NATOPS Flashcards
Actuation of the engine crank switch above _________% rpm may shear the Air Turbine Starter shaft.
30
NATOPS p2-3
CAUTION: Ensure engine speed is below 30% N2 before actuating the engine crank
switch. Failure to do so may shear the air turbine starter shaft.
If both BLEED OFF cautions are on, what systems are no longer available?
NATOPS p12-12 WARNING: If both bleeds secured: — No OBOGS — No ECS or cabin pressurization — No anti‐g protection — No external fuel transfer — No crossbleed start — No throttle boost — No windshield anti‐ice/rain removal — AV AIR HOT caution may occur during approach — Canopy fogging may occur unless DEFOG handle is moved to HIGH
What is the Max engagement speed for E-28 arresting gear?
175 knots groundspeed
NATOPS p16-17
In a single engine condition, exceeding what AOA with the good engine in MAX afterburn may lead to loss of lateral and directional control with 1/2 flaps? With full flaps?
NATOPS p4-8
WARNING: During single engine operations at MIL or MAX, loss of lateral and directional control may occur above the following AOAs:
- Flaps FULL - 10° AOA
- Flaps HALF - 12° AOA
Takeoff should be avoided with an excess of how much standing water on the runway?
0.25 inch
NATOPS p7-23
CAUTION: Takeoff with significant standing water on runway has caused water ingestion which in extreme cases can cause engine stalls, flameouts, A/B blowouts, and/or engine FOD. Avoid standing water in excess of 0.25 inch.
Leading edge deflections of which (inboard or outboard leading edge flap) beyond the 4 degrees over-travel stop may result in an uncontrollable configuration below what speed?
250 KCAS
NATOPS p15-57
Failures that result in extreme inboard LEF leading edge up deflections are highly susceptible to departure at airspeeds below 250 KCAS.
With only the outboard section failed beyond limits the A/C has been shown to be fully controllable.
What does a CG caution indicate?
Fuel in what tanks are not sequencing properly?
Tanks 1 and 4 fuel distribution out of balance. CG may be further aft than normal.
NATOPS p12-15
Will the APU accumulator back up the emergency brake accumulator when the landing gear is emergency extended?
True
What may happen if the HYD ISOL switch is held to ORIDE for more than 10 seconds if the APU ACCUM caution does not clear?
Loss of HYD 2B fluid.
Upon encountering icing in flight, adjust airspeed targeting what temp and where?
At least +5 °C (+10 °C preferred) INLET TEMP on the DDI engine display.
NATOPS p20-2
For post departure dive recovery, how is minimum altitude loss achieved?
By selecting MAX AB and maintaining 25° to 35° AOA
until a positive rate of climb is established.
NATOPS p11-10
Does an “L BLD OFF” or “R BLD OFF” caution indicate the associated bleed valve is closed?
No. BLD OFF cautions indicate that the corresponding primary bleed air shutoff valve has been commanded closed and are not an indication of actual valve position. Valve(s) could still be open allowing bleed air to leak.
NATOPS p12-3
T/F: DCS symptoms may not be recognized immediately. Remaining on emergency oxygen until depleted and maintaining the lowest safe altitude minimizes the development of DCS.
True.
NATOPS p12-14
What is the optimum speed for ejection?
250 knots and below.
NATOPS p17-1(EJECTION)
After the first HUNG START, when may another start be attempted?
False
T/F: If visible moisture exists and temp is 45°F (7°C) or less, engine anti-ice switch should be on after engine start.
True.
NATOPS p20-1 (Extreme Weather Procedures)
For cold weather operations, avoid activating any hyd actuated system for how long after both engines are on line?
2 minutes
NATOPS p22-1 (Cold Weather Procedures)
What is required for the Emergency Jettison system to be operational?
You must have either the landing gear handle up or weight off wheels.
NATOPS p2-141
T/F: During recovery from a fully developed spin, full lateral stick should be maintained in direction of arrow until it disappears.
True.
NATOPS p11-15 (Flight Characteristics)
Excessive hydraulic system demands combined with single engine operation may exceed hydraulic system capacity and result in FCS reversion to MECH below what rpm?
85%
NATOPS p16-3 (Landing Emergencies)
T/F: After an Engine Stall condition, engine restart is recommended after it has been shutdown and the stall cleared.
False
What is required for a crossbleed start? (rpm & pph fuel flow)
For a crossbleed start, ensure APU switch is OFF and a minimum of 80% rpm and 1,900 pph fuel flow.
NATOPS p7-15 (Shore-Based Procedures)
What are the permissible accelerations during landing gear extension/retraction with the flaps HALF or FULL?
+0.5 g to +2.0 g symmetrical, +0.5 g to +1.5 g unsymmetrical
NATOPS p4-9 (Operating Limitations)
What supplies normal brake pressure?
HYD 2A
NATOPS p2-66 (Systems)
With a channel 2 or 4 failure, how do you activate emergency NWS?
Pull the failed channel circuit breaker, unlock the wings, and press the NWS button.
NATOPS p15-59 (Inflight Emergencies)
T/F: During an emergency catapult flyaway situation, raising the flaps will increase aircraft settle.
True.
NATOPS p14-2 (Takeoff Emergencies)
A planning link failure may cause a sudden swerve on touchdown in which direction? Is symmetrical braking the recommended technique to stop the aircraft?
Swerves in the direction of the failure. Use differential braking.
NATOPS p16-7 (Landing Emergencies)
T/F: SIM must be unboxed for the emergency jettison system to be operational.
False, that is a requirement for selective jettison.
NATOPS p2-141 (Systems)
Due to a possibility of misdiagnosing DCS and hypoxia systems, selecting ______________ to purge the cockpit of potential contaminants is necessary before removing the oxygen mask.
RAM/DUMP
T/F: Under normal circumstances, steady, light brake applications should be applied to avoid brake heating.
FALSE
“Steady, light brake applications should be avoided…”
NATOPS p7-27 (Shore-Based Procedures)
If the Single Bleed Warning procedure is not completed in its entirety, there exists a possibility of making yourself _______________.
Hypoxic
Ground idle rpm is
F404-GE-400: ________ to ________ %
F404-GE-402: ________ to ________ %
Ground idle rpm is
F404-GE-400: ________ to ________ %
F404-GE-402: ________ to ________ %
Flight idle rpm is
F404-GE-400: ________ to ________ %
F404-GE-402: ________ to ________ %
Flight idle rpm is
F404-GE-400: ________ to ________ %
F404-GE-402: ________ to ________ %
Max steady-state is
F404-GE-400: Mil ________ °C / Max ________ °C
F404-GE-402: Mil ________ °C / Max ________ °C
Max steady-state is
F404-GE-400: Mil ________ °C / Max ________ °C
F404-GE-402: Mil ________ °C / Max ________ °C
Max transient is
F404-GE-400: Start ___ °C / Mil ___ °C / Max ___ °C
F404-GE-402: Start ___ °C / Mil ___ °C / Max ___ °C
Max transient is
F404-GE-400: Start ___ °C / Mil ___ °C / Max ___ °C
F404-GE-402: Start ___ °C / Mil ___ °C / Max ___ °C
Oil Pressure limits:
Ground steady state (warm oil) IDLE: ____ to ____ PSI
Oil Pressure limits:
Ground steady state (warm oil) IDLE: ____ to ____ PSI
Oil Pressure limits:
In-flight steady state IDLE: ____ to ____ PSI
In-flight steady state MIL: ____ to ____ PSI
Oil Pressure limits:
In-flight steady state IDLE: ____ to ____ PSI
In-flight steady state MIL: ____ to ____ PSI
Airspeed limitations:
Refueling probe extension/retraction: _______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Refeuling probe extension/retraction: _______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Landing Gear extension/retraction: _______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Landing Gear extension/retraction: _______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Tires: Nose _______ kts. // Main ______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Tires: Nose _______ kts. // Main ______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Refueling probe extended in-flight: ______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Refueling probe extended in-flight: ______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Canopy open: ______ kts.
Airspeed limitations:
Canopy open: ______ kts.
Flight with _______ rate warning tone.
?
Dive over _________ ° with less than 1,900 pounds fuel.
?
Full or partial lateral stick deflection and/or rudder pedal input over ______ degrees roll/yaw.
?
Takeoff with any ______ axis failed.
?
Takeoff or flared landing with 90° crosswind component over _____ knots. Normal or section landing with 90° crosswind component over _____ knots.
?
