NAV Flashcards

1
Q

What is a barometer used to measure?

A

Atmospheric Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an altimeter used to measure?

A

Altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A Dyne is equal to 00001 Newtons, and a Hectopascal is equal to how many Dynes?

A

1000 per square cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pressure is?

A

Force per unit area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pressure and Altitude are inversely proportional at least in the troposphere, what does this mean?

A

As altitude increases, pressure decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pressure and density are proportional, what does this mean?

A

As pressure decreases, density decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a wet bulb thermometer and how does it work?

A

It is a thermometer wrapped in wet cloth. The evaporation of water has a cooling effect on the thermometer, and when all of the water is evaporated, the atmospheric saturation, or relative humidity can be calculated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is ISA standard atmospheric pressure at MSL?

A

1013.25hPa or 29.2 inches of mercury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ISA temperature at MSL?

A

15 degrees celcius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the ELR outlined in the ISA?

A

-1.98 degrees celcius per 1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define height?

A

Vertical distance of a point measured from a specific datum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define altitude?

A

Vertical distance of a point measured from MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define elevation?

A

Vertical distance of a point or level on the surfrace of the Earth measured from MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is QFE?

A

Query Field Elevation. Atmospheric pressure corrected to a specific elevation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is aerodrome elevation?

A

The elevation of the highest point of the landing area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is QNH?

A

Query Nautical Height. Atmospheric Pressure Corrected to MSL, assuming ISA conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define level?

A

Generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and meaning variously: height, altitude, or flight level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define flight level?

A

A surface of constant atmospheric pressure, which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.25hPa, and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals (ICAO 4444)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FL intervals can vary below FL200. How so?

A

500ft intervals allowed below FL200, 1000ft intervals only above FL200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define QDR?

A

Magnetic bearing of the aircraft to the airfield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define QDM?

A

Magnetic track from the aircraft to the airfield. Reciprocal of QDR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define QTE?

A

True bearing of aircraft from the DF station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define QUJ?

A

True track required to reach the DF station.

24
Q

What is a precision approach aid?

A

An approach aid providing elevation information.

25
Q

What 2 beams does an ILS emit?

A

Localiser (Azimuth), and Glidepath (Elevation)

26
Q

What is the usual descent angle of a glidepath?

A

3 degrees

27
Q

Glidepath coverage in the vertical plane typically extends?

A

From 0.45 to 1.75 times the glidepath angle.

28
Q

From what direction should an a/c attempt to intercept the glidepath?

A

From underneath or from the side.

29
Q

What is ILS Cat I?

A

RVR 550m

Decision Height 200ft

30
Q

What is ILS Cat II

A

RVR 250m

Decision Height 100ft

31
Q

What is ILS Cat IIIa

A

RVR 200m

decision Height 0ft

32
Q

What is ILS Cat IIIb

A

RVR 50m

Decision Height 0ft

33
Q

What is ILS Cat IIIc

A

RVR 0m

Decision Height 0ft

34
Q

How many ILS categories are there?

A

5

35
Q

In reality, which ILS Category is never used?

A

Cat IIIc

36
Q

Name some limitations of ILS?

A

Inflexible, expensive, beam must always be protected, aircraft must be fully out of the way before next plane can approach to land.

37
Q

What frequency band do the Localiser and Glidepath work on?

A

Localiser VHF

Glidepath UHF

38
Q

What will happen as an a/c passes through the ILS outer, middle, and inner markers?

A

Lights and sounds in the cockpit will inform the pilot once passing each of these phases.

39
Q

An instrument approach contains 5 phases. Name them?

A

Initial Approach Fix (IAF), Intermediate Approach Fix (IF, Final Approach Fix (FAF), Final Approach Point (FAP), Missed Approach Point (MAPt)

40
Q

What is the missed approach point?

A

The point at or before a missed approach procedure must be implemented to ensure minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.

41
Q

What is a minimum descent height/altitude?

A

in a non-precision approach below which a descent may not be made without the required visual reference.

42
Q

Waypoints are usually how many letter designators that should spell a pronounceable word?

A

5

43
Q

INS means?

A

Intertial Navigation systems. An en-route navigation aid. Comprises also of programmed waypoints but accuracy decays so must be updated regularly otherwise GIGO - Garbage In Garbage Out.

44
Q

FMS Means?

A

Flight Management System. Varies in complexity with newer models almost completely guiding the plane from take-off to landing.

45
Q

The FMS gathers data from?

A

Multiple sources, including INS and NAVAIDS to ensure the aircraft is performing as desired. It feeds the autopilot.

46
Q

FDI means?

A

Flight Director Interface. Pilot can update changes to the preprogrammed flight here.

47
Q

GPS means?

A

Global Positioning System. Precision 3D satellite navigation aid. operates on 2 L band frequencies: 1557.42 MHz and 1227.6 MHz

48
Q

Limitations of GPS?

A

Availability of satellites, signal degredation, military control

49
Q

What is a VOR?

A

Very High Frequency Omni-Directional Range. An en-route and terminal instrument approach aid. Orientated to magnetic north and emits 360 radials to plus or minus 1 degree accuracy. The receiver compared the phase difference between the 2 signals and determines the a/c bearing from the station.

50
Q

What is a CDI?

A

Course Deviation Indicator. Part of a VOR instrument that shows a/c alignment with desired VOR radial.

51
Q

DME is often collocated with?

A

VOR

52
Q

DME suffers from a type of error know as?

A

Slant error. Less prevalent at lower altitudes where the diagonal distance doesn’t necessarily align with horizontal distance from the station.

53
Q

NDB is a?

A

Non Directional Beacon. A basic en-route and approach aid that emits a radio signal equally in all directions which a pilot navigates towards.

54
Q

You may see multiple NDB’s in mountainous regions. Why?

A

They operate in a line of sight manner so multiple are needed to navigate mountainous areas where their signal may be blocked.

55
Q

NDB’s can suffer from many types of interference. Name them?

A

Station interference, night effect, coastal refraction, mountain effect, quadrantal error

56
Q

Coastal refraction does not occur when?

A

When a/c is crossing the coastline at 90 degrees.

57
Q

Quadrantal error occurs when?

A

When the signal does not align with the nose/wings/tail but enters the spaces in between them.