Nausea and vomiting Flashcards

1
Q

What are the most common causes of nausea and vomiting?

A

GI disorders

Other causes include hyperemesis gravidarum, intracranial lesions and infections, myocardial infarction, diabetic ketoacidosis, and drug toxicities.

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2
Q

What syndrome has seen an increased prevalence due to heightened access to marijuana?

A

Cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome (CHS)

A study noted a near doubling of presentations for cyclical vomiting associated with marijuana use after legalization in one state.

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3
Q

What are the three phases of vomiting?

A

Nausea, retching, vomiting

Nausea may occur without retching or vomiting, and retching may occur without vomiting.

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4
Q

What physiological changes occur during the nausea phase?

A

Increased tone in duodenum and jejunum, decreased gastric tone

This leads to reflux of intestinal contents into the stomach, often with hypersalivation and tachycardia.

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5
Q

What is the definition of retching?

A

Rhythmic contraction of muscles against a closed glottis without expulsion of gastric contents.

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6
Q

What is the role of the vomiting center located in the medulla?

A

Coordinates the act of vomiting

Contains muscarinic receptors that trigger the vomiting reflex.

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7
Q

What types of stimuli activate the vomiting center?

A
  • Visceral afferent impulses from the GI tract
  • Visceral afferent impulses from outside the GI tract
  • Extramedullary CNS afferents
  • Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) impulses
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8
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter associated with the CTZ in the context of vomiting?

A

Dopamine D2 and serotonin

The CTZ is rich in these receptors, influencing the vomiting response.

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9
Q

What is a key difference between vomiting and rumination?

A

Vomiting is forceful expulsion; rumination is non-forceful dribbling of stomach contents.

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10
Q

What is the main diagnostic consideration for acute vomiting?

A

Acute conditions lasting less than 1 week.

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11
Q

What characterizes chronic vomiting?

A

Occurs longer than 1 month, often associated with motility disorders or systemic treatments.

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12
Q

What is the pathognomonic sign for gastric outlet obstruction?

A

Vomiting of material eaten more than 12 hours previously.

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13
Q

What findings may suggest elevated intracranial pressure?

A

Symptoms occurring primarily in the morning.

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14
Q

What is cyclical vomiting syndrome (CVS)?

A

Discrete episodes of vomiting with intervening asymptomatic periods.

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15
Q

What is the significance of the patient’s social history in vomiting cases?

A

It may reveal substance use, which can be a contributing factor.

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16
Q

What diagnostic imaging is preferred for posterior fossa pathologies?

A

MRI.

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17
Q

What should be performed in all women of childbearing capacity with nausea or vomiting?

A

Urine or serum pregnancy test.

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18
Q

What is the recommended follow-up for patients with unclear diagnoses but controllable symptoms?

A

Follow-up arranged within 24 to 48 hours.

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19
Q

What type of patients do not generally require diagnostic testing in the ED for vomiting?

A

Patients with cyclical or recurrent vomiting syndromes.

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20
Q

What is the role of serum drug levels in the assessment of nausea and vomiting?

A

To determine the cause in patients on specific medications.

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21
Q

What is Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP)?

A

Acute vomiting that may occur in the morning or throughout the day, typically starting in weeks 4–7, peaking in weeks 10–16, and disappearing by week 20.

NVP affects 75% of all pregnancies and is associated with a decreased risk of miscarriage, fetal growth retardation, and fetal mortality.

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22
Q

What are the common signs of Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP)?

A

Associated breast tenderness and benign abdomen.

Vomiting that begins after week 12 or continues past week 20 should prompt a search for another cause.

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23
Q

What tests are useful for diagnosing Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP)?

A

Urine pregnancy test, serum electrolytes, urine ketones.

These tests help to exclude hyperemesis gravidarum.

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24
Q

What characterizes Hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Severe, protracted form of NVP with 5% weight loss, ketonuria, and electrolyte disturbance.

Affects 0.3%–3% of pregnancies and is associated with multiple gestation and molar pregnancy.

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25
Q

What are the common signs of Hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Signs of dehydration and benign abdomen.

Studies on fetal outcomes are conflicting, though there may be an association with low fetal birth weight and maternal weight loss.

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26
Q

What tests are useful for diagnosing Hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

β-hCG, urinalysis for ketones, serum electrolytes, ultrasound examination.

Ultrasound helps exclude molar pregnancy or multiple gestations.

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27
Q

What are common symptoms of Gastroenteritis?

A

Fever, diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain, with vomiting occurring early.

Diarrhea usually follows vomiting within 24 hours.

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28
Q

What is a key diagnostic consideration for Gastroenteritis?

A

Early gastroenteritis may be confused with early appendicitis.

Diarrhea is usually key in diagnosing gastroenteritis.

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29
Q

What are common symptoms of Gastritis?

A

Epigastric pain, belching, bloating, fullness, heartburn, food intolerance.

Use of NSAIDs or alcohol is common among patients.

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30
Q

What tests may be necessary for Gastritis?

A

Lipase, LFTs, and pregnancy test.

These tests help exclude other diagnoses.

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31
Q

What is a major cause of Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

NSAIDs, Helicobacter pylori infection, and hypersecretory states.

Epigastric pain is present in 90% of cases.

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32
Q

What are common symptoms of Biliary disease?

A

Abdominal pain may be midepigastric or RUQ, often after a fatty meal.

History of similar episodes may be present.

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33
Q

What tests are useful for diagnosing Biliary disease?

A

WBCs, Lipase, serum bilirubin, LFTs, RUQ ultrasound examination.

Normal findings suggest biliary colic; fever and Murphy sign suggest cholecystitis.

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34
Q

What are common symptoms of Myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

Patients typically have substernal chest pain, which may be accompanied by vomiting.

Not all patients with MI have chest pain, especially women and diabetics.

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35
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for Myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

ECG and troponin tests.

ECG may show new Q waves, ST segment changes, or T wave inversions.

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36
Q

True or False: Hyperemesis gravidarum is a benign condition with no serious implications.

A

False.

It is a severe form of NVP and can lead to significant complications.

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37
Q

Fill in the blank: The prognosis for mother and infant in cases of Nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP) is _______.

A

excellent.

NVP is common and usually resolves without complications.

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38
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

A metabolic condition characterized by hyperglycemia and ketone production, often leading to altered mental status and coma.

Commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes.

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39
Q

What are early symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

Polydipsia and polyuria

These symptoms occur early and indicate high blood glucose levels.

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40
Q

What physical examination findings are common in DKA?

A

Fruity breath odor, tachypnea, signs of dehydration

Fruity breath results from serum acetone.

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41
Q

What laboratory tests are useful in diagnosing DKA?

A

Serum glucose, electrolytes, serum beta-hydroxybutyrate, VBG

A fingerstick glucose test is critical in cases of protracted vomiting.

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42
Q

What is the primary presenting symptom of pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain that often radiates to the back

Most cases are caused by gallstones or alcoholism.

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43
Q

What are common physical examination findings in pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric tenderness, abdominal distention, decreased bowel sounds

Severe cases may present with frank shock.

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44
Q

What laboratory tests are important for pancreatitis?

A

Lipase, WBC, serum glucose, LDH, AST, hematocrit, BUN, calcium, VBG

Early intravenous hydration is crucial for severe vomiting cases.

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45
Q

What is the classic presentation of appendicitis?

A

Abdominal pain starting in the periumbilical region and moving to the right lower quadrant

Anorexia is also a common symptom.

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46
Q

What physical examination findings are associated with appendicitis?

A

Localized tenderness in the right lower quadrant, low-grade fever

Diagnosis can be challenging in early appendicitis.

47
Q

What diagnostic tests are useful for appendicitis?

A

WBC count, ultrasound, abdominal CT

Imaging helps confirm the diagnosis.

48
Q

What symptoms are associated with bowel obstruction?

A

Abdominal pain, vomiting, obstipation, constipation

Surgical history is often present in patients.

49
Q

What physical examination findings may indicate bowel obstruction?

A

Abdominal distention, mild diffuse tenderness, high-pitched ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds

A thorough search for hernias is critical.

50
Q

What laboratory tests are important in diagnosing bowel obstruction?

A

Electrolytes, lactate, POCUS, abdominal CT

Adhesions, hernias, and tumors account for 90% of cases.

51
Q

What is a common cause of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning?

A

Exposure during winter months when furnaces are turned on

Family members or pets may show similar symptoms.

52
Q

What are common symptoms of CO poisoning?

A

Headache, no reliable early signs

CO is a tasteless, odorless gas, making detection difficult.

53
Q

What laboratory test is used to confirm CO poisoning?

A

CO level

Measurement helps confirm exposure.

54
Q

What is Boerhaave syndrome?

A

A condition resulting from a tear in the esophagus, often due to forceful vomiting

It can follow heavy eating, drinking, or other strenuous activities.

55
Q

What are common symptoms of Boerhaave syndrome?

A

Neck, chest, or epigastric pain, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypotension

Classic presentation includes severe chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema.

56
Q

What diagnostic tests are definitive for Boerhaave syndrome?

A

CXR showing mediastinal air, CT, esophagogram with water-soluble contrast

Diagnosis can be difficult in subtle presentations.

57
Q

What characterizes cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome?

A

Cyclic severe retching and vomiting in the context of daily marijuana use

Symptoms are often relieved by hot showers.

58
Q

What are common findings in patients with cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome?

A

Severe distress from vomiting, dehydration, occasional epigastric tenderness

Inquiry about marijuana use is essential in recurrent vomiting cases.

59
Q

Fill in the blank: A common cause of bowel obstruction includes _______.

A

Adhesions, hernias, tumors

60
Q

Vomting process flowchart

61
Q

Pathophysiology of nausea and vomiting

62
Q

Causes of nausea and vomiting

63
Q

Ddx of nausea and vomting

64
Q

Ddx based of vomitus

65
Q

Physical examination of the patient with nausea and vomiting

66
Q

Rome IV Criteria for Cannabinoid Hyperemesis Syndrome

67
Q

What solution should be administered to mildly or moderately dehydrated patients who can take oral liquids?

A

A solution containing sodium, carbohydrate, and water.

68
Q

What is the preferred treatment for severely dehydrated patients who cannot take oral fluids?

A

IV crystalloid solution, including correction of electrolyte abnormalities as needed.

69
Q

When is the placement of a nasogastric tube indicated?

A

Rarely indicated, except in patients with severe bowel obstruction.

70
Q

How can the need for antiemetics and response to therapy be measured?

A

With scales similar to those used for pain assessment, such as a visual analog scale and verbal categorical scale.

71
Q

What does the 2015 Cochrane review indicate about antiemetic agents for adult patients?

A

Limited evidence to support the use of one antiemetic agent over another, except for droperidol in a single study.

72
Q

What are the categories of pharmacologic therapies for nausea and vomiting?

A
  • Serotonin antagonists
  • Histamine antagonists
  • Muscarinic antagonists
  • Dopamine antagonists
73
Q

Which serotonin antagonist is considered first-line therapy for nausea and vomiting in the ED?

A

Ondansetron.

74
Q

What is the initial dose of ondansetron for most patients?

A

4 to 8 mg PO/IV.

75
Q

What is the maximum safe single dose of ondansetron in the non-elderly population?

A

Up to 16 mg.

76
Q

What precautions should be taken before administering ondansetron?

A

ECG should be performed to check for QT prolongation; correct electrolytes, particularly potassium and magnesium.

77
Q

What is the initial dose of metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting?

A

10 to 20 mg IV or IM.

78
Q

Which phenothiazine is more sedating and associated with more extrapyramidal effects?

A

Promethazine.

79
Q

What is the recommended dose of droperidol for nausea and vomiting?

A

1.25 mg IV.

80
Q

What should be done if ondansetron and metoclopramide are ineffective?

A

Consider using droperidol or haloperidol if safe.

81
Q

What is the preferred method of administering promethazine if IV route is desired?

A

Dilute in 10 to 20 mL 0.9% NaCl and administer over 10 to 15 minutes.

82
Q

What alternative can be used instead of promethazine, but should not be used together?

A

Dimenhydrinate.

83
Q

What should be considered for patients remaining highly symptomatic after antiemetic treatment?

A

Observation or hospitalization for continued management and evaluation for the etiology of the vomiting.

84
Q

Approach to unstable patient with nausea and vomiting

85
Q

Approach to stable patient with nausea and vomiting

86
Q

Approach to stable but acute patients with nausea and vomiting

87
Q

Potential sequelae of vomiting

88
Q

Commonly used medications for treatment of nausea and vomiting

89
Q

Management algorithm of patient with nausea and vomiting

90
Q

What is the most common cause of vomiting in the pediatric population?

A

Acute gastroenteritis

91
Q

What is the first-line agent for treating vomiting in children?

A

Ondansetron

92
Q

According to a 2016 meta-analysis, what did ondansetron improve compared to placebo?

A

Cessation of vomiting after 1 hour, reduced failure of oral rehydration, need for IV hydration, and hospitalization rate

93
Q

What is a significant finding regarding ondansetron administration in children?

A

Benefit was observed only in children with at least mild dehydration

94
Q

What was the outcome of a randomized control trial on pediatric patients with no dehydration regarding ondansetron?

A

No benefit over placebo

95
Q

What is the recommended dosage range for prochlorperazine in pediatric patients?

A

0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg IV or PO

96
Q

What percentage did prochlorperazine decrease the intensity of vomiting at 1 hour?

97
Q

What percentage did prochlorperazine decrease the intensity of vomiting at 3 hours?

98
Q

What is the recommendation regarding prochlorperazine for children younger than 2 years?

A

Not recommended

99
Q

What is the preferred first-line agent for patients with nausea or vomiting associated with a headache?

A

Metoclopramide

100
Q

What agents have shown effectiveness in treating nausea and vomiting of pregnancy?

A
  • Ginger
  • Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
  • Vitamin B6 combination products (e.g., doxylamine with pyridoxine)
  • Ondansetron
  • Phenothiazines
  • Metoclopramide
101
Q

What did a recent meta-analysis conclude about the teratogenic effects of ondansetron?

A

No conclusive evidence for teratogenicity, but some statistical significance in cardiac anomalies and cleft palate

102
Q

What is the first-line IV agent for pregnant patients presenting with nausea and vomiting?

A

Metoclopramide

103
Q

What is the starting dose of ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

104
Q

What is the function of palonosetron in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Decreases vomiting after 24 hours

105
Q

What should be considered for patients with cyclical vomiting syndrome (CVS)?

A

IV hydration and high doses of antiemetic medications

106
Q

What is a common treatment for cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome (CHS)?

A

Benzodiazepines

107
Q

What is the role of capsaicin cream in treating CHS?

A

Reported to be helpful in case series

108
Q

What is the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with motion sickness and vertigo?

A

Antihistamines

109
Q

What are common side effects of antihistamines?

A
  • Drowsiness
  • Blurred vision
  • Dry mouth
  • Hypotension
110
Q

What is the primary cause of gastroparesis?

A

Impaired mobility of the stomach, commonly associated with diabetes

111
Q

What is the first-line agent for treating gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide

112
Q

What factors warrant hospital observation or admission for patients with vomiting?

A
  • Significant underlying disease
  • Poor response to fluid or antiemetic therapy
  • Uncontrolled emesis refractory to medication
113
Q

What should patients be instructed to do upon discharge after treatment for vomiting?

A

Restart oral intake with small feedings of a liquid diet, gradually returning to a regular diet