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P8A-Poseidon > NATOPS (CLOSED) > Flashcards

NATOPS (CLOSED) Flashcards

0
Q

On the ground, do not operate the service or entry door in winds more than __ knots. Do not let the door stay open in winds more than __ knots. Injuries to persons or damage to equipment can occur.

A

40; 65

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1
Q

The correct visual indication of flowing oxygen from a crewmember oxygen mask panel is:

A

Yellow cross

OXY ON flag appears when oxygen mask doors are opened

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2
Q

(T/F) There is no need to stow the handrail extensions prior to retracting the airstair.

A

False

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3
Q

How many and at what locations are liferafts stored onboard the aircraft?

A

2; Strapped to the Crew Oxygen enclosure and the Mid Cabin Mission Storage enclosure

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4
Q

(T/F) Attempting to execute an EXT Jettison or an ALL Jettison may result in an asymmetric stores configuration.

A

True

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5
Q

(T/F) Do not attempt to reset a launcher with a hung buoy condition.

A

True

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6
Q

(T/F) Headsets shall be worn and seatbelts fastened during flight Condition I.

A

False

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7
Q

During Condition V, all crewmembers and passengers shall take assigned ditching stations with headsets on and _____ selected.

A

ICS Net 1

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8
Q

Applying power to mission equipment if either the FWD or AFT cabin temperatures exceed ___ may cause damage to mission systems equipment.

A

92 F

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9
Q

In the event of a fire indication onboard the aircraft (with a full tactical crew), the COTAC will:

A

Check SPDS for tripped SSPCs

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10
Q

There are __ first aid kits readily available onboard the aircraft.

A

2

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11
Q

The crash axe is located:

A

In the flight deck

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12
Q

List the locations of the first-aid kits.

A
  1. Flight deck - behind pilot seat

2. Aft cabin

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13
Q

_____ is used to rapidly sanitize the mission equipment, including destruction of classified material and zeroization of crypto keys(s).

A

Emergency Destruction Procedure

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14
Q

_____ is used to quickly sanitize the mission equipment and zeroize crypto key(s) but does not require destruction of classified material or crypto key.

A

Rapid Sanitization

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15
Q

(T/F) Removing MCDS and sensor storage media before securing TOMS software cause media corruption.

A

True

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16
Q

There are __ ditching stations.

A

21

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17
Q

(T/F) In the event of a ditch, do not open the Aft Egress door, as it may allow the aircraft to sink at a faster rate.

A

True

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18
Q

(T/F) Portable oxygen bottles are equipped with a microphone that can be attached to the service interphone/ICS system to establish communications.

A

True

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19
Q

There are __ portable 22 cu.-ft. capacity oxygen bottles onboards.

A

5

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20
Q

(T/F) If a system is powered up using the OPERATIONS menu page and none of the system’s SSPCs are TRIPPED, you cannot use the SSPC menu pages to secure component power to the system.

A

True

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21
Q

(T/F) There is no in-flight capability to clear a hung sonobuoy.

A

True

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22
Q

(T/F) If the crew cannot readily determine if a sonobuoy was launched or is stuck in the launcher, the first step taken is to unlock the affected SRL by actuating the ACP UNLOCK/LOCK switch.

A

False

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23
Q

How much oxygen does the lavatory mini oxygen bottle provide?

A

The oxygen quantity is sufficient to allow a person to safely move from the lavatory to one of the positions equipped with a larger capacity oxygen system.

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24
Q

(T/F) The lavatory mini oxygen mask is suitable for fighting a fire.

A

False

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25
Q

(T/F) Do not transmit on the HF radio if personnel can touch the airplane exterior or are using external headsets.

A

True

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26
Q

(T/F) Do not apply power to the SMS using the ALL or SONOBUOY ALL LSKs. This may enable inadvertent launch of a loaded sonobuoy on the ground.

A

True

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27
Q

If a Mk 54 station is RED on the Kill Stores tab, try to clear the fault by performing an _____ on the weapon.

A

IBIT

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28
Q

(T/F) INMARSAT voice communications are only available to the flight deck.

A

True

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29
Q

(T/F) IAW NTRP 3-22.4 P-8A (NATIP), when conducting pre-flight exterior weapons inspection (weapons loaded), ensure rack safety pins are installed at all stations where weapons are present.

A

False (rack safety pins not mentioned in NATIP 12-82)

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30
Q

(T/F) Anytime the weapons bay door is open and hydraulic power is required, an outside observer shall be posted to ensure that the weapons bay door area remains clear.

A

True

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31
Q

Weapons selected for selective jettison are indicated by a _____ border on the Stores Status Display.

A

Blue and White

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32
Q

(T/F) The SMS will jettison stores even when the weight-on-wheels (WOW) relay indicates an on ground condition.

A

(FCOM?) False

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33
Q

(T/F) Do not fire pneumatic ejectors without a store in place.

A

(FCOM?) True

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34
Q

(T/F) Once the Weapons Operator confirms the weapon inventory, the CONFIRM WEAPON LOAD button is unavailable and corrections to the weapons inventory cannot be made unless the SMS is restarted.

A

True

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35
Q

(T/F) The EGIs must be operating for the mission subsystems to operate properly.

A

True

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36
Q

(T/F) Failure to turn on the Weapons Bay Heater if the weapons bay temperature is below the storage temperature limit of any loaded store may result in damage to affected stores.

A

True

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37
Q

Cold weather survival suit location for ditching stations 1-7 are located at:

A

Mid-Cabin Storage

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38
Q

(T/F) When assigning ditching stations, additional aircrew should be assigned to stations as far aft as possible.

A

False

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39
Q

Assuming the ditching station is assigned, which station is responsible for the aft first-aid kit?

A

Station 20

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40
Q

Select the appropriate ditching stations assigned to the FWD service door evacuation station (select all that apply):

A

1-4; 10-15

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41
Q

Select the appropriate ditching stations assigned to the STBD Overwing evacuation station (select all that apply):

A

5-9; 16-21

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42
Q

The _____ is responsible for sending the emergency message during a ditch (select all that apply).

A

PM; CTC

43
Q

(T/F) The LPU should be worn on the inside of the anti-exposure suit.

A

False

44
Q

The Mk 79 Mod 0 or Mk 79 Mod 2 signal kit consists of one pencil-type projector and ___ signal cartridges. If installed, the Distress Signal Kit is stowed in the flare gun pocket, located on the right side of the AIRSAVE vest. The pencil-type projector shall be stored in the _____ position.

A

seven; cocked

45
Q

When operating the PRC-90, for maximum signal strength when transmitting or receiving, maintain the antenna in a ______ position.

A

vertical

46
Q

The _____ is the primary system for obstacle avoidance and should be configured for use in the MOSA environment prior to descending below MOSA.

A

radar

47
Q

When operating below MOSA, calls are required on crew selected NET at:

A

25nm, 15nm, 10nm, and every mile inside 10 nm up to CPA.

48
Q

MOSA is defined as ______.

A

1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 25nm of the aircraft.

49
Q

(T/F) Inside of 10nm, the EWO initiates and makes all calls. Flight deck and COTAC shall acknowledge all calls made by the EWO.

A

True

50
Q

The COTAC initiates calls at 25 nm, 15 nm, and 10 nm stating (select all that apply):

A

MOSA + altitude, Range and bearing to nearest obstruction or closest point of land

51
Q

When operating in a stand-off environment, calls are required on crew selected NET at ______.

A

25nm, 15nm, 10nm, and every mile inside of 10nm up to CPA.

52
Q

To ensure crew safety, a Closest Point of Approach (CPA) range shall be identified prior to descending below MOSA. List the three factors that the COTAC, Pilot Monitoring, and EWO shall consider when determining a CPA distance.

A

aircraft closure speed/turn radius, navigation error, surrounding lower terrain.

53
Q

The distances of the MOSA boundaries should be measured from the obstruction or land and will be distances of _____.

A

15nm (yellow dashed boundary), 10nm (orange dashed boundary), and at CPA (red dashed boundary)

54
Q

Standoff calls shall consist of:

A

Standoff, Range and bearing to standoff boundary

55
Q

If CPA is reached in a standoff environment, the _____ shall announce ______.

A

COTAC; “CPA, CPA, CPA”

56
Q

Standoff boundary distances shall be measured from the required standoff at:

A

15nm (yellow dashed boundary), 10nm (orange dashed boundary), and at CPA (red dashed boundary). The standoff shall be displayed as a red solid boundary.

57
Q

(T/F) Good judgment should be exercised before deciding on an emergency descent in the case of a fuselage fire. When oxygen is provided for the entire crew, staying at high altitude and depressurizing may help to control fuselage fires.

A

True

58
Q

During a smoke/fire/fumes emergency, the TACCO will establish flight-crew communications on MAP set to ____.

A

PA

59
Q

During a smoke/fire/fumes emergency, the COTAC will connect headset with in-line keying device to MAP at ______ station, and establish aircrew communications on ______.

A

Starboard observer; ALL CALL

60
Q

(T/F) There is no advanced indication that the portable oxygen supply is about to be exhausted.

A

True

61
Q

(T/F) Touching any MCDS media storage component before completing Electrostatic Discharge Sensitive (ESDS) device handling procedures may cause an electrostatic discharge which can cause damage to either MCDS media or media storage components.

A

True

62
Q

Prior to selecting SATCOM mode on the SATCOM TD, it is necessary to set the radio to _____ using the MAP in order to select the device and key.

A

secure

63
Q

State the memory items in the case of a Smoke, Fire, or Fumes.

A
  1. Alert the crew and execute firefighting duties

2. Oxygen mask and regulator - ON, 100% (as required)

64
Q

Assuming you are not in the lavatory and the DON OXYGEN sign illuminates in the cabin, you should _____ and _____.

A
  1. Don oxygen mask and verify regulator is set to 100%

2. Establish crew communications

65
Q

(T/F) In order to prevent inadvertent radiation from the MIDS antenna when it is powered ON at SPDS, ensure that the MIDS switch at the Master Zeroize Panel is in OFF or STANDBY or that the TACAN is in RCV ONLY.

A

True

66
Q

(T/F) PA permission for individual MAP consoles can be modified through the COMM PID.

A

False

67
Q

____ takes precedence over all other communications at the MAP.

A

ALL CALL

68
Q

(T/F) Only one IC segment may be placed in active TX mode at a time.

A

True

69
Q

To call the flight deck from the cabin handset (service interphone), dial __.

A

2

70
Q

The Find Failure (FND FLR) button can display up to __ SSPCs.

A

24

71
Q

When operating in flight mode, an individual SSPC, is allowed to be reset ___ after tripping due to overcurrent conditions in a single flight.

A

Twice

72
Q

There are __ portable fire extinguishers located throughout the main cabin, flight deck, and galley area.

A

6

73
Q

(T/F) A fire extinguished by Halon may produce decomposition by-products, characterized by a sharp acrid odor that may be harmful.

A

True

74
Q

(T/F) If the forward entry door handle is not in the closed position in flight, attempt to reset the door handle by opening and closing the door.

A

False

75
Q

The three common sources of smoke, fire, or fumes in flight are:

A

Electronic equipment, air conditioning system, and Lavatory.

76
Q

After completing no more than __ full sweeps of the main cabin, the mission crew notifies the flight deck and reevaluates the Smoke, Fire, Fumes type and source.

A

3

77
Q

Prepare for bailout is signaled when:

A

Parachutes are not installed on the aircraft

78
Q

(T/F) Radar crypto keys need to be reloaded after engine starts.

A

True

79
Q

(T/F) Do not use the CEIOB Sanitize switch except for an emergency. The destructive erase consists of clearing the memory and the applying an overvoltage destroying lead wires to memory and possibly memory cell locations.

A

True

80
Q

An SSPC in _____ status shall not be reset without consulting maintenance or injury and/or fire may occur.

A

LOCKOUT

81
Q

(T/F) Mission equipment may be routinely shutdown using the Rack Power Cutoff Switch as equipment secured via this method still goes through normal software shutdown.

A

False

82
Q

A ____ indication on the health status indicator of a subsystem means that the subsystem is in a degraded state, or is providing invalid data and a _____ indication means the subsystem health is not known or providing no response.

A

yellow; grey

83
Q

_____ SSPCs have priority over _____ SSPCs on the Find Failure (FND FLR) page on SPDS.

A

Tripped; Lockout

84
Q

(T/F) When the ECS Draw-Thru is in the smoke clearing mode, the radar fan is automatically placed in the OFF mode.

A

True

85
Q

(T/F) Radar crypto keys are zeroized at the E810 rack.

A

False

86
Q

The ability to use logical and sound judgement based on the information available.

A

Decision Making

87
Q

The ability to make long-term and contingency plans and to coordinate, allocate, and monitor aircrew and aircraft resources.

A

Mission Analysis

88
Q

The ability to direct and coordinate the activities of other crew members and to encourage the aircrew to act together as a team.

A

Leadership

89
Q

(T/F) The message releasing authority may be delegated to the other members of the aircrew.

A

True

90
Q

A maximum of ____ days may elapse between the date of the initial ground evaluation is commenced and the date the evaluation flight is satisfactorily completed.

A

60

91
Q

The minimum grade required on the open book is ________ and the closed book is _____.

A

3.5; 3.3

92
Q

Which of the following is not inspected by the person doing forward cabin duties during a SFF?

A

E810

93
Q

There are ____ escape ropes on the aircraft.

A

3

94
Q

The night end of the MK124 MOD 0 is distinguished by_______?

A

Two raised bumps

95
Q

(T/F) The PRC-149 defaults to mute when switching between modes.

A

True

96
Q

(T/F) Use of the standby control switch bypasses all safety circuits for the airstair and can cause damage when retracting the airstair.

A

True

97
Q

Before airstair retraction the following must be done (select all that apply):

A
  1. Release handrail extensions
  2. Release the inner tube extend latch (forward handrail only) and collapse the handrail extensions
  3. Secure the extensions to their stowed positions on the upper handrails
98
Q

A ____________ is an operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.

A

Warning

99
Q

List the four recovery steps needed if a launcher failure LED is illuminated at the ACP and the launcher has a red border on the stores pep at the MCW

A
  1. Manually lock launcher
  2. Command lock via ACP
  3. Command OIB via ACP, allow 60 seconds to complete
  4. If it fails cycle power to the launcher at SPDS
100
Q

(T/F) Jettison is available during MCDS start-up mode.

A

False

101
Q

The weapon bay door switch on the WCP in the flight station is a two positioned switch that is disabled by the ____________ when on deck.

A

Weight on Wheels switch

102
Q

(T/F) Jettison all and external jettison are offline functions independent of the MCDS .

A

True

103
Q

State the memory items for an APU fire if you are inside the aircraft:

A
  1. APU fire switch - pull, rotate to the stop (left or right) and hold for one second
  2. APU switch - OFF
104
Q

The INMARSAT system uses the _____ for in-line data encryption via the MCDS.

A

KG-175

P8A-Poseidon (2 decks)

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