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MV-22 Osprey > NATOPS Exam > Flashcards

NATOPS Exam Flashcards

0
Q

The maximum VTOL gross weight of the V-22 is _____ lbs sea-level; maximum short takeoff (STO) gross weight is _____ lbs; and maximum alternate gross weight is _____ lbs.

A

52,600
57,000
60,500

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1
Q

The MV-22 is a multi-mission aircraft with many applications. These applications include the following (7):

A

a. Medium Lift Assault Support
b. Tactical Recovery of Aircraft & Personnel (TRAP)
c. Emergency Evacuation
d. Fleet Logistics Support
e. Logistics Support Ashore
f. Long-Range Logistics Support
g. Medical Evacuation

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2
Q

The nose to tail length of the V-22 is ___ ft ___ in.

A

57 ft 4 in

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3
Q

The _____ _____ _____ is the primary interface between the flight crew, the aircraft systems, and avionics.

A

Cockpit management system

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4
Q

When power is applied, _____ MC is designated as _____. The other MC then operates as the _____. The _____ receives all commands and data, performs the required routines, and monitors the _____ computer.

A 
One
Master
Shadow
Shadow
Master
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5
Q

Each _____ controls operation of _____ MFDs, with the capability of controlling _____ _____ MFDs in the event of a _____ failure.

A

DEU
two
All four
DEU

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6
Q

There are five main aircraft interface units (AIUs) on the aircraft: the avionics bay interface unit (ABIU), two _____ _____ _____, the _____ _____ _____, and the drive system interface unit (DSIU).

A

Nacelle interface units

Wing interface unit

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7
Q

An AIU text status page does not exist for the _____.

A

DSIU

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8
Q

The DSIU, located on the midwing forward equipment shelf, monitors and controls the _____ _____ _____, and monitors for oil debris in the _____, TAGBs, MWGBs, and _____ _____.

A

Emergency lubrication system
PRGBs
Both engines

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9
Q

The radar altimeter provides aircraft altitude above ground level (AGL) from _______ to approximately _______ ft.

A

0

4,500

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10
Q

The _____ _______ __________ provides pitot-static pressure data to the FCCs.

A

Air data system

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11
Q

Stall warning is provided for nacelle angles between _____ and _____.

A

0° and 35°

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12
Q

The ______ ______ warning is initiated when the vertical velocity exceeds the vertical velocity limit with airspeed less than _____ kts and nacelle angle greater than _____ °.

A

Sink rate
80
65

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13
Q

The operator can select MFD modes by depressing the bezel key associated with the desired function or by using the __________ __________.

A

Modding cursor

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14
Q

__________ remain displayed until the condition which caused the __________ no longer exists.

A

Warnings

Warning

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15
Q

__________ and __________ are only displayed on the MFDs when the MFDs are in the CDU backup mode.

A

Cautions

Advisories

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16
Q

If the aircraft was _______ _______ with a proper system log off, the MCs will attempt to restore the aircraft configuration available prior to loss of power. This is referred to as a _______

A

Shut down

Warm start

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17
Q

The Aircraft Start-Up Control Layer, on MFDs, provides three options:

A
  1. Maintainer Configuration
  2. Shipboard Minimum Power Configuration
  3. Normal Flight Operations Configuration.
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18
Q

Match the Warning, Caution and Advisory to the correct meaning:
__________ Situation or condition requiring immediate attention but not necessarily immediate action. Non-routine action required to avoid or prevent equipment damage, comprise safety, or preclude a warning condition. Operator must take action to correct caution and/or land as soon as possible.
__________ System or mission limiting abnormal condition(s) exists; i.e., loss of redundancy or degradation within a redundant system, which may require operator action, but no specific crew action (e.g., HYD 1 RSVR LO).
__________ Situation or condition requiring immediate action and/or land immediately is dictated to prevent death, injury, equipment damage, or mission abort. Operator must take critical steps without reference to checklist or other aids.

A

Caution
Advisory
Warning

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19
Q

There are 16 signals that prompt a voice warning:

A
  1. Left Engine Fire​ ​ 9. Right Proprotor Gearbox Failure
  2. Right Engine Fire​ ​ 10. Left Tilt Axis Gearbox Failure
  3. Midwing Fire​​ 11. Right Tilt Axis Gearbox Failure
  4. Left Wing Fire​​ 12. ICDS Failure
  5. Right Wing Fire​ ​​ 13. RPM Low
  6. Left Engine Fail​​ 14. Stall
  7. Right Engine Fail​ 15. Elevator Control Failure
  8. Left Proprotor Gearbox Failure​ 16. Excessive Sink Rate
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20
Q

__________ are indicated by illumination of the ___________ ___________ light, a text message displayed in __________ characters near the top of the MFDs, and a voice alert.

A

Warnings
Master alert
A red box in red

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21
Q

Cautions and advisories are arranged from top to bottom based upon _________________________ associated with the condition being alerted.

A

Severity of the consequences

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22
Q

In the event of an EICAS failure, the __________ will be treated as ___________ and displayed on all MFD layers and incorporated in the __________ summary list on the MFDs.

A

ASIs
Advisories
C/A

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23
Q

_____________ _____________ ______________ provide information on data entry problems and interactive operation messages.

A

Operator information displays

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24
Q

_____________ _____________ ______________ are presented in the upper center of the CDU/EICAS in __________ characters.

A

Aircraft state indicators

Green

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25
Q

The Standby Flight Display, located above the CDU on the instrument panel, provides for the independent backup of __________, __________, and __________ __________ parameters exclusive of the __________.

A

Engine
Fuel
Drive system
CMS

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26
Q

There are a total of _____ display layers for each pilot [on the HUD]. The display layers available are__________ __________,__________, __________, and __________ __________.

A

4

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27
Q

Output power is transferred to the Proprotor Gearbox (PRGB) by the __________ __________, located in the center of the _______________ assembly.

A

Torque shaft

Torquemeter

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28
Q

The __________ also provides __________ __________ against damage due to exceedence of limits on engine gas generator (Ng), power turbine speed (Np), turbine temperature (MGT), and output shaft torque (Qe).

A

FADEC

Engine protection

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29
Q

The FADECs transmit information to each other through a __________ __________ _______ _______ commonly referred to as cross-talk.

A

Cross channel data link

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30
Q

The primary mode of operation is one FADEC actively controlling each engine, while the second FADEC is in __________.

A

Standby

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31
Q

The __________ __________ __________ _______ controls fuel flow and pressure in response to signals from the FADECs.

A

Fuel pump metering unit

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32
Q

The __________ __________ is configured so that when it is in the ON position, it mechanically prohibits the ECLs from moving past the __________ position.

A

Rotor brake

Crank

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33
Q

Forward or aft movement of the TCL is translated by the FCCs into a __________ ____________ __________ that is sent to the FADECs.

A

Power demand signal

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34
Q

The INTERIM POWER push button switch allows for selection of interim power at _______% mast torque and _______% Nr.

A

109

103.8

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35
Q

When in armed mode, INTERIM POWER automatically reengages when airspeed is below _______ KCAS and nacelle angle is above ______.

A

60

70°

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36
Q

There is no specific _______ __________ for the use of interim power.

A

Time limit

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37
Q

There are four primary purposes for selecting CRANK:

A
  1. Reduce MGT prior to engine start
  2. Perform engine crank rinse or crank wash
  3. Perform mechanical systems checks
  4. Clear engine of fuel after light-off failure
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38
Q

The _______ ________ function of the FADECS automatically turns on the igniters when an engine flameout is detected.

A

Auto relight

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39
Q

The EAPS assures a relatively clean flow of air into the engine. __________ blowers, in the lower portion of each EAPS, pull the scavenge flow through exit ducts which dump overboard from the __________ __________.

A

Two

Lower nacelle

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40
Q

In the automatic mode, the blowers [EAPS] are controlled by the MCs to provide automatic operation under _______ KCAS.

A

80

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41
Q

The coanda deflector system is automatically activated when four conditions are met; they are:

A
  1. Engine Torque (Qe) < 28 %
  2. Ng < 67%
  3. NAC Angle > 52 degrees
  4. MGT < 565 degrees
  5. NIU receives WOW.
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42
Q

The drive system consists of 2 __________ gearboxes, 2 __________ _________ gearboxes, 2 nacelle heat exchangers, midwing gearbox, emergency lubrication system, and the _______________ _______________ _______________.

A

Proprotor
Tilt axis
Interconnect drive shafts

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43
Q

Two PRGBs, one mounted in each nacelle, transmit power and provide a _______ __________ from the _______________ to the __________ _______.

A

Speed reduction
Engine
Proprotor mast

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44
Q

An extra idler gear in the __________ _________ first stage gear train results in __________ rotation of the __________ proprotor. The _____________ proprotor turns __________.

A 
Left PRGB
Counterclockwise
Left
Right
Clockwise
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45
Q

The Emergency Lubrication System has the capability to continue supplying oil, at a reduced rate, for _______ minutes.

A

30

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46
Q

The No. 4 VFG, No. 1 CFG, _____ _______________ __________, MWGB oil cooler, MWGB oil pump, and the __________ __________ _______________ are driven by the MWGB.

A

No.3 hydraulic pump

Shaft driven compressor

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47
Q

The ICDS is ______________, both physically and functionally, on each side of the aircraft. Each side consists of a pylon driveshaft that ___________ __________ between the ______ and the ______, a nacelle blower driveshaft ____________________ the TAGB to the nacelle blower, and _____ driveshafts that connect the TAGB to the MWGB.

A 
Identical
Transmits torque
TAGB
PRGB
Connecting
5
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48
Q

The rotor brake, installed on the MWGB, is an __________ controlled, __________ operated unit.

A

Electrically

Hydraulically

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49
Q

In the event of an emergency the rotor brake will stop the rotors from 100% in _____ seconds.

A

20

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50
Q

The __________ __________ assemblies are designed to reduce rotor induced 3/rev vibrations.

A

Pendulum damper

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51
Q

Each slip ring assembly provides a circuit path for electrical power to the __________ __________ __________, blade tip lights, flapping transducers, mast torque sensors, and ice protection distributor (for de-icing of the rotor blades, rotor __________, and __________) and anti-ice power for the rotor blade parting strips, _______ __________, and spinner strips.

A

Blade fold system
Fairings
Spinners
Pendulum damper

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52
Q

A __________ __________ caution is displayed when the FCC detects possible rotor flapping stop contact.

A

Flapping critical

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53
Q

There are five main fuel cells installed in the aircraft: two feed cells, two forward sponson cells, and one aft __________ sponson cell. The usable capacity for each feed tank is 88 gallons (__________ lbs JP5), 294 gallons (_________ lbs JP5) for each wing auxiliary tank, 478 gallons (__________ lbs JP5) for each forward sponson tank and 301 gallons (__________ lbs JP5) for the aft sponson tank.

A

600
2000
3250
2050

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54
Q

The feed tanks are designed to maintain approximately a _____ __________ supply of fuel for each engine.

A

30 minute

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55
Q

The __________ __________ caution will not be displayed when a tank is selected to be isolated.

A

Fuel trapped

56
Q

Fuel for APU operation is suctioned from the __________ feed cell by the APU fuel pump.

A

Right

57
Q

The AN/ALE-47 CMDS chaff/flare dispensing is _____________ while FUEL DUMP is selected.

A

Inhibited

58
Q

___________ _____________ ____________ is the term used to describe the integration of the hydraulic system and the flight control system.

A

Vehicle management system

59
Q

Hydraulic power is provided by __________ independent __________ psi systems.

A

Three

5,000

60
Q

Switching logic in the _________ will automatically attempt to isolate a defective [hydraulic] system when loss of __________ or __________ is detected.

A

FCCs
Pressure
Fluid

61
Q

During normal operation, the flight control surfaces and hydraulic systems are displayed _________. A single failure in triple redundant (or more) system is displayed in _______ _______ ______. When a loss of redundancy fault occurs (no redundancy remains), the affected surface is displayed _________. Failed surfaces or systems are displayed in _________.

A

Green
White cross hatch
Yellow
Red

62
Q

The ______ ______ _____ key is used to open the utility isolation valve in flight when the landing gear is retracted to allow use of the ________ _______.

A

UTIL Open/close

Utility subsystems

63
Q

The Flight Control System (FCS) consists of mechanical __________ controls, _____________, computing devices, and _____________ which enables the aircrew to control the aircraft.

A

Cockpit
Sensors
Actuators

64
Q

The FCS consists of two systems, the ___________ ___________ ___________ ___________ and the ____________ ____________ ___________ ____________.

A

Primary flight control system (PFCS)

Automatic flight control system (AFCS)

65
Q

_____________ __________ _____________ (_____) is a flight control design approach that integrates handling qualities, performance, and load limiting requirements into the basic flight control software.

A

Structural load limiting (SLL)

66
Q

The _____ control laws protect critical __________, _____________, and __________ loading.

A

SLL
proprotor
drivetrain
airframe

67
Q

Any flight control system caution will cause the ______________ pushbutton switches to illuminate.

A

PFCS fail/reset

68
Q

The control laws are automatically scheduled as a function of ________ ________ and __________.

A

Nacelle angle

Airspeed

69
Q

During high power settings, possible ____________ ___________ may occur with excessive lateral cyclic input.

A

Proprotor overtorque

70
Q

The thrust/power control generates _________ __________ ___________ commands to the engines and collective pitch commands to the proprotors.

A

Power demand signal (PDS)

71
Q

______________ provides power compensation and access to full engine power when TCRS is disabled.

A

TCL overtravel

72
Q

During an autorotation, the ______ _________ feature provides additional collective pitch during the flare prior to touchdown.

A

TCL overtravel

73
Q

If the _______________ combination falls below the _______ _______ ________, the conversion protection system will stop forward nacelle conversion until the aircraft enters the lower conversion corridor limits.

A

Nacelle/airspeed

Low speed boundary

74
Q

The __________ interfaces with the __________ to enhance the basic control functions and provide improved handling qualities.

A

AFCS

PFCS

75
Q

No. 3 VFG is driven by the ________ ________. No. 4 VFG is driven by the __________.

A

Left TAGB

MWGB

76
Q

In flight, at 80% charge, the battery provides _______ minutes of __________ power for flight essential equipment in the event of a total primary ______ power failure.

A

20
Emergency
DC

77
Q

The APU provides 300 shaft horsepower to drive the MWGB, and in turn the MWGB drives CFG No. 1, the ______ hydraulic pump, and the _________ to supply _____________, hydraulic, and __________ power for ground checkout, main engine starting, and Blade Fold/Wing Stow.

A

No. 2
SDC
electrical
Pneumatic

78
Q

The OBOGGS will convert partially conditioned air into sufficient oxygen for ___________ crewmembers under all _____________ and ____________ conditions.

A

Four
Temperature
Altitude

79
Q

The landing gear is operated by hydraulic actuators supplied by the 5000 psi _______ hydraulic system.

A

No. 3

80
Q

A hydraulic power steering unit mounted on the shock strut provides shimmy dampening protection at all times and ________ left and right steering authority when power steering is selected.

A

70°

81
Q

If the landing gear is down and airspeed exceeds ________, the warning light in the control lever will come on. Also a ______________ caution will be displayed.

A

140

LG DN A/S EXCEEDED

82
Q

If the handle is in the UP position, airspeed is below_______, and the radar altitude is below ______ ft, the landing gear lever light will flash and a tone will be heard in both pilot’s headsets

A

60 KCAS

200

83
Q

The ________ _________ _________ provides MLG brake pressure when the hydraulic system No. 3 pump is not operating.

A

Back-up brake system

84
Q

The back-up brake system is capable of holding the aircraft on a _____ ° slope under a no-_______ condition at maximum gross weight.

A

10

No-leak

85
Q

The nose wheel steering system can be operated to provide three modes of NLG operation: _______ _______, _______ _______ _______, and _______ _______.

A

Power steering
Nose wheel lock
Full swivel

86
Q

A _______ _______ _______ _______ (_______), located on each proprotor central deice distributor, controls and sequences the operation of the blade fold system by responding to signals from the _______ and inputs from the blade fold proximity sensors.

A

Blade fold control unit (BFCU)

Mission computer

87
Q

When the T-handle is moved to the _______ position, fuel to the engine is shut off, backup ______ power is removed, _______ _______ to the EAPS blowers is removed, and the nacelle electrically actuated fire doors, located on the forward bottom and inboard side of each nacelle, are _________.

A

Arm
FADEC
Hydraulic pressure
Closed

88
Q

Upon detection of a fire in the _______ area or the inboard aft wing cove areas, the system will _______ shutdown the _____ (if it is operating) and the gas generators in the area of the fire will be activated by the _______ in a predetermined sequence.

A

Mid-wing
Automatically
APU
WFPC

89
Q

The Vibration Structural Life and Engine Diagnostics System provides information to both the operator and maintainer regarding _________, _________ ________ and ________ _________ and ___________.

A

Vibration
Structural life
Rotor track
Balance

90
Q

When jettisoning a window/hatch from inside the aircraft, ensure to _________ _________ from the window / hatch with _________ _________.

A

Face away

Visor down

91
Q

To operate the ramp in flight with the landing gear retracted, it is necessary to open the __________ ________ _____________.

A

Utility isolation valve

92
Q

The _____________ ______________ _________________ _________________ suppresses cockpit and cabin vibration by reducing rotor blade passage vibration frequencies.

A

Active vibration suppression system (AVSS)

93
Q

Maximum brake application is _____ kts.

A

60

94
Q

Maximum taxi turn speed is _____ kts.

A

20

95
Q

Maximum taxi/takeoff to prepared hard surfaces to include AM-2 matting is _____ kts.

A

90

96
Q

Maximum touchdown is _____ kts.

A

100

97
Q

Minimum landing nacelle is _____ °.

A

75

98
Q

Maximum slope landing/takeoff (all directions) is _____°.

A

9

99
Q

Maximum airspeed for extension/retraction of landing gear is __________.

A

140

100
Q

Maximum airspeed for operation with landing gear extended is _____ KCAS.

A

150

101
Q

Maximum speed with ramp open is __________.

A

260 KCAS

102
Q

The external cargo hook doors are limited to _______ KCAS latched open and shall not be opened or closed above _____ KCAS.

A

280

80

103
Q

Maximum angle of bank is _________ ° in descending flight.

A

60

104
Q

If the crewmember has not functioned as a crewmember during the last _____ month period, the crewmember will be required to satisfactorily complete a NATOPS evaluation to regain currency.

A

6

105
Q

If no engine _______ _______ is indicated after _______ ________ of starter rotation, abort start and investigate cause.

A

Oil pressure

30 seconds

106
Q

Hot start indicated by:

a. MGT> _______ for more than 1 second
b. MGT > ______ for more than 3 seconds
c. MGT> ______ steady state.

A

835
807
779

107
Q

Power steering is lost if the ____________ is outside the _____ ° deflection limit.

A

Nose gear

75

108
Q

Interim power activates at ______ ° nacelle or ______ KCAS. Upon deactivation, Nr will reduce to ______% and the aircraft will have a tendency to _________.

A

70
60
100
Settle

109
Q

Downwind landings will not be made with tailwind components exceeding _______ kts.

A

20

110
Q

At airspeeds less than ________, descent rate shall not exceed____________.

A

40 KCAS

800 FPM

111
Q

Minimum entry altitude of _________ ft AGL needed for practice stall.

A

5000

112
Q

Ensure Ng decreases to 0%. If residual Ng persists, select _______________ to prevent loss of engine oil.

A

HYD 3 OFF

113
Q

During conversions the lead slows to ______ KCAS prior to autobeep.

A

170

114
Q

Immediately cease aerial refueling (normal disconnect) and cease refueling operations if during aerial refueling operations any of the following fuel levels are exceeded:
Feed tanks _________ lbs
Forward sponson tanks _________ lbs
Aft sponson tank _________ lbs.

A

650
3400
2150

115
Q

Once cleared to the pre-contact position, refueling checklists completed, assume a position ____ to ____ ft in trail of the _______ with the refueling probe in line in both the lateral and vertical reference planes.

A

10-15 ft

Drogue

116
Q

During aerial refueling, disengagement from a successful contact is accomplished by reducing power and backing out at a _______ to _____ kt separation rate.

A

3-5

117
Q

Maneuvering during VTOL mode flight with relative winds greater than ________ kts may lead to pitch-up with sideslip.

A

20

118
Q

In airplane mode flight above _________ KCAS, the upper conversion protection boundary prevents the nacelles from moving off the downstops.

A

200

119
Q

By established convention, _________ mode is defined by flight nacelle angles from ______ to _______ °.

A

VTOL

85-95

120
Q

Run-on landings are recommended at ____________ nacelle or higher.

A

85°

121
Q

Generators will trip off below approximately ________% Nr.

A

80% VFG

67-72% CFG

122
Q

With the _________ _________ _________, all structural loads limiting functions are disabled allowing the pilot to maneuver beyond design limit loads, however, the flapping controller and TCRS remain active.

A

AFCS failed off

123
Q

“Land immediately” is defined as executing a landing _______________ __________.

A

Without delay

124
Q

“Maneuver severity—Reduce” is defined as flying the aircraft to minimize ________ ________ and _______ _________ __________ from the pilot.

A

Aggressive maneuvering

Flight control commands

125
Q

Emergency Shutdown

A
  1. ECLs - Off (Simultaneously)
  2. T-Handles - Arm
  3. Rotor Brake - On
  4. APU - Stop (As required)
  5. Battery - Off
  6. Egress as required
126
Q

Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles (greater than 60°).

A
  1. TCL – Full Aft
  2. Nacelles – Max Rate to Aft Stop
  3. Airspeed – 120 KCAS
  4. Flaps – 0°
  5. APU – EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
  6. Landing Gear - Down
    To arrest sink rate
  7. Flare - Execute
    Immediately prior to touchdown, to cushion landing:
  8. Landing Attitude - Set
  9. TCL – Full Forward1. TCL – Full Aft
  10. Nacelles – Maximum Rate to Aft Stop
  11. Airspeed – 110 KCAS
  12. Flaps – O Degrees
  13. APU – EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
  14. Landing Gear - Down
    At 150 ft AGL:
    Immediately prior to touchdown, to cushion landing:
  15. Cyclic - Flare, level prior to impact
  16. TCL – Full Forward
127
Q

Dual Engine Failure in Flight, Nacelles (less than 60 °)

A
  1. TCL - Full aft
  2. Nacelles - Max rate to downstop, then 84% Nr
  3. Airspeed - 170 KCAS
  4. Flaps - Auto
  5. APU - EMERG RUN/ENGAGE
  6. ELP - Intercept
  7. Landing gear - EMERG DOWN (as required)(allow 20 seconds for extension)
    At approximately 400-200 ft AGL:
  8. Mild flare - Execute, holding 8-10° nose up. Expect airspeed to decay to 120-115 KCAS on touchdown.
128
Q

Engine fire in flight

A 
1. Single engine profile - Establish
If fire is confirmed:
2. ECL (affected engine) - Off
3. T-handle (affected engine) - Arm
If fire persists:
4. DISCHARGE button - Press
If fire persists:
5. Land immediately
129
Q

Gearbox impending failure

A

If secondary indications confirm impending gearbox failure:

1. Land immediately

130
Q

In the case of _______ oil pressure lost, the ELS is designed to provide _____ ________ of _____________ lubrication in the event the primary lubrication systems fails.

A

PRGB
30 minutes
Emergency

131
Q

If right _______ oil pressure is lost, the No.2 CFG will fail within minutes. Switch the No.2 CFG off.

A

TAGB

132
Q

Uncommanded Nacelle Movement (or Nacelle Control Switch Failure)

A
  1. NAC CONTR switches (both sides) - Attempt to override nacelle motion
  2. NAC CONTR DSBL switches - DSBL
133
Q

____________ is not approved for IFR flight and will not be used to satisfy enroute or terminal area navigation (RNAV) requirements.

A

GPS

134
Q

_________ _____________ data may be unreliable when Nr = 84%.

A

ILS glideslope

135
Q

An offset waypoint is a waypoint whose position is specified relative to another ___________ waypoint called a ______________ waypoint.

A

Stationary

Master

136
Q

The _________ __________ coincides with the point of clearance or impact that is displayed in the underlaid FLIR video scene.

A

Flight path vector (FPV)

137
Q

Threats in the database are identified individually by threat _________, not by threat ___________.

A

Number

Tag

138
Q

Effective employment of the MV-22 weapon system operationally and tactically requires proper coordination of the aircraft commander, copilot, crewchief, and __________ __________ __________.

A

Cockpit management system

MV-22 Osprey (7 decks)

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