Heimlich maneuver used for?

A

To help a choking person by clearing a blocked airway

829
Q

What are signs that someone is choking?

A

Inability to speak, coughing, and clutching their throat

830
Q

What is the best way to stop heavy bleeding?

A

Apply direct pressure with a clean cloth

831
Q

What are the signs of shock?

A

Pale skin, weak pulse, rapid breathing, and confusion

832
Q

How do you treat someone in shock?

A

Lay them down, elevate their legs, and keep them warm

833
Q

What are the signs of a heart attack?

A

Chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea

834
Q

What should you do if someone is having a heart attack?

A

Call 911, keep them calm, and encourage them to chew aspirin if not allergic

835
Q

What are the symptoms of a stroke?

A

Face drooping, arm weakness, and slurred speech (FAST method)

836
Q

What does FAST stand for in stroke recognition?

A

Face, Arms, Speech, Time (call 911 immediately)

837
Q

How do you treat a minor burn?

A

Run cool water over it and apply a clean dressing

838
Q

How do you treat a severe burn?

A

Cover it with a sterile dressing and seek medical attention immediately

839
Q

What are signs of a concussion?

A

Confusion, dizziness, nausea, and headache

840
Q

What should you do if someone has a concussion?

A

Keep them awake and monitor for worsening symptoms

841
Q

What are the signs of a broken bone?

A

Pain, swelling, bruising, and abnormal limb positioning

842
Q

What should you do if you suspect a broken bone?

A

Immobilize the area and seek medical help

843
Q

What is a sprain?

A

A stretched or torn ligament

844
Q

How do you treat a sprain?

A

Use the RICE method: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

845
Q

What should you do if someone has a nosebleed?

A

Have them lean forward and pinch their nostrils for 10 minutes

846
Q

How do you treat heat exhaustion?

A

Move to a cool place, give water, and remove excess clothing

847
Q

What are the signs of heatstroke?

A

Hot, dry skin, confusion, and loss of consciousness

848
Q

What is hypothermia?

A

A dangerously low body temperature due to prolonged exposure to cold

849
Q

How do you treat hypothermia?

A

Remove wet clothing, wrap in blankets, and provide warm fluids

850
Q

What should you do if someone has frostbite?

A

Warm the area slowly with lukewarm water, but do not rub it

851
Q

How do you remove a splinter safely?

A

Use tweezers to pull it out, then clean the area

852
Q

How do you treat an insect sting?

A

Remove the stinger, wash the area, and apply ice

853
Q

What are the symptoms of an allergic reaction?

A

Swelling, hives, difficulty breathing, and dizziness

854
Q

What should you do if someone has a severe allergic reaction?

A

Use an EpiPen if available and call 911

855
Q

What is the best way to treat a blister?

A

Keep it clean and avoid popping it

856
Q

How do you treat a cut or scrape?

A

Wash it with soap and water, apply antibiotic ointment, and cover with a bandage

857
Q

What is the first step in treating an eye injury?

A

Flush the eye with clean water

858
Q

What should you do if someone faints?

A

Lay them down and elevate their legs

859
Q

How can you tell if someone has swallowed poison?

A

Look for symptoms like vomiting, confusion, or difficulty breathing

860
Q

What should you do if someone ingests poison?

A

Call Poison Control and follow their instructions

861
Q

How do you identify a venomous snake bite?

A

Two puncture marks, swelling, and pain at the bite site

862
Q

What should you do for a snake bite?

A

Keep the person still and seek medical help immediately

863
Q

What is the best way to prepare for an emergency?

A

Learn basic first aid, keep a first aid kit, and know emergency numbers