Esophagus,Stomach and Duodenum Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of dysphagia?

A

Dysphagia literally means ‘difficulty swallowing.’

Dysphagia can occur at any age but is particularly common in elders.

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2
Q

What are the three phases of swallowing?

A

Oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal phases.

Precise motor control is necessary for successful food transfer.

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3
Q

What are the two types of dysphagia?

A
  • Oropharyngeal dysphagia
  • Esophageal dysphagia

Oropharyngeal dysphagia involves difficulty transferring a food bolus; esophageal dysphagia involves difficulty transporting material down the esophagus.

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of oropharyngeal dysphagia?

A

Neuromuscular disorders.

These account for approximately 80% of cases.

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5
Q

What symptoms are commonly associated with oropharyngeal dysphagia?

A
  • Misdirection of the bolus
  • Sticking
  • Need for repeated swallowing attempts

Liquids at extreme temperatures cause dysphagia more commonly than solids.

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6
Q

What disorder is characterized by weakness of the cricopharyngeus muscle?

A

Stroke-related pharyngeal weakness.

This can result in failure to relax the muscle and contribute to dysphagia.

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7
Q

What is dysphagia lusoria?

A

Dysphagia caused by an anomalous right subclavian artery.

It is a vascular cause of dysphagia that may not be symptomatic until adulthood.

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8
Q

What are intrinsic mechanical lesions that can cause esophageal dysphagia?

A
  • Strictures
  • Webs
  • Rings
  • Tumors
  • Esophagitis
  • Postsurgical changes
  • Esophageal foreign bodies

These lesions can obstruct the esophagus and lead to dysphagia.

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9
Q

What is Plummer-Vinson syndrome?

A

A condition characterized by anterior webs, dysphagia, iron deficiency anemia, cheilosis, spooning of the nails, glossitis, and thin friable mucosa.

Most patients are women between 30 and 50 years of age.

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10
Q

What is achalasia?

A

A disorder where the resting pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter is markedly increased, and peristalsis is absent.

The incidence of achalasia increases with age.

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11
Q

What are symptoms of esophageal spasm?

A
  • Chest pain
  • Dysphagia

Symptoms may be precipitated by swallowing very hot or cold liquids.

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12
Q

How can the history help differentiate oropharyngeal from esophageal dysphagia?

A

By focusing on the anatomic level involved, types of food leading to symptoms, and whether the symptoms are intermittent or progressive.

A careful history is effective in up to 85% of patients.

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13
Q

What diagnostic tests may be used for dysphagia?

A
  • Nasopharyngoscopy
  • Video esophagography
  • Barium swallow
  • Manometry
  • Impedance monitoring

The choice of tests should be coordinated with consultants.

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14
Q

What is the first-line treatment for achalasia?

A

Peroral endoscopic myotomy (POEM).

This is recommended for patients able to tolerate surgical intervention.

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15
Q

What are some medical therapies for esophageal motility disorders?

A
  • Anticholinergic drugs (e.g., hyoscyamine sulfate, dicyclomine)
  • Calcium channel blockers

These therapies aim to decrease esophageal peristalsis and LES pressure.

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16
Q

What is the recommended disposition for patients at risk of aspiration?

A

Hospitalization for expedited work-up and management.

Otherwise, outpatient evaluation by a gastroenterologist is indicated.

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17
Q

Causes of Dysphagia

A
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18
Q

What are the four major groups of patients with esophageal foreign bodies?

A
  • Pediatric patients
  • Psychiatric patients or prisoners
  • Patients with underlying esophageal disease
  • Edentulous adults
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19
Q

What age group accounts for the peak incidence of pediatric foreign body ingestion?

A

18 to 48 months

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20
Q

What is the most common type of foreign body ingested by pediatric patients?

A

Coins

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21
Q

What are the common types of foreign body impactions in adults?

A
  • Food
  • Meat
  • Bones
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22
Q

Which muscle is associated with the upper esophageal sphincter (UES)?

A

Cricopharyngeus muscle

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23
Q

Where are the four natural areas of narrowing in the esophagus located?

A
  • Cricopharyngeus muscle
  • Aortic arch
  • Left mainstem bronchus
  • LES at the diaphragmatic hiatus
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24
Q

What types of muscle make up the esophagus?

A
  • Striated muscle (upper third)
  • Skeletal muscle (middle portion)
  • Smooth muscle (distal third)
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25
Q

What is a Schatzki ring?

A

A fibrous, diaphragm-like stricture near the gastroesophageal junction

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26
Q

What symptoms do patients with esophageal obstruction typically experience?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • Neck or chest pain
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27
Q

What is a café coronary?

A

A proximal esophageal obstruction caused by food leading to sudden cyanosis and collapse

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28
Q

What symptoms should prompt consideration of unwitnessed foreign body ingestion in children?

A
  • Fever
  • Wheezing
  • Stridor
  • Rhonchi
  • Poor feeding
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29
Q

What diagnostic tests are typically used to confirm esophageal foreign body ingestion?

A
  • Anteroposterior (AP) and lateral radiographs
  • Nasopharyngoscopy
  • Laryngoscopy
  • Upper GI endoscopy
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30
Q

What is the role of CT in the diagnosis of esophageal foreign bodies?

A

To identify and localize foreign bodies with higher sensitivity than radiography

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31
Q

What is the recommended treatment for complete esophageal obstruction?

A

Flexible endoscopy using procedural sedation

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32
Q

What objects require urgent intervention in cases of esophageal obstruction?

A
  • Button batteries
  • Magnets
  • Large or sharp objects
  • Coins lodged in the proximal esophagus
  • Food boluses causing high-grade obstruction
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33
Q

What are the risks associated with foreign bodies remaining in the esophagus for more than 24 hours?

A
  • Perforation
  • Aorto-enteric fistula
  • Tracheoesophageal fistula
  • Abscess
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34
Q

What is the technique used to remove smooth foreign bodies like coins from the upper esophagus?

A

Foley catheter removal

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35
Q

What is bougienage?

A

A technique where an esophageal dilator is used to advance a coin into the stomach

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36
Q

What is the effect of glucagon in the management of esophageal foreign bodies?

A

No proven benefit and increased risk of adverse events

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37
Q

What should be done for a patient with a button battery lodged in the esophagus?

A

Endoscopy should be performed immediately

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38
Q

What is the conservative management approach for foreign bodies that have entered the stomach?

A

Outpatient management for most cases

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39
Q

What indicates the need for surgical removal of foreign bodies in the stomach?

A

Objects remaining in the stomach for more than 3 to 4 weeks or in the same intestinal location for more than 1 week

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40
Q

What should patients be discharged with after endoscopy for foreign body removal?

A

A proton pump inhibitor (PPI) and referral for further evaluation of structural abnormalities

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41
Q

What can cause esophageal perforation?

A

Esophageal perforation can result from:
* Rapid increase in intraesophageal pressure (e.g., forceful vomiting)
* Valsalva-like maneuvers (e.g., childbirth, coughing, heavy lifting)
* Iatrogenic causes (e.g., endoscopy, nasogastric tube placement)
* Foreign body ingestion
* Caustic substance ingestion
* Severe esophagitis
* Carcinoma
* Blunt or penetrating trauma

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42
Q

Where do most spontaneous esophageal ruptures occur?

A

More than 90% of spontaneous esophageal ruptures occur in the distal esophagus.

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43
Q

What are the common sites of iatrogenic injury during esophageal procedures?

A

Common sites of iatrogenic injury include:
* Pharyngoesophageal junction
* Esophagogastric junction

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44
Q

What is the Mackler triad?

A

The Mackler triad consists of:
* Subcutaneous emphysema
* Chest pain
* Vomiting

It is pathognomonic for spontaneous esophageal rupture, but the complete triad is seen in less than 50% of cases.

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45
Q

What symptoms may be present with an upper esophageal perforation?

A

Symptoms may include:
* Neck or chest pain
* Dysphagia
* Respiratory distress
* Fever
* Odynophagia
* Nausea
* Vomiting
* Hoarseness
* Aphonia

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46
Q

What are the physical findings in patients with esophageal perforation?

A

Physical findings may include:
* Epigastric or generalized abdominal tenderness
* Involuntary guarding and rigidity
* Mediastinal or cervical emphysema (noted by crepitus or Hamman sign)

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47
Q

What is a common misdiagnosis for esophageal perforation?

A

Common misdiagnoses include:
* Pulmonary embolism
* Acute myocardial infarction
* Aortic dissection
* Perforated ulcer
* Pneumothorax
* Lung abscess
* Pericarditis
* Pancreatitis

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48
Q

What is the first diagnostic study for suspected esophageal perforation?

A

Chest and upright abdominal radiography is generally the first diagnostic study.

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49
Q

What radiographic abnormalities may indicate esophageal perforation?

A

Radiographic abnormalities may include:
* Pneumomediastinum
* Pleural effusion (right-sided or left-sided)
* Subcutaneous emphysema
* Mediastinal widening
* Pulmonary infiltrates

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50
Q

What is the recommended initial contrast agent for suspected esophageal perforation?

A

Water-soluble agents (e.g., Gastrografin) are recommended for initial contrast studies.

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51
Q

What are the common organisms found in the esophagus that may cause infections after perforation?

A

Common organisms include:
* Gram-positive bacteria
* Gram-negative bacteria
* Anaerobic organisms
* Fungal species

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52
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic regimen for esophageal perforation?

A

Recommended regimen includes:
* IV vancomycin 15 mg/kg q8h to q12h
* IV piperacillin-tazobactam 3.375 g q6h
* Consider adding empiric antifungal coverage (fluconazole 400 mg IV daily) if risk factors are present

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53
Q

What are the management options for clinically stable patients with iatrogenic perforations?

A

Management options include:
* Close monitoring
* NPO status
* Broad-spectrum antibiotics
* Parenteral nutrition
* Surgical consultation available

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54
Q

What factors are associated with worse outcomes in traumatic, noniatrogenic esophageal perforation?

A

Factors associated with worse outcomes include:
* Thoracic location of esophageal injury
* More extensive esophageal damage

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55
Q

What is the recommended disposition for patients with esophageal perforation?

A

Patients require close monitoring in a hospital setting, often in an intensive care unit, with early surgical consultation recommended.

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of esophagitis?

A

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).

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57
Q

List other important causes of esophagitis.

A
  • Eosinophilic infiltration
  • Infection
  • Foreign body
  • Toxic ingestion
  • Radiation
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58
Q

What is gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A

When reflux of gastric contents becomes symptomatic or causes histopathologic alterations.

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59
Q

What percentage of the population experiences symptomatic reflux in the form of heartburn?

A

10% to 20%.

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60
Q

What primary mechanism allows reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus?

A

Inappropriate relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES).

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61
Q

What factors can decrease LES pressure and lead to reflux?

A
  • Medications (e.g., nitrates, calcium channel blockers)
  • Fatty meals
  • Chocolate
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62
Q

What are some conditions that can contribute to GERD?

A
  • Esophageal motility abnormalities
  • Increased intragastric pressure
  • Acid hypersecretion
  • Gastric outlet obstruction
  • Delayed gastric emptying
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63
Q

What histological change can occur due to chronic GERD?

A

Replacement of normal stratified squamous epithelium with metaplastic columnar epithelium (Barrett metaplasia).

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64
Q

What is the prevalence of Barrett esophagus in patients with reflux undergoing endoscopy?

A

Approximately 10% to 15%.

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65
Q

What is eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

A condition characterized by eosinophilic infiltration within the esophageal mucosa.

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66
Q

What is the association of eosinophilic esophagitis with age?

A

Initially thought to be a disease of children, now diagnosed in adults with a prevalence rate approaching 3%.

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67
Q

What criteria are necessary for diagnosing eosinophilic esophagitis?

A
  • Clinical symptoms of esophageal dysfunction
  • More than 15 eosinophils in one high-power field on esophageal biopsy
  • Lack of responsiveness to high-dose PPI therapy
68
Q

Who is most at risk for infectious esophagitis?

A

Immunocompromised hosts.

69
Q

What is the most common esophageal pathogen in infectious esophagitis?

A

Candida species (primarily Candida albicans).

70
Q

What are the most common viral pathogens causing infectious esophagitis?

A
  • Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
71
Q

What is pill esophagitis?

A

Inflammation and injury of the esophageal mucosa due to a pill or capsule remaining in contact with it for a prolonged period.

72
Q

What are common predisposing factors for pill esophagitis?

A
  • Advanced age
  • Decreased esophageal motility
  • Extrinsic compression
73
Q

What can be a consequence of sustained-release compounds in pill esophagitis?

A

More damaging than standard preparations.

74
Q

What symptoms are commonly associated with esophagitis?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
  • Chest pain
  • Esophageal bleeding
75
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of GERD?

A

Heartburn.

76
Q

What additional symptoms may occur with GERD?

A
  • Regurgitation
  • Water brash
  • Dysphagia
  • Odynophagia
77
Q

What conditions or positions can precipitate reflux?

A
  • Stooping
  • Bending
  • Leaning forward
  • Valsalva-type maneuvers
  • Supine position
78
Q

What is a common symptom of eosinophilic esophagitis in adults?

A

Solid food dysphagia.

79
Q

What are atypical presentations of pill esophagitis?

A

Burning type of pain, suggesting GERD.

80
Q

What is the key point in differentiating cardiac chest pain from reflux?

A

Relief of chest pain from reflux by antacids.

81
Q

What can endoscopy reveal in cases of infectious esophagitis?

A

Characteristic signs of infection, such as white plaques of Candida or herpetic vesicles.

82
Q

Agents and conditions related to Gastroesophageal Reflux

83
Q

List dietary changes to reduce GERD symptoms.

A
  • Avoid caffeine
  • Avoid alcohol
  • Avoid chocolate
  • Avoid fatty foods
  • Avoid acidic foods like citrus products and spicy foods
84
Q

What behavioral modifications are recommended for GERD?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Smoking cessation
  • Elevation of the head of the bed
  • Avoid recumbent position after eating
85
Q

Which lifestyle recommendations have evidence-based support for GERD management?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Head of bed elevation
86
Q

What types of medications are used in pharmacologic therapy for GERD?

A
  • Antacids
  • H2-receptor antagonists
  • PPIs (Proton Pump Inhibitors)
  • Agents that affect the LES or motility
  • Mucosal protectants
87
Q

What did a Cochrane systematic review conclude about PPIs in GERD treatment?

A

PPIs are more effective than H2 blockers in eliminating symptoms and healing mucosal damage.

88
Q

What is sucralfate used for in GERD management?

A

Sucralfate is a mucosal protectant that binds to inflamed tissue to create a protective barrier.

89
Q

What are the potential side effects of prolonged use of metoclopramide?

A

Significant irreversible extrapyramidal side effects such as tardive dyskinesia.

90
Q

When should patients with GERD be referred to a gastroenterologist?

A

If they do not improve with empirical therapy or are at high risk for complications.

91
Q

What surgical therapy may be considered for GERD patients intolerant of acid-suppressive medications?

A

Laparoscopic fundoplication.

92
Q

What is the recommended treatment for eosinophilic esophagitis after food impaction is resolved?

A

Initiation of a daily PPI and referral to a gastroenterologist for urgent endoscopy.

93
Q

What are potential consequences of untreated eosinophilic esophagitis?

A

Esophageal remodeling and stricture formation in up to 40% of adult patients.

94
Q

List additional therapies considered for eosinophilic esophagitis.

A
  • Topical corticosteroids
  • Leukotriene receptor antagonists
  • Mast cell stabilizers
  • Azathioprine
  • 6-mercaptopurine
  • Biologic immunomodulators
95
Q

What is the treatment for mild cases of oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

Clotrimazole troches or nystatin.

96
Q

How is moderate to severe esophageal candidiasis treated?

A

Oral fluconazole.

97
Q

What is the typical treatment for herpes esophagitis in immunocompromised patients?

A
  • Acyclovir
  • Famciclovir
  • Valacyclovir
98
Q

What is the best treatment for pill esophagitis?

A

Prevention.

99
Q

What instructions should be given to patients to prevent pill esophagitis?

A
  • Drink at least 4 ounces of liquid with any pill
  • Take medications in an upright position
  • Remain upright for several minutes after medication ingestion
100
Q

What additional treatments can provide symptomatic relief for infectious esophagitis?

A
  • Antacids
  • Topical anesthetics
  • Sucralfate
101
Q

Summary of Histamine Receptor Antagonist

102
Q

Summary of PPI

103
Q

What is gastritis?

A

A histologic diagnosis denoting inflammation of the gastric mucosa

Diagnosis made only by endoscopy and biopsy

104
Q

What is the most common cause of gastritis?

A

Infection with Helicobacter pylori

105
Q

How is H. pylori primarily spread?

A

Person to person by an oral-oral route

106
Q

What percentage of patients with duodenal ulcers are infected with H. pylori?

107
Q

What percentage of patients with gastric ulcers are infected with H. pylori?

108
Q

What is suppurative gastritis?

A

A rare and often fatal disease from an acute bacterial infection of the stomach wall

109
Q

What is the second most common cause of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A

Use of aspirin and other NSAIDs

110
Q

What complications can arise from chronic NSAID use?

A

Ulcer disease, perforation, or bleeding

111
Q

What do prostaglandins promote in the gastric mucosa?

A

Mucosal integrity by maintaining blood flow and promoting mucus and bicarbonate formation

112
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

An acid hypersecretion syndrome caused by gastrin-secreting tumors

113
Q

What are common symptoms of acute gastritis and PUD?

A

Epigastric abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting

114
Q

What is the classic presenting symptom of PUD?

A

Epigastric pain described as burning or gnawing

115
Q

What is a key indicator of ulcer disease based on pain timing?

A

Symptoms that awaken a patient from sleep between midnight and 3 am

116
Q

What percentage of patients with PUD experience pain relief with antacids?

A

More than 90%

117
Q

What are the most serious complications of PUD?

A
  • Hemorrhage
  • Perforation
  • Penetration
  • Gastric outlet obstruction
118
Q

What is the typical presentation of a perforated duodenal ulcer?

A

Pain first in the epigastrium that becomes generalized, often with vomiting

119
Q

What should be considered in differential diagnoses for epigastric pain?

A
  • Pancreatitis
  • Biliary tract disease
  • Small bowel obstruction
  • Mesenteric ischemia
120
Q

What characterizes the discomfort associated with gastritis?

A

Often mild to moderate, described as a hot burning pain or bloating

121
Q

Fill in the blank: The gastric mucosal barrier prevents the back-diffusion of _______ from the gastric lumen.

A

Hydrogen ions

122
Q

What are some potential causes of gastritis?

A
  • Radiation
  • Autoimmune reactions
  • Crohn disease
  • Sarcoidosis
123
Q

What is the significance of gastric acid output timing in ulcer pain?

A

Highest at approximately 2 am, leading to pain that may wake a patient

124
Q

What are the ulcerogenic potential drugs mentioned?

A
  • 5-fluorouracil
  • Mycophenolate mofetil
  • Bisphosphonates
125
Q

Risk of GI complications from NSAIDs

126
Q

Substances that damage gastric mucosal barrier

127
Q

What is the primary method for confirming the diagnosis of gastritis?

A

Upper endoscopy

This procedure is not typically performed in the ED unless necessary to treat complications of PUD.

128
Q

What ancillary tests might be ordered to assess complications of gastritis?

A

Abdominal and chest radiographs

These should be ordered if obstruction, perforation, or penetration is suggested.

129
Q

What imaging technique may visualize deep ulcers and signs of peptic gastroduodenitis?

A

Multiplanar CT interpretation

This can facilitate expedited endoscopic evaluation.

130
Q

What tests can be used to detect H. pylori?

A
  • Urea breath test
  • Serum antibody testing
  • Stool antigen testing
  • Direct mucosal biopsy during endoscopy

These methods are not practical in the ED.

131
Q

What is the initial management approach for NSAID-related ulcers?

A

Discontinuation of the offending agent combined with initiation of PPI therapy.

132
Q

What are the recommended regimens for treating H. pylori infection?

A

Combination of antibiotics with acid-suppressing agents

Examples include Prevpac and Helidac.

133
Q

How do antacids relieve symptoms in patients with PUD?

A

They bind bile acids or inhibit pepsin.

134
Q

What side effect is associated with magnesium-containing antacids?

A

Diarrhea in up to 25% of patients.

135
Q

What condition can excessive consumption of calcium-containing antacids lead to?

A

Milk-alkali syndrome

This includes hypercalcemia, alkalosis, and renal insufficiency.

136
Q

What is the primary action of H2 blockers?

A

Inhibit gastric acid production by blocking H2 receptors on parietal cells.

137
Q

What are common side effects of H2 blockers?

A
  • Somnolence
  • Dizziness
  • Confusion
  • Transient increases in liver enzyme levels

Cimetidine may cause gynecomastia.

138
Q

What is the mechanism of action for proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)?

A

Irreversibly bind to proton pumps to block secretion of hydrogen ions.

139
Q

How long do the antisecretory effects of PPIs last?

A

Up to 72 hours.

140
Q

What is the recommended administration timing for PPIs?

A

Before the first meal of the day.

141
Q

What potential risk is associated with PPIs when used with clopidogrel?

A

Inhibition of the effects of thienopyridines used to treat cardiovascular disease.

142
Q

What protective effects do prostaglandins exert on the gastric mucosa?

A
  • Inhibit acid secretion
  • Decrease cyclic adenosine monophosphate
  • Increase mucus and bicarbonate secretion
  • Stimulate mucosal blood flow
143
Q

What is the primary use of Misoprostol?

A

Prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers in high-risk patients.

144
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sucralfate?

A

Binds to epithelial cells and ulcerated surfaces to provide a protective layer.

145
Q

What are the effects of bismuth compounds on ulcers?

A
  • Decrease pepsin activity
  • Increase mucus secretion
  • Form a barrier to acid damage
  • Increase prostaglandin synthesis
  • Help heal ulcers through bactericidal action
146
Q

What are the indications for referral to a gastroenterologist?

A
  • Age 55+ with new-onset dyspepsia
  • Dysphagia
  • Progressive unintentional weight loss
  • Persistent vomiting
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Epigastric mass
147
Q

Suggested treatment regimens for H.pylori

148
Q

What is gastric volvulus?

A

A rare cause of severe abdominal pain occurring when the stomach rotates on itself more than 180 degrees, creating a closed loop obstruction.

149
Q

How is gastric volvulus classified?

A

According to cause (primary vs. secondary), anatomy (axis of rotation), or onset (acute vs. chronic).

150
Q

What points fix the stomach in the abdomen?

A
  • Esophagocardiac junction
  • Pylorus
151
Q

Where does the stomach lie when a person is supine?

A

Entirely above the umbilicus.

152
Q

What is a primary (subdiaphragmatic) volvulus?

A

Accounts for approximately one-third of cases, occurring when stabilizing ligaments are too lax or congenitally abnormal.

153
Q

What is a secondary (supradiaphragmatic) volvulus?

A

Occurs in patients with diaphragmatic defects or other conditions that increase the likelihood of volvulus.

154
Q

What are the common causes of secondary gastric volvulus?

A
  • Paraesophageal hiatal hernia
  • Elevated diaphragm
  • Gastric ulcer or carcinoma
  • Diaphragmatic paralysis
  • Extrinsic pressure from other organs
  • Abdominal adhesions
155
Q

What is organoaxial volvulus?

A

The most common form of gastric volvulus, occurring when the stomach twists on its long axis.

156
Q

What is mesenteroaxial volvulus?

A

Occurs when the stomach folds on its short axis from its lesser to greater curvature.

157
Q

What age group is most commonly affected by gastric volvulus?

A

Persons aged 40 to 50 years, with approximately 20% of cases in infants younger than 1 year.

158
Q

What is Borchardt triad?

A

The combination of severe epigastric pain and distention, vomiting followed by violent nonproductive retching, and inability to pass a nasogastric tube.

159
Q

What are common symptoms of a chronic gastric volvulus?

A
  • Mild intermittent upper abdominal pain
  • Early satiety
  • Dyspnea
  • Bloating
  • Eructation
  • Upper abdominal distension
160
Q

What complications can arise from an untreated acute gastric volvulus?

A
  • Gastric ischemia
  • Perforation
  • Death
  • Ulceration
  • Hemorrhage
  • Pancreatic necrosis
  • Omental avulsion
161
Q

What is the reported mortality rate from acute gastric volvulus?

A

As high as 50%.

162
Q

What initial diagnostic test is often used for gastric volvulus?

A

A plain abdominal radiograph.

163
Q

What might a classical x-ray show in cases of gastric volvulus?

A

A large, gas-filled loop of bowel in the abdomen or chest with an air-fluid level, often with a lack of air in the distal bowel.

164
Q

What is the primary goal of treatment for acute gastric volvulus?

A

Reduction of the volvulus.

165
Q

What should be attempted immediately for acute gastric volvulus management?

A

Immediate passage of a nasogastric tube.

166
Q

What is the ultimate treatment for gastric volvulus?

A

Surgical emergency to reduce the volvulus and prevent recurrence.