Nationals 01 Flashcards

1
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes pin layouts, voltages, cable specifications, hubs, and network interfaces.

A

Physical Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This layer of the OSI model communicates directly with the media that transmits bits

A

Physical Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This layer of the OSI model consists of a media access control layer (MAC) and logical link control layer (LLC)

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This layer of the OSI model ensures messages are delivered to proper LAN devices using MAC addresses

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for MAC addresses, Switches, ARP, and DHCP

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This layer of the OSI model manages logical device addressing, tracking device locations on network, and determining best path for moving data

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes internet protocol (IP), internet control message protocol (ICMP), and router information protocol (RIP)

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

This layer of the OSI model segments and reassembles data from upper layers to be united on the same data stream.

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

This layer of the OSI model provides logical connection between sending and destination hosts, flow control, and error recovery

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes user datagram protocol (UDP) and transmission control protocol (TCP)

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

This layer of the OSI model provides dialogue control between devices and coordinates communication between systems

A

Session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This layer of the OSI model ensures that an application’s data is separate from other user’s application data

A

Session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for NetBIOS and point to point tunneling protocol (PPTP)

A

Session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

This layer of the OSI model is responsible for compression, encryption, and code formatting.

A

Presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for moving picture experts group (MPEG) and secure sockets layer (SSL)

A

Presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes specifications for hyper text transfer protocol (HTTP), file transfer protocol (FTP), simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP), and real-time transport protocol (RTP)

A

Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This layer of the OSI model includes hardware specifications for voice over IP and Bluetooth devices

A

Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is layer one of the OSI model

A

Physical Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This is layer two of the OSI model

A

Data Link Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This is layer three of the OSI model

A

Network Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This is layer four of the OSI model

A

Transport Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This is layer five of the OSI model

A

Session Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This is layer six of the OSI model

A

Presentation Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This is layer seven of the OSI model

A

Application Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

This establishes a secure connection to an organization’s private network using a public network such as the internet

A

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This device provides a client PC the ability to tunnel into a LAN from the internet via an encrypted connection.

A

VPN Server or Endpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Comcast provides these tools to customers who wish to set up a VPN

A

Internet Connection, IP Gateway (or Modem), Static IP Address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

These are two options for configuring a VPN endpoint

A

Assign a Static IP or Configure Port Forwarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

This is the demarc Comcast is responsible for when troubleshooting a customers VPN

A

IP Gateway / Modem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

This is a network scheme in which portions of a network are connected to the internet, but information sent is encrypted

A

A VPN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A VPN encypted connection is also known as this

A

A Tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Some VPNs may have this effect on a customers internet connection

A

Slow it down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Connections established to a VPN server are inherently this

A

latent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Three causes of VPN server connection latency

A

Distance and route, Simultaneously connected clients, Encryption protocols, Network Firewalls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A VPN connection speed is only as fast as this

A

The slowest link in the connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

This can only be disabled if the customer has a static block loaded on the device

A

WAN Firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This person should be present when installing new services at a customer’s business

A

The customer’s IT administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A business may want this feature enabled when they have their own router

A

Bridge mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Static IPs will not route when this feature is enabled

A

Bridge mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Disables the routing functions of the modem

A

Bridge mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

This feature can be enabled on a BWG/CBR to transparently bridge all customer ethernet traffic while enabling Xfinity Wifi

A

Advanced Bridge mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

This feature can be enabled on a BWG/CBR to transparently pass all ethernet traffic to the modem while disabling Xfinity Wifi

A

Basic Bridge mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This prevents unauthorized access to or from a private network

A

Firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All messages entering or leaving the internet pass through this on the Comcast IP gateway

A

Firewall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This IP gateway feature allows an inbound connection request to be forwarded to a specific machine on the local network

A

Port Forwarding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

This IP gateway feature is used to restrict outbound connections to a specific port and IP address

A

Port Blocking/Port Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This IP gateway feature forwards all inbound traffic to a single specified local IP address

A

DMZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Allow IP address to bypass the firewall

A

DMZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

This IP gateway feature translates a useable WAN IP’s inbound and outbound traffic to a specified local IP address

A

NAT/1 to 1 Network Address Translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

This IP gateway feature is a way to automate port forwarding based on outbound traffic on predetermined ports

A

Port Triggering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When a customer does not have an on site IT person, and requires services not covered by comcast, we can refer them to this Company

A

HelloTech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

This device provides firewall protection, user access management, and advanced security features

A

Comcast Business IP Gateway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The Comcast Business IP gateway provides these features

A

Firewall protection, user access management, advanced security features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

There are this many Ethernet ports on the back of the Comcast Business Router

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

There are this many telephone ports on the back of the Comcast Business Router

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ports 1, 3, 5, and 7 of the CBR and CBR2 are this version of registered jack

A

RJ14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Ports 2, 4, 6, and 8 of the CBR and CBR2 are this version of registered jack

A

RJ11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The backup battery backs up these lines on a CBR

A

phone lines 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

This Comcast Business device has built in WiFi 6 capabilities

A

CBR2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

When installing the CBR2 over Epon, customers are limited to this many X1 boxes.

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

This color light indicates a 2.5Gbps ethernet connection on port 5 or 6 of the CBR2

A

Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The power LED will be lit this color when the CBR2 is using the backup battery for power.

A

Amber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This Comcast Business device can connect over HFC or EPON

A

CBR2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This Comcast Business device has 6 LAN ports.

A

CBR2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

These Comcast Business devices support both phone and internet capabilities

A

CBR/CBR2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

This must be installed along with the CBR2’s internal backup battery for voice customers over EPON

A

a UPS for the EPON device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This utility can be used to troubleshoot network issues by sending a packet to a specified address and waiting for a reply

A

Ping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

This utility can be used to troubleshoot network issues by sending a packet to a specified host and showing how many hops the packet requires to reach the host

A

Traceroute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

This should be done before replacing a previously working device

A

Record all of the settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

This is a frequent cause of connectivity issues for Comcast Business internet customers

A

Customer network problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

These type of IP Addresses are in a subnet block

A

Network, Routable, Gateway, Broadcast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

These two steps can be taken to identify a duplicated static IP issue

A

Ping the static gateway IP and then unplug the modem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Static IPs and Bridge Mode can be enabled/disabled without needing to log into the GUI through this tool

A

Tech360

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The option to load static IP can be found in this location in Tech360

A

The modem’s context menu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Comcast Policy prohibits technicians from working on customer equipement past this point

A

Demarcation Point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The BWG/CBR combine these two pieces of internet gear

A

Modem and Router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

This is a cloud internet security product offering SMB customers the ability to protect their business by customizing internet experiences at their sites

A

Comcast Business Security Edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

This Comcast business product automatically scans outgoing internet traffic requests to identify and block malware, phishing, and botnet cyber-attacks

A

Comcast Business Security Edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

This Comcast Business product allows customers to customize a block page and internet scheduling policies, provides a dashboard for internet activity details, has web filtering capabilities, and provides a regular activity report

A

Comcast Business Security Edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

This Comcast Business product works by redirecting DNS queries to Akamai DNS servers.

A

Comcast Business Security Edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Cyber secrity add on for CB

A

security edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Comcast Business Security Edge does not provide these types of protection

A

endpoint, VPN, Firewall, Antivirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Software intended to damage or disable computers or computer systems

A

Malware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Network of hijacked zombie computers that are remotely used to steal data, send spam email, and perform DDoS attacks

A

Botnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Most commonly deployed cyber threat

A

Phishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

This cyberattack is used to collect sensitve information through legitimate-looking websites and emails

A

Phishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

This Comcast business service provides DNS based threat defense and content filtering

A

SecurityEdge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

SecurityEdge DNS is updated this often to stay current on potential threats.

A

Every 10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

SecurityEdge DNS ignores this when processing a DNS request

A

Custom DNS settings on devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Software intended to damage or disable computers or computer systems

A

Malware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Network of hijacked zombie computers that are remotely used to steal data, send spam email, and perform DDoS attacks

A

Botnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most commonly deployed cyber threat

A

Phishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

This cyberattack is used to collect sensitve information through legitimate-looking websites and emails

A

Phishing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

This WiFi Pro feature allows customers to create a customized welcome page when the public WiFi is accessed

A

Splash Page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

This Wifi Pro feature allows customers to capture analytics on connected and nearby clients through the WiFi Pro networks

A

Customer Analytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

This WiFi Pro feature provides a Facebook, Twitter, Instagram login to the customer on the guest splash page

A

Social Network Integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

This WiFi Pro feature provides customers with the ability to schedule while WiFi is broadcast from the business

A

WiFi Network Scheduling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

This Wifi Pro feature provides customers with the ability to allocate a set limit for the downstream/upstream traffic on the guest WiFi network

A

Bandwidth Allocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

This Wifi Pro feature provides customers with the ability to allocate time limits to your guest’s WiFi usage sessions

A

Session Timeout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

This Wifi Pro feature provides customers with the ability to prevent access to content deemed unacceptable by the business

A

WiFi Content Filtering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

This Wifi Pro feature provides customers with the ability to Schedule and receive on-demand reporting on business analytics obtained from the WiFi Pro networks

A

Reporting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The WiFi Pro networks can be configured from this website

A

comcastwifipro.com

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

WiFi Pro access points can be provisioned with either of these two tools

A

Field Provisioning Portal or Tech360

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

WiFi Pro provisioning will typically take this long

A

10-15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

These LEDs will be lit green upon successful WiFi Pro AP provisioning

A

All LEDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

WiFi Pro Access point coverage is approximately this

A

2500 Sq Ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The maximum CAT5 run from the modem to WiFi Pro access point is this

A

300 Ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The limit on the ceiling height for WiFi Pro device placement is this

A

20ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

WiFi Pro access points need these ports open

A

UDP 3851, TCP/UDP 80, and TCP 443

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

This is the maximum amount of concurrent users per WiFi Pro Access Point

A

60 users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

This is the maximum amount of concurrent users per WifFi Pro Access Point radio

A

30 users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

WiFi Pro is compatible with these additional bolt-on Business Internet services

A

Security Edge and Connection Pro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

This Comcast Business product will back up mission critical items in the event of a service or power outage

A

Connection Pro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

This is the download and upload speed of the connection pro when in backup

A

10mbps download and 1mbps upload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

This is the amount of time Connection Pro can be on battery backup

A

8 hours with External UPS or 1 internal battery, 16 with 2 internal batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

This is the wired throughput on the Connection Pro 1.0

A

300 Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

This is the wired throughput on the Connection PRo 2.0

A

1 gig

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Connection Pro utilizes these LTE service providers

A

Verizon and AT&T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Connection Pro will not back up devices configured with this

A

Static IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

This equipment allows a group of phone stations to access a common set of telephone lines.

A

Key or PBX System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

This equipment enables operators to deliver up to eight lines of telephony, tiered data, and other advanced Internet Protocol (IP) services

A

eMTA or Embedded Multimedia Terminal Adapter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

This is required for all devices supporting business voice service.

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

This is a Telco standard device for connecting multiple telephone wires at a common point

A

66 Block/Punch-down Block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

This is a device used to connect data wiring at a common point.

A

110 Block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

This is the standard interface for connecting multiple pieces of telephone equipment, and can be the interface between the EMTA and 66 or 110 block demarcation point.

A

RJ-21X

127
Q

This device is used for wire management on telecommunications equipment boards to avoid kinks and sharp bends.

A

Mushroom Spool

128
Q

This uses an internal modem to transmit sales transaction data using a telephone line.

A

Point of Sale (POS) System

129
Q

This type of eMTA backup battery must be assigned to an account

A

CBR/CBR2

130
Q

This is the approximate proper loop current for off-hook phone status

A

39mA

131
Q

This is the typical baud rate equipment should be set to for best compatibility with eMTA voice lines

A

9600 baud

132
Q

This is the proper supervisory voltage for an eMTA

A

48V DC

133
Q

This should be isolated if incompatibility is suspected with a Business Voice eMTA

A

customer’s/inside wires

134
Q

The serviceability check that occurs prior to a site survey consists of these two components

A

Serviceability of the location and E911 serviceability

135
Q

If the customer does not have a 66 block, this is considered the demarcation point for Comcast Business Voice service

A

Customer-facing voice jack on eMTA

136
Q

This side of a 66 block is typically used by the service provider

A

left side

137
Q

This side of a 66 block is typically used by the customer

A

right side

138
Q

ILEC

A

Incumbent Local Exchange Carrier

139
Q

This is the proper way to punch down a cable

A

Punched Downwards

140
Q

When terminating Telephone/Ethernet cabling, twists should maintained up to this point

A

as far as possible

141
Q

This much of the jacket should be stripped back when terminating telephone/ethernet wiring

A

Only as much as necessary to terminate

142
Q

Telephone/ethernet wiring should be routed here when punching down onto a 66 block

A

Routed behind the 66 block

143
Q

These connect the network side of a 66 block to the customer side

A

Bridge Clips

144
Q

When punching into a 66 block you should always lead with this

A

The tip wire

145
Q

Telephone signal should flow in this direction on a 66 block

A

from left to right

146
Q

This is the star code to enable call forwarding always

A

*72

147
Q

This is the star code to disable call forwarding always

A

*73

148
Q

This is the star code to enable anonymous call rejection

A

*77

149
Q

This is the star code to disable anonymous call rejection

A

*87

150
Q

This is the star code to enable call forward busy

A

*90

151
Q

This is the star code to disable call forward busy

A

*91

152
Q

This is the star code to enable call forwarding no answer

A

*92

153
Q

This is the star code to disable call forwarding no answer

A

*93

154
Q

This is the star code to enable call forwarding not reachable

A

*58

155
Q

This is the star code to disable call forwarding not reachable

A

*59

156
Q

This is the star code to enable call forwarding selective

A

*63

157
Q

This is the star code to disable call forwarding selective

A

*83

158
Q

This is the star code to place a call on hold

A

*52

159
Q

This is the star code to park a call

A

*68

160
Q

This is the star code to pick up a parked call

A

*88

161
Q

This is the star code for call return

A

*69

162
Q

This is the star code for call return disable

A

*89

163
Q

This is the star code to enable call waiting

A

automatically activated

164
Q

This is the star code to disable call waiting

A

*70

165
Q

This is the star code for call trace

A

*57

166
Q

This is the star code for caller ID Delivery Blocking

A

*67

167
Q

This is the star code for directed call pickup

A

*97

168
Q

This is the star code for directed call pickup with Barge-in

A

*33

169
Q

This is the star code to enable do not disturb

A

*78

170
Q

This is the star code to disable do not disturb

A

*79

171
Q

This is the star code to enable terminal make busy in a hunt group

A

*230

172
Q

This is the star code to disable terminal make busy in a hunt group

A

*231

173
Q

This is the star code to enable group make busy in a hunt group

A

*232

174
Q

This is the star code to disable group make busy in a hunt group

A

*233

175
Q

This is the star code for last number redial

A

*66

176
Q

This is the star code to disable repeat dialing

A

*86

177
Q

This is the star code for music on hold

A

*39

178
Q

This is the star code for speed dial 100

A

*75

179
Q

This is the star code for speed dial 8

A

*74

180
Q

This is the star code for voicemail retrieval

A

*99

181
Q

This is the star code for direct voicemail transfer

A

*55

182
Q

This is the star code to enable call screening

A

*60

183
Q

This is the star code to disable call screening

A

*80

184
Q

This is the star code for speed dial 30

A

*75

185
Q

document that includes special instructions and contract info

A

service order agreement/ business contract

186
Q

cannot be strapped tapped or attached to exteriar of conduct

A

back bone cable

187
Q

VoiceEdge Select is based on Business Voice Mobility along with these

A

Handsets. Automated Attendant, Hunt Group, Voicemail per seat, Enhanced Management Portal

188
Q

VoiceEdge Select is available to be used at this many sites per customer

A

Single site only

189
Q

VoiceEdge Select has these models of handset available for the customer to choose from

A

Panasonic KX-TPA60 (handheld) and Panasonic KX-TPA65 (Desktop)

190
Q

This Cloud based PBX offers dedicated voice bandwidth via a separate modem for customers at a single site

A

VoiceEdge Select

191
Q

VoiceEdge select can be mixed with any products except for these

A

Any advanced voice product

192
Q

This VoiceEdge select feature answers inbound calls and provides choices to the caller

A

Automated Attendant

193
Q

This VoiceEdge select feature allows customers to set a customer schedule to provide different prompts at different times of day

A

Automated Attendant

194
Q

This is the maximum amount of phone numbers provided on a VES only order

A

9 (8 seats + 1 AA)

195
Q

This voice feature enables calls to roll from seat to seat to ensure effective call handling.

A

Hunt Group

196
Q

These are the types of hunt group available to VES customers

A

Sequential or Simultaneous

197
Q

IMS

A

IP Multimedia Subsystem

198
Q

IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) supports up to this many hunt groups per account

A

4

199
Q

These are two benefits of a hunt group

A

Helps the caller get to a ‘live’ person and increases the odds of an answer

200
Q

These comcast business SMB products offer readable voicemail

A

VoiceEdge Select and BV Mobility

201
Q

This SMB voice product has a seat based pricing structure

A

VES or VoiceEdge Select

202
Q

This SMB product has a line based pricing structure

A

BV Mobility

203
Q

This is the cordless base station for VES phone systems

A

Panasonic KX-TGP600

204
Q

The VES base station supports up to this many cordless phones

A

8

205
Q

The VES base station supports up to this many concurrent phone calls

A

8

206
Q

This is the approximate range of a VES base station

A

100’ - 150’

207
Q

This is the wireless standard used by VoiceEdge Select

A

Digital Enhanced Cordless Telecommunications or DECT

208
Q

Workers that need to move around the business would probably prefer this model of VES phone

A

KX-TPA60 Handset Phone

209
Q

Workers who primarily work from a single location may prefer this phone

A

KX-TPA65 Desk Phone

210
Q

This VES device is used for increasing the cordless range

A

KX-A406 repeater

211
Q

This is the maximum amount of repeaters allowed per VES site

A

3

212
Q

This is the maximum amount of concurrent calls a VES repeater supports

A

4

213
Q

This VES device does not need to be provisioned

A

KX-A406 repeater

214
Q

This VES device can not be set up in a cascaded configuration

A

KX-A406 repeater

215
Q

CPNI

A

Customer Proprietary Network Information

216
Q

This provides access to certain secured Voice settings and billing details on My Account portal

A

Security Pin.CPNI PIN

217
Q

The first person to sign on to the My Account portal is assigned this role by default, which can be reassigned later if necessary

A

Primary Service Manager

218
Q

If a customer is getting VES services and already has existing business internet and voice service, they will not need this at the time of install.

A

CPNI PIN

219
Q

If a customer is getting VES services and already has existing business voice but no internet service, they will need this at the time of install.

A

CPNI PIN

220
Q

VES customers with no existing Business internet or voice service will receive this at the time of install

A

CPNI PIN

221
Q

VES services can not be configured on day of install if either of these are not present

A

Primary Service Manager (PM) or CPNI PIN

222
Q

On a VES handset, the LED on the top left will turn on to indicate this

A

That the phone is charging

223
Q

When a VES handset is in the charging cradle this can not occur

A

Power On or Off

224
Q

These two modems are compatible to use for VES service

A

Arris 820 or 804

225
Q

This eMTA type should not be used for Business Voice when installing new Business Voice service alongside new VES

A

8 port eMTA

226
Q

CAAP

A

Comcast Advanced Activation Platform

227
Q

VES telephone numbers are assigned to the Base Station mac in this

A

CAAP

228
Q

If the email address in CSG is not valid, the CPNI PIN is sent to the service address via this

A

USPS

229
Q

All hunt groups have these three sections

A

Entry Point, Treatment, and Exit Point

230
Q

The default entry point for a hunt group with VES is this

A

When a caller dials the first user in the hunt group

231
Q

Beginning July 8th, Comcast Business customers will no longer be able to purchase new or renew services for this product

A

VoiceEdge Select

232
Q

In VoiceEdge select hunt settings, users can choose to skip to the next user based on this

A

number of rings

233
Q

To enter maintenance mode on a VES handset follow these steps

A

Turn off phone, turn phone back on, when screen turns white hold talk button, press left softkey, press 8 1, press ok

234
Q

This RSSI is the minimum that is adequate to support phone service for a VES handset or Deskphone

A

-68

235
Q

Flashing red indicator light on a VES base station means this

A

The base is in registration mode

236
Q

Do this to manually enter registration mode on a KX-TGP600 base

A

Press the button on the right side of the base

237
Q

This feature lets a comcast business customer put a caller on hold while taking a second call

A

Call Waiting

238
Q

This feature allows a Business Voice customer to choose which phone number appears on caller ID for outgoing calls

A

Call Masking

239
Q

To factory reset a VES Base Station, do this

A

hold down the reset button for 35 seconds

240
Q

IPEI

A

International Portable Equipment Identity

241
Q

If the wrong or no phone number displays on the phone after registering to a VES base the mapping between this and the phone number is incorrect

A

IPEI or International Portable Equipment Identity

242
Q

This has occurred if the VES base station indicator light shows a solid amber light

A

The base station has failed to obtain an IP address

243
Q

This has occurred if the VES base station indicator light shows a blinking amber light after all phones are paired

A

The base station has failed to register all of the phones with the Comcast IMS network

244
Q

This device deletes unused channels and inserts local video feed for subscription channels or other video feed such as cameras or promo video loops

A

Channel Deletion Filter and Combiner

245
Q

This equipment is used widely in hospitality, nursing homes, and MDUS as a way to replace channels with their own form of broadcast

A

Channel Deletion Filter and Combiner

246
Q

This loads a base-band signal onto the standard video channel carrier

A

Video Modulator

247
Q

This connects to the combiner in the filter for local insertion of the subscription channel

A

Universal Digital Transport Adapter (uDTA)

248
Q

This device provides secure HD content to commercial grade TVs for Hospitality and FTG services

A

Q2Q

249
Q

Q2Q devices support up to this many Pro-Idiom: channels

A

76

250
Q

This connects to the incoming RF before it encounters any drop or insert equipment

A

Universal Digital Transport Adapter (uDTA)

251
Q

The uDTA is capable of these types of video output

A

HDMI, CH 3/4 analog

252
Q

This device has a cable bypass output that allows for an additional device (such as a cable modem) to be connected to RF signal

A

uDTA

253
Q

MDTA

A

Multi Digital Transmit Adapter

254
Q

This device can serve analog video to multiple pieces of equipment with integrated screens (TVs, Fitness equipment, etc)

A

MDTA or Multi Digital Transmit Adapter

255
Q

This device replaces the need for multiple set top boxes by converting digital video to an analog distribution

A

MDTA or Multi Digital Transmit Adapter

256
Q

The MDTA supports these features

A

Free to Guest (FTG), Hospitality Digital Standard TV packages, Private View or Public View Broadcasts, Most local channel insertion methods

257
Q

The MDTA can only be used to support a maximum of this many rooms.

A

50

258
Q

The MDTA can only be used to support a maximum of this many outlets

A

100

259
Q

The MDTA outputs analog video on these channels

A

2-72

260
Q

The MDTA allows for channels to be inserted above this channel

A

72

261
Q

This device contains six cable cards and supports delivery of up to 36 SD channels for hotels with 30 rooms or less.

A

Mini-mDTA (Vecima TC600)

262
Q

This device contains 12 cable cards and supports delivery of up to 82 SD channels for hotels with 50 rooms or more.

A

MDTA (Multi Digital Transport Adapter)

263
Q

This device contains an embeded modem, ten cable cards and supports coax delivery of up to 60 HD channels for hotels with 65 or more rooms.

A

Q2Q (QAM-to-QAM)

264
Q

This device contains an embeded modem, ten cable cards and supports CAT5/6 delivery of up to 60 HD channels for hotels with 65 or more rooms.

A

Q2IP (QAM-to-IP)

265
Q

For video distribution devices (MDTA, Q2Q, DSAN) the demarcation point is this.

A

The tap or ground block if present

266
Q

If the XR2 flashes red when pressing channel up or down it indicates the remote is operating in this mode

A

IR or infrared

267
Q

On an XR2, you can hold the setup button for three seconds and enter this code to check the battery power

A

999

268
Q

When checking the battery power via the 9-9-9 code, four green blinks indicates this power level

A

Excellent

269
Q

When checking the battery power via the 9-9-9 code, three green blinks indicates this power level

A

Good

270
Q

When checking the battery power via the 9-9-9 code, two red blinks indicates this power level

A

Low

271
Q

When checking the battery power via the 9-9-9 code, one red blink indicates this power level

A

very low

272
Q

To unpair an Xfinity RF remote from a previous device hold the setup button and then enter this code

A

981

273
Q

This process is used for hotels, MDUs, and small businesses to distribute a premium channel using just one DCT or a video source containing advertising or information for customers/guests.

A

Drop and Insert

274
Q

This process diverts a portion of the multiplexed aggregate signals at an intermediate point and introduces a different signal for subsequent transmission in the same position

A

Drop and Insert

275
Q

This is a tapping device providing isolation between tap and output terminals

A

Directional Coupler

276
Q

This will occur if a channel deletion filter isn’t working properly

A

Co-Channeling

277
Q

This is the first step in checking for a bad channel filter

A

Turn off the modulator and check for picture

278
Q

These two X1 devices can be used for analog video output

A

XG2 and XiD

279
Q

The Xfinity stream app allows this many concurrent viewers

A

5

280
Q

PIE

A

Private Infrastructure Evaluation

281
Q

This is the Keenness and depth of perception, discernment, or discrimination especially in practical matters:

A

Acumen

282
Q

This is the Ability to make good judgments and quick decisions, typically in a particular domain:

A

Business Acumen

283
Q

If a technician is unable to answer a customers question, this is the appropriate response:

A

Be honest, Give the customer a new point of contact, Follow Up

284
Q

Electronic message sent from one device to another

A

Email

285
Q

Protocol used on the internet for exchanging files

A

FTP

286
Q

Type of IP visible to the public

A

Routable IP

287
Q

Descriptive name for an address or group of addresses on the internet

A

Domain name

288
Q

Location for passing data in and out of your computer

A

Port

289
Q

Combines the functions of a cable modem and a router in a single device

A

IP gateway

290
Q

Unique number for each computer on a given network

A

IP address

291
Q

What is the abbreviation for the internet service that locates and translates domain names into IP addresses?

A

DNS

292
Q

A temporary IP address

A

Dynamic IP

293
Q

This is an enabling force for developing and implementing agile, assured, and orchestrated Third Network services for the digital economy and hyper-connected world.

A

Metro Ethernet Forum (MEF)

294
Q

Comcast Ethernet Network uses frame sizes in this range.

A

128 to 9000 (Jumbo Frame)

295
Q

This layer of switch utilizes MAC addresses to quickly pass information from port to port

A

Layer 2

296
Q

This layer of switch (CMTS/SUR), utilize IP addresses to pass information from port to port

A

Layer 3

297
Q

EPL, EVPL, and ENS are ethernet solutions that operate on this OSI layer

A

Layer 2

298
Q

EDI is an ethernet solution that operates on this OSI layer

A

Layer 3

299
Q

This is the “size” of the network. It is defined either as a max or min amount of data that the network system can handle.

A

Bandwidth

300
Q

This is the “success rate” of a network. It is defined as the amount of data that is successfully delivered in a given period of time.

A

Throughput

301
Q

This is the “reliable bandwidth” of a network. It is defined as the amount of data that the network can transfer reliably over a given period of time.

A

Capacity

302
Q

This is an intelligent routing protocol that makes routing decisions based on paths, network policies, and/or rule sets configured by the network administrator.

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

303
Q

EPL

A

Ethernet Private Line

304
Q

EVPL

A

Ethernet Virtual Private Line

305
Q

ENS

A

Ethernet Network Service

306
Q

EDI

A

Ethernet Dedicated Internet

307
Q

This Comcast Business product offers point to point connectivity between two sites for bandwidth-intensive applications

A

Ethernet Private Line (EPL)

308
Q

This Comcast Business product offers point to multipoint connections tailored by application

A

Ethernet Virtual Private Line (EVPL)

309
Q

This Comcast Business product offers multipoint to multipoint connectivity for businesses with high bandwidth requirements and multiple locations

A

Ethernet Network Service (ENS)

310
Q

This Comcast Business product offers high-bandwidth connectivity between a LAN and the internet

A

Ethernet Dedicated Internet (EDI)

311
Q

Ethernet Virtual Private Line (EVPL) customers must have this standard of VLAN tagging enabled on their equipment

A

IEEE 802.1Q

312
Q

99.99% availability means that our customers must not lose service for more than this amount of time per month

A

four minutes

313
Q

99.9% availability means that our customers must not lose service for more than this amount of time per month

A

Fourty minutes

314
Q

EDI circuits are typically divided into these two IP blocks

A

A point to point and customer allocation block