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P8A-Poseidon > NATOPS > Flashcards

NATOPS Flashcards

0
Q

The minimum safe distances for Radar HERP, HERF, and HERO are:

A

169, 95, 302

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1
Q

Emergency Exit lights will operate for a minimum of __ minutes on battery power. With airplane power available, the battery packs will fully recharge in __ minutes.

A

10, 90

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2
Q

HF radio safe distances are ___, ___, and ___ for HERP, HERF, and HERO respectively.

A

17 (10 feet from aircraft hull), 98, 285 feet

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3
Q

The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when the _____ is opened and disables the _____.

A

Left oxygen mask panel door; boom microphone

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4
Q

There are __ Mission Audio Panels (MAPs) available on the P-8A.

A

11

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5
Q

(T/F) Zeroizing the crypto key is possible even with power secured to the receiving component.

A

False

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6
Q

(T/F) The main cabin smoke detection system is not interfaced with the flight cabin warning systems. Mission crew must inform the flight crew whenever responding to main cabin smoke detection alarms.

A

True

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7
Q

List three indications of an APU fire (on the ground only):

A

The fire bell sounds (flight deck), Master WARN lights illuminate, The wheel well APU fire warning horn sounds and the wheel well APU fire warning light flashes.

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8
Q

Cabin altitude of 15,000 feet or higher will trigger an automatic shutdown of the _____. Power is restored when cabin altitude is less than 11,000’, but crypto keys must be reloaded.

A

IFF Interogator

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9
Q

While investigating a damaged Observer window, it is determined that the outer pane is cracked. What steps are required?

A

Continue normal operation

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10
Q

In the ECS Draw-Thru low flow situation, if the aft cabin temperature exceeds ___, continue to decrease mission systems load.

A

80

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11
Q

The APU ground control panel is located in the _____.

A

Right main wheel well

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12
Q

(T/F) Placing the ECS draw-thru system in smoke clearing mode secures power to the radar fan.

A

True

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13
Q

A hot start of the Stores Management System can take up to __ minutes.

A

3

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14
Q

A cold start of the Stores Management System can take up to __ minutes.

A

10

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15
Q

What four actions should operators perform during Condition III checks?

A

ICS check, obtain equipment health status, check alerts, clear any unnecessary alerts.

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16
Q

(T/F) To select ALL CALL on the MAP, push in the OPER/CALL volume control.

A

False

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17
Q

Emergency Destruct and Rapid Sanitization procedures require __ crew members to complete.

A

6

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18
Q

Do not use the ____ Sanitize switches except for an emergency.

A

CEIOB

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19
Q

(T/F) In an immediate (heavy gross weight) ditching, openings in the airplane may cause water to enter at high rates causing the airplane to settle in the water rapidly and will require a more rapid evacuation of all crewmembers.

A

True

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20
Q

______ is reponsible for launching the forward liferaft.

A

Station 3 (port observer)

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21
Q

The most likely cause of a cabin fire is:

A

(Check QRH) A fault in the electric or electronic equipment.

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22
Q

List two characteristics of a fire in the air conditioning system.

A

Thick, oily smoke emanating from multiple cabin air conditioning gaspers. Lack of associated equipment failure indications, such as overheat indications, and tripped circuit breakers or SSPCs.

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23
Q

In the event of smoke, fire, or fumes emergency (known or unknown), no more than __ passes should be completed prior to informing the flight crew of the initial assessment.

A

3

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24
Q

The portable oxygen bottles, when fully charged, provide approximately __ minutes of usable (100%) oxygen at moderate work loads at sea level.

A

28

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25
Q

(T/F) Portable oxygen bottles flash “Low” for 1 minute prior to supply being exhausted.

A

False

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26
Q

If needed the portable oxygen bottles can provide approximately __ minutes of usable oxygen at 25,000 ft cabin altitude.

A

120

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27
Q

Name two indications of a sonobuoy release failure observed at an MCW.

A
  1. A Red Border around failed launcher and sonobuoy (Search Stores PEP)
  2. System Alerts (red-warning)
    a. SRL “x” Unsuccessful Launch
    b. SSL “x” Unsuccessful Launch
  3. Mission Alerts (amber-caution)
    a. Buoy Release Aborted
    b. Search Stores Release Aborted
    c. Sonobuoy Release Assumed
    d. Release Sonobuoy From SLS Failed.
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28
Q

The indications of cabin altitude exceeding 10,000 feet in the main cabin are:

A
  1. DON OXYGEN signs throughout the main cabin and lavatory are illuminated
  2. A Hi/Lo chime sounds three times over the PA and ICS
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29
Q

The crew oxygen systems provide enough oxygen to protect a full crew of 21 in a smoke and fumes environment for ___ at sea level.

A

25 minutes

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30
Q

The fixed oxygen system provides for a 9 member mission crew to operate for ___ at 25,000 feet cabin altitude.

A

3.5 hours

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31
Q

MIDS RF radiation standoffs for HERP, HERF, and HERO are (rounded up to nearest foot):

A

5, 1, 20

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32
Q

Before entering the weapons bay, verify:

A
  1. Weapons Bay Door Safety A/B switched are in OFF position
  2. Weapons Bay door safety lockout pin installed
  3. Weapons Bay door switch is in the STOP position
  4. WBSD indicator (red) is extinguished
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33
Q

(T/F) You must run the ECS Draw-Thru Alarm Operational Test, even if the system is already operational.

A

False

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34
Q

The Emergency Exit and Crew Sign tests draw battery power. Do not conduct _____ and limit test duration to __ minutes or less.

A

Multiple Tests; 10

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35
Q

During pre-flight, the _____ must be powered and providing accurate _____ before the remaining MCDS components are powered.

A

Time Distrubution System (TDS); time

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36
Q

MCDS can take up to __ minutes to complete start-up.

A

17

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37
Q

Wait at least __ minutes before securing the ECS Draw-Thru system to allow time for the mission systems to properly cool down.

A

10

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38
Q

With the KY100 online, failure to turn the HF radio _____ off before initiating secure voice communication will cause the HF radio to silence all incoming secure voice communications.

A

Squelch

39
Q

SATCOM RF radiation standoffs for HERP, HERF, and HERO are:

A

10; 1; 81’

40
Q

(T/F) Only one PU can be checked for Rx ASW Summary on Link 11.

A

True

41
Q

Proximity Sensor Electronic Unit (PSEU) safety interlocks prevent:

A

(FCOM?)

  1. Transmission of RF power whenever the weight is on wheels
  2. Antenna rotation whenever the radome is open
42
Q

INMARSAT IP data connectivity is at a rate of:

A

Up to 128 kb/sec

43
Q

The CDL point-to-point data link supports LOS connectivity at a range of ___ nm and a data rate up to ____ Mbps

A

150; 44.73

44
Q

The CDL subsystem contains __ directional antenna(s) and __ omni antenna(s).

A

2; 1

45
Q

List 3 components Bulk MCDS applies power to:

A

TACLANE, Power Converter, Secure Network Server, Secure Switching Unit

46
Q

When inspecting a weapons rack with a loaded weapon, ensure the download handle is in the _____ position.

A

Vertical

47
Q

Failure to place the BRU Power Switch in the ___ position will disable weapon release.

A

On

48
Q

The SMS provides emergency jettison of all kill stores within __ seconds of command, including opening and closing time.

A

20

49
Q

The High Pressure Air Compressor Systems (HPAC) provide ____ psi of high pressure dry air to BRUs.

A

5000

50
Q

If primary power is lost, the EGIs continues to operate for another ___ on back-up power.

A

10 seconds

51
Q

The EGIs cannot be aligned above __ degrees latitude.

A

80

52
Q

For mid-cabin firefighting duties, what must be done with the lights at the mid-cabin control panel?

A

Emergency Exit Lights - ON, MID and AFT cabin lighting set to BRIGHT

53
Q

For forward-cabin firefighting duties, what must be inspected in the flight station?

A

P6 and P18 circuit breaker panels

54
Q

Weapons release failure is indicated at the MCW by (list 5):

A
  1. Weapon(s) icon visible at selected station (Kill Stores PEP)
  2. HUNG Flag (red) adjacent to selected station (Kill Stores PEP)
  3. System Alerts (red-warning):
    a. Sta “x” HUNG Store (1-11)
    b. Sta “x” Ejector Status Fail (1-11)
    c. Sta “x” RELEASE FAIL (5-9)
  4. Mission Alerts (amber-caution):
    a. Release Finalization Failed
    b. Jettison Failed
    c. Weapon Release Not Initiated
    d. Launch Aborted: Weapon Failed
55
Q

The capture gate for a designated Weapons Fly-to-Point is _____.

A

100 yards, +/- 5 degrees

56
Q

The capture gate for an Expendable Fly-to-Point is _____.

A

500 yds

57
Q

After Powering on the APY-10 Radar, what additional step needs to be completed in addition to the procedures in the FCOM? (FCIF)

A

Wait 45 seconds, then press the Master BITE Reset button on the ACE (located in E870 bay)

58
Q

(T/F) If you start the system to charge the APS and MCDS is OFF, leave SMC CH A AND SMC CH B selections OFF until MCDS is ON. (FCIF and future APCL)

A

True

59
Q

Prior to selecting SATCOM mode on the SATCOM TD, it is necessary to set the radio to _____ using the MAP in order to select the device and key.

A

secure

60
Q

Prepare for Bailout is signaled when:

A

Parachutes are not installed on the aircraft.

61
Q

The MMAP, located in rack _____, is a tie point for the emergency intercom that connects all users in the event that the airplane is operating on battery power and allows for use of _____.

A

E-810; ALL CALL

62
Q

What are the 2 indications in the main cabin alerting the crew that cabin altitude has exceeded 10,000 feet?

A
  1. DON OXYGEN signs throughout the main cabin and lavatory are illuminated (14 total)
  2. A Hi/Lo chime sounds three times over PA and ICS
63
Q

Cooling air is required whenever electrical power is applied to mission equipment. Do not secure the _____ system until all mission equipment is secured.

A

ECS Draw-Thru

64
Q

(T/F) Failure to place the BRU Power Switch in the ON position will disable weapon release. However, weapons or stores loaded at that station can still be jettisoned in flight.

A

False

65
Q

In the Emergency Destruction Procedure, the _____ is responsible for using the fire axe to destroy both the ESM recorder flash drive and CIK key.

A

COTAC/EWO1(IC3)

66
Q

To prevent injury or death, do not enter the weapons bay unless:

A
  1. The Weapons Bay DOOR switch is in the STOP position
  2. The WBDS power indicator (red) is extinguished
  3. The WEAPONS BAY DOOR SAFETY A/B switches are in the OFF position
  4. The weapons bay door safety lockout pin is installed
67
Q

For block 9 and higher software, MAP configuration is accessed through which of the following:

A

Selecting ICS Config under the COMM tab

68
Q

The _____ performs the following major functions: electrical power distribution, control and protection to mission systems, the fuel subsystem, and selected aircraft utility systems.

A

SPDS

69
Q

Using _____, an operator can automatically initiate point-to-point or point-to-multipoint calls. The HF radio can be programmed to scan one or more frequencies, pick the best frequency for operation, and switch to voice or data operation inmediately upon link establishment.

A

Automatic Link Establishment (ALE)

70
Q

When the operational mode of a V/UHF radio is changed to Sonobuoy Control via the V/UHF TD, the AIU power setting is set at _____.

A

39.8 watts

71
Q

List the applications that can be used by INMARSAT (select all that apply):

A

Chat, Email, Browser

72
Q

The P-8A is only able to connect to the SIPRNET with the INMARSAT via the _______.

A

Naval Computer and Telecommunications Area Master Station (NCTAMS) and the Automated Digital Network System (ANDS) located at that station.

73
Q

The INMARSAT antenna is steered based on positional information originated from the _____.

A

Left Air Data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU)

74
Q

INMARSAT components complete initialization within __ minutes of applying power and __ minutes of cycling power.

A

3.5; 2.3

75
Q

_________shall not be powered ON unless the EGIs are operational or a valid time signal will not be sent to the MCDS.

A

Time Distribution System (TDS)

76
Q

The INMARSAT antenna is located on ______.

A

Vertical stabilizer

77
Q

What components are controlled by SCU 7? (Select all that apply)

A
  1. SRL X
  2. SSL 1
  3. SRL Y
  4. Aft Pneumatic Source (APS)
78
Q

(T/F) The minimum pneumatic pressure required for a weapon launch is 3,800 psi.

A

True

79
Q

With the BRU-X14 power switch on, this enables ________ power and _____________ is available.

A

RIFL; in flight weapon release

80
Q

(T/F) The BRU interfaces on stations 5, 7, and 9 cannot be seen with weapons loaded.

A

True

81
Q

(T/F) Operating the doors in high-flow mode without using an engine or external hydraulic cart may result in damage to the weapons bay doors.

A

True

82
Q

(T/F) Jettison All and External Jettison are hardwired and can NOT be performed without the SMC or MCDS/TOMS energized.

A

False

83
Q

What is the highest priority SSPC on the FND FLR page of SPDS?

A

TRIPPED SSPCs

84
Q

The E840 rack contains the following drives (list all that apply):

A

SNS, NSS, DVR

85
Q

Prior to selecting SATCOM mode on the SATCOM TD, it is necessary to set the radio to _______ using the MAP.

A

Secure

86
Q

The PRC-149 sends out transmissions on what three frequencies in triple beacon mode?

A

121.5, 243.0, 406.025

87
Q

(T/F) Employment of the MK-39 MOD 2 EMATT is restricted to ___ KCAS max airspeed.

A

205

88
Q

On-station altitude is limited to ___ feet AGL.

A

200

89
Q

The RIFL solenoid energize when the following three conditions are met:

A
  1. RIFL 1 and/or RIFL 2 are present
  2. BRU power is ON
  3. Accumulator pressure is in range (>/=3800psi)
90
Q

The MASDR provides what functions (select all that apply):

A
  1. Two channel ICS recording

2. Recording and replay of up to 64 channels of acoustic active and passive sonobuoy data.

91
Q

When BRU power is on, a loaded weapon station is considered SAFE when (Select all that apply) :

A
  1. Mechanical Safety Handle Position Indicator (Red) is in SAFE/LOCKED position.
  2. Download Handle (black) is vertical.
  3. Hook position indicators are closed.
92
Q

The HSD 440 Terminal for the INMARSAT system is located:

A

Upper fuselage adjacent to the aft exit door

93
Q

(T/F) Do not use the zeroize panel 2 to zeroize the TACLANE. This action will zeroize all TACLANE crypto keys and configuration data requiring maintenance action to reload. Use the KG-175 TACLANE front panel to zeroize under normal conditions.

A

True

94
Q

The main components for the antenna subsystem located on top of the vertical stabilizer include (select all that apply):

A
  1. Antenna Control Unit (ACU)
  2. Diplexer/Low Noise Amplifier (D/LNA)
  3. INMARSAT Antenna

P8A-Poseidon (2 decks)

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