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CVS Training > Natinal Certification Exam > Flashcards

Natinal Certification Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Knowledge Domain #2

A

Pharmacy Law & Regulations

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2
Q
  1. Assuring safe workplaces for all employees by restricting air contaminants, flammable/combustible liquids is one of the policies of the:
A

Occupational Safet and Health Act

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3
Q
  1. Tha ability to distribute prescription drug samples to Physicians licensed to prescribe them is possible due to the:
A

Prescription Drug Marketing Act (1987)

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4
Q
  1. This Act requires patients to be counseled on all new prescriptions, established a 3-step process for drug uto review & requires record keeping of all meds taken by a patient:
A

Omnibus Budget reconciliation Act (OBRA-90)

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5
Q
  1. Ensuring patient confidentiality is properly maintained by restricting use and disclosure oh PHI, PIU and CHD requiring a written privacy procedure from each organization, Nd requiring training for all emplyis the:
A

HIPPA. ( Health Insurance Portability and Accountably Act

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6
Q
  1. According to federal law, in the event of suspected theft of a schedule II medication, the pharmacy is required to notify which agency?
A

The DEA and the local police delay (Drug Task Force agencies- MA)

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7
Q

10.When state and federal requirements differ on retention of records, what should take precedence?

A

Longest time period

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8
Q
  1. A patient presents a prescription for morphine sulfate tablets prescribed by Mathew B Rubin, M.D. which of the following numbers is consist with the presciber?
A

a. AR2174828

b. AR4695283

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following documents is proof of receipt of Class III controlled substances?
A

Commercial Invoice (Cardinal)

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10
Q
  1. A Prescriber’s DEA number is :
A

Needed on out-patient prescriptions for controlled substances

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11
Q
  1. Products containing pseudoephedrine, Ephesians, and phenylpropanolamine are restricted products in the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act limiting a daily purchase ti:
A

3.6 grams

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12
Q

15.If a patient reports experiencing asthma congestion when taking prescribed. Meditations, the pharmacy technician should:

A

Refer the patient to the Pharmacist

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13
Q
  1. According g to the Controlled Substance Act, a prescription for Tylenol #3 would be filled I. Which schedule
A

Schedule III. Coding fallsu def all 3 schedules

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14
Q
  1. Of the following, the reference source that would provide the most comprehensive indication and dosage information about a newly released hypertension media this:
A

Facts a d omparisons

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15
Q

18.An Investigational drug used in an FDA Drug Approval process has been discontinued y the physician. Any remaining drug that the patient has should be:

A

Returned to the person (s) responsible for the investigational drugs

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16
Q
  1. The Anabolic asteroids Control Act LC 1990 places anabolic steroids under regulatory provisions of the ControlledSubstance Act. These drugs are defined as “any drug or hormonal substance chemically and pharmacologically related to:
A

Testosterone

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs would not be part of the IPledge program store dispensing to a patient?
A

Suboxone (Nadean)

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18
Q
  1. When Harold exposure to a product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death, it’s recall is designing;
A

Class I. ( the lower the # the more serious it is)

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19
Q

22.Which of the following correctly describes the manner in which records of the receipt and disposition of all controlled substances must be kept

A

Records of Schedule I or II substances must’ve maintained separately from all others ( 1 & 2 delay, 3-5 together )

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20
Q

Knowledge Domain #3

A

Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding

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21
Q

1.the required size on an anti microbial final filter used to ensure complete sterilization is:

A

0.22 microns. ( micro =smaller)

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22
Q
  1. The purpose of a laminar flow hood is to :
A

?

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23
Q
  1. Least
A

Once per year

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24
Q
  1. The proper technique for cleaning a horizontal laminar flow hood is to wipe:
A

Back to frontside to side motions

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25
Q

5.Latex glove, gowns, respirators, face shields and chemical splash googles used in chemotherapy preparation are known as:

A

Personal protective equipment. (PPE)3. Which of the following meditations should not be split or crushed?

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26
Q
  1. The ability of a drug product to maiychemical and physical integrity over time is termed :
A

Stability

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27
Q
  1. Gowns used in preparing cytotoxic agents must close:

Hydrolideo, (label says Cytotoxic)

A

In the back

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28
Q
  1. Compounding performed using established aseptic techniques utilizes laminar air flow hood is called :
A

Sterile Compounding

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29
Q
  1. Which of the follows is an example of a non- sterile compound
A

Lidocaine viscous, Maslow & Benadryl liquid used ‘PO’ (Magic monbaresh)by mouth

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30
Q
  1. The Compounding Record must include all but which of the following:
A

Record of the technician that completed data-entry of the order’s

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31
Q
  1. Where is the volume of aqueous liquid read on a graduated cylinder
A

Bottom of the meniscus

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32
Q
  1. Compounds using OTC. Prescription meds. Etc. shall not have a beyond use date that exceeds the _____. On the container:
A

Expiration date

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following effect. Drugs stability?
A

All of the above. Light, Temperaturr, Type of container

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34
Q
  1. Of a Pharmacist was preparing a compound that required the trituration (braking up) of tablets, they should use:
A

A mortar & Pestle

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35
Q
  1. The last filter a solution travels through before entering the patients body is the :
A

Final filter

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36
Q
  1. Technicians should stand ____. Inches away from flow hoods while compounding
A

6 inches

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37
Q
  1. Flow hoods must run for a least ____ minutes prior to use
A

30 minutes

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38
Q
  1. ????
A

70% Isopropyl alcohol

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39
Q

19.This is the grade assigned to chemicals of high purity that are suitable for analytical work

A

Analytical Reagent

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40
Q
  1. Ingredients must be accompanied by a valid:
A

Certification of Analysis

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41
Q
  1. Preservatives, colors, etc. are certified to meet or exceed the specifications listed in the current edition of:
A

Food Chemical Codex

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42
Q

Knowledge Domain #4

A

Medication Safety

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43
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with blood clots is prescribed Warfarin. Which of the foyvitamins is involved in increased clotting?
A

Vitamin K ( clots brand. In Vapes that killed people)

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44
Q
  1. Pseudoephedrine is constrained in a pattwith:
A

A histogy hypertension

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following meditation should not be split or crushed
A

Wellbutrin SR

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46
Q
  1. Adverse drug re action and outcomes should be reported to the:
A

FDA (people)

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47
Q

5.which meditation should be dispensed in the original container?

A

Nitro-star ( once exposed to light it starts to break down)

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48
Q
  1. In an order reading “Flagyl! 500 mg q5h x 7 days”, the most important missing piece of information is the:
A

Route of administration (PA = By Mouth

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49
Q
  1. Of a prescriber instructs a patient to take half a tablet of a medication, the best way to prevent a data entry error & administration error is to write this as:
A

a. 0.5 tablet
b. Half a tablet
C. .5 tablet
D.Both a and b are correct

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50
Q
  1. An order for ophthalmic drops instruct the patient to administer”AU”. Which of the following statements is true
A

All correct

a .The doctor made an error by writing for the wrong type of drops

B. Eye drops can be used in the ear

C. Ear drops cannot be used in the eye

D. Both b and c are correct

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51
Q
  1. Drugs like HydrOXYzine and HydrALAzine written in this fashion are examples of:
A

Tall- man lettering

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52
Q
  1. Dosage forms such as sequels or spandules are normally administered via which of the following routes?

Sequels. - Benzonalate

Spandules. - Adderal

A

Oral

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a timed- release dosage form
A

LR. ?

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54
Q

12.Suppositories can be administered in all but which of the following routes

A

PO

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55
Q
  1. A patient who is allergic to one medication may exhibit an allergiic response to drug products that are chemicallysimilar. This tendency is referred to as :
A

Cross sensitivity

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56
Q

Knowledge Domain # 5

A

Pharmacy Quality Assurance

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57
Q
  1. When meditations are repackaged into syringes for use in respiratory devices the syringe must:
A

Not be able to accept a needle

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58
Q
  1. Following the preparation of an antineoplastic IV admixture the needle & syringe should be:
A

Tecappedto prevent needle sticks

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59
Q
  1. Manufacturers will notify the pharmacy of a drug recall in writing by listing the name of the drug and the:
A

Lot Number

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following types of syringes should be used in the mixing of cytotoxic agents
A

Lear-Lok ( to lock all in)

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61
Q
  1. A proper method to dispose of a used syringe is to :
A

Place the needle & syringe in asharps container. ( recap could cause needle stick)

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62
Q
  1. The two basic parts of a needle are the :
A

Shaft and hub

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63
Q
  1. If a bottle breaks, a spill kit should be used if the bottle contained which of the following?
A

Etoposide. ( chemo drug)

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64
Q
  1. To ensure the safety of employ, hazardous drugs must be:
A

Labeled to indicate that special handle is required

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65
Q

Knowledge Domain #5

A

Meditation Order Entry & Fill Process

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66
Q
  1. A patient package insert is mandatory when dispensing
A

Note tho drone (Birth Contril)

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67
Q
  1. All of the following are automated dispensing systems except:
A

Sure-Med ( can not be lock meds in)

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68
Q
  1. An adult patient was prescribed “baby aspirin “ to take “ IT PO QD” for heart health. What strength of aspirin should the technician data-enter?
A

81 mg

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69
Q
  1. ? Of unit- dose products must include meditation name and which of the fly?
A

Dose, strength, manufacturer or pharmacy code, drug expiraydate, lot number

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70
Q
  1. A prescription for P?ocarpine 4% bearing the direction “ II got qd” should be administered on:
A

The left eye

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71
Q
  1. A short entry/ abbreysuch a AMP500 for ampicillin 500mg, used to assist in computerized order entry, is an example of:
A

A Mnemony Code

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72
Q
  1. The first field of numbers in the National / Drug Code (NOV) identities the:
A

Manufacturer

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73
Q
  1. Which of the following destroy drug administration method that achocobtrlled release of the product using a flat unit applied to the skin?
A

Transdermal

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74
Q

9.A patient is reloading refill on their blood pressure meditation, what drug should be filled?

A

Lisinopril

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75
Q
  1. Which of th following is required to be on a prescrywhen it is presented to the pharmacy?
A

Drug strength

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76
Q
  1. ? Prescription term “Sig” refers to:
A

Directions to the Pharmacist

77
Q

13.A prescription reading Robitussin viii 3 indicates that :

A

8 ounces of the Robitussin should be dispensed

78
Q

Knowledge Domain #7

A

Pharmacy inventory management

79
Q
  1. Of a meditation is available in 100 tablet bottles and the Pharmacy typically uaes 600 tablets per week , how many bottles should be ordered if it is anticipated that 33% more tablets will be dispensed the following week?
80
Q
  1. If 25 gallons of distilled water cost $36.25, how much will 4 gallons cost?
81
Q
  1. The encryption of information into a scan - able form to prevent errors is called ?
A

Bar- coding

82
Q
  1. When an institution agrees to purchase 80-90% of it’s pharmaceuticals from a single vendor, this arrangement is known as:
A

Prime vendor agreement

83
Q
  1. What is meant by the term “stock rotation “?
A

Using the stock with the Lange stock expiration date first

84
Q
  1. According to federal law, a registrant must complete a DEA form 222 to secure a supply of :
85
Q
  1. In which line of the narcotic inventory record shown below does an error first occur?
               Received.       Dispensed.   Balance  
                                                                 39

Lina A. 25. 64

Line B. 8. 56

Line C. 15. 42

Line D 26. 67

86
Q
  1. A Pharmacy bases its prices on a professional fee as follows
Fee AWP
$ 4.50 for $ 25.00 and under
$5.00 for $25.01-$50.00
\$\$5.50 for $50.01-$75.00
$6.00 for $75.01 and over

The Pharmacy receives a prescription that reads “Sig: 5 tabs q.d x 10 days”. If the AWP of the drug is $39.08 for 100 tablets, what would be the retail price of the prescription?

87
Q
  1. The term “ turnover rate “ usually refers to:
A

How fast inventory is used

88
Q
  1. The National Drug Code (NDC) is usually required for purchasing of pharmaceutical products. The NDC can be found in which of the following:
A

Drug Topics Red Book

89
Q
  1. Of the following, which document would provide the most complete information for a pharmacy technician wishing to verify how to inventory and record a shipment of pharmaceutical products?
A

The Pharmacy policy and procedures manual

90
Q
  1. A cash discount of $110 on a pharmacy invoice for $5,500 represents a percentage cash discount of :
91
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. An NDC is an 11 digit number
    b. The middle see of digits in an NDC number identifies the drug description
    c. An NDC is arranged in 4-4-3 format
    d. The first set of digits in an NDC number identifies the manufacturer
A

c. An NDC is arranged in 4-4-3 format

5-4-2

92
Q

Knowledge Domain. #8

A

Pharmacy Billing & Reimbursement

93
Q
  1. The cost sharing plan in which patients pay a specified dollar amount for every prescription received is known as: The
A

Co-payment ( meets deductible)

94
Q
  1. A list of drugs that are covered by a patient’s insurance is called a:
95
Q
  1. An insurance or entitlement program that reimburses for products or services is a:
A

Third party plan

96
Q
  1. Changes in the drug formulary must be approved by the:
A

Pharmacy and therapeutics (P & T) committee. ( approves formulary each year)

97
Q
  1. The ICD code required on insurance claim forms refer to the:
98
Q
  1. Universal claim forms are used for :
A

Insurance billing

99
Q
  1. Online processing of a third party claim to determine payment is called:
A

Adjudication (F12)

100
Q
  1. A products purchase price plus the cost to dispense is the :
101
Q

Knowledge Domain # 9

A

Pharmacy Information System Usage & Application

102
Q
  1. To permit subsequent retrieval, a prescription order is added to a patient’s computerized profile by means of a :
A

Database programming

103
Q
  1. What is the most important factor in maintaining a pharmacy computer system?
A

Daily backup tapes ( so you don’t loose PHI)

104
Q
  1. Which of the following records would be useful in the event of a drug recall?
A

Purchase orders. ( so we know where it came from)

105
Q
  1. Pharmacy computer systems generally offer all but the following features?
A

Competitors information

106
Q
    1. An alternative to a traditional written order is a (n) :
A

Computerized Physician 𝙊𝙧𝙙𝙚𝙧

107
Q
  1. An alert message generated by the pharmacy or insurance company computer system notifying the pharmacist of a potential drug safety or payment concern is referred to as:
A

Drug Utilization Review (DUR)

108
Q
  1. Medical records were traditionally compiled using paper charts and folders, but today most hospitals use :
A

Electronic Medical Records

109
Q

Knowledge Domain # 1

A

Pharmacology for Technicians

110
Q
  1. Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule II?
    a. MS Contin
    b. Restoring

c . Viagra

D . Lomotil

111
Q
  1. The water-solvable vitamins are:
A

B and C

A. D, E, K. Hypolypodemic dissolves in fat cells

112
Q
  1. Cimetidine and ranitidine are :
A

H -receptor blockers

113
Q
  1. A patient with a Cyanocobslamin deficiphas an inadequate supply of:
A

Vitamin B-6

114
Q
  1. Which of the following dosage forms best masks the unpleasant taste of a drug?
A

Gelatin capsid

115
Q
  1. Methylphenidate is used to treat:
A

Hyperkinesis disorder. ADHD

116
Q
  1. Which of the following names are correctly matched?
    a. Mevacor and Lovastatin
    b. Zantac and Famotidine

c .Pepcid and Ranitidine

d. Axis and Propranolol

A

Me a or and Lovastatin

117
Q
  1. Possible drug interactions would exist between which of these drugs:
    a. Zico’s and Synthroid
    b. Percodan and Coumadin
    c. Sovereign and Coumadin
    d. Percodan and Cardizem CD
A

Percodan and Coumadin

118
Q
  1. Of the following, which is most likely to be associated with photosenitivity?
    a. Ampicillin
    b. Tetracycline
    c. Allopuinol

D. Clarithtomycin.

A

Tetracycline

119
Q
  1. Which of the following is classified as a calcium-channel blocker
    (Ends Maine/mil)

a. Captopril
b. Verapamil
c. Digoxin
d. Propranolol

120
Q
  1. Digoxin is a member of which of the following classes of drugs?
    a. Ace inhibitors
    b. Cardiac Glycosides
    c. Beta-blockers
    d. Calcium- channel blockers
A

Cardiac-Glycosides

121
Q
  1. A medication to relieve a dry. Hacking cough is called an:
A

Antitussive

122
Q

14.A patient started using Maxidex ophthalmic drops. Metamucil. Claritin-D and Vancenese AQ nasal spray the patient reports experiencing heart palpitations. What medication is most likely responsible for the patients complaint?

A

Claritin-D. ( psurdophedrine)

123
Q
  1. Antidepressants are typically used to prevent or treat clinical depression and anxiety. Which of the following is not an antidepressant?
    a. Sertraline

b .Citalopram

c. Paroxetine
d. Clonidine. ( blood pressure med originally)

A

Cloudiness

124
Q
  1. Sertraline is available under which of the following trade names
    a. Celebs
    b. Lexapro
    c. Cymbals

d . Zoloft

125
Q
  1. Corticosteroid therapy is categorized by:
A

Suppression of the body’s production of cortisol

126
Q
  1. Which of the follow would interfere with the production of tetracycline:
    a. Enteric-coated aspirin
    b. Pseudoephedrine
    c. Guaifenesin

d. Aluminum and magnesium hydroxide
(Milk of magnesia)

A

Aluminum and magnesium hydroxide

127
Q
  1. Which of the following antibiotics should be avoided in patients allergic to cefacior (Ceclor)?
    a. Nitrofurantoin. (Macrobid)
    b. Cephalexin (Keflex)
    c. Calrithromycin. (Biaxin)
    d. Doxycycline. (Vibramycin) is
A

Celphalexin. ( Keflex)

128
Q
  1. Patients taking Naproxen for an inflammation should be advices by the Pharmacist to use which drug for a simple headache?

a . Acetaminophen

b . Ketoprofen

c. Aspirin

d. Ibuprofen
Honey

A

Acetaminophen

129
Q
  1. Peptic ulcers are open sores the develop in the GU tract & are typically caused by bacterial infection and a common symptom is a burnt abdominal pain. Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of Peptic Ulcers?
    a. Celecoxib
    b. Ibuprofen

c . Lansoprazole (Pre?)

d. Cloudiness

A

Lansoprozine.

130
Q
  1. Prescription drugs are grouped into different classes. Usually based on their primary therapeutic action. Which of the followy drugs is indicated to treat resoirayissyes?
    a. Tamsulosin
    b. Topiramate
    c. Nabumetone ( nsaid)

d . Montelukast

A

Nabumetone. (nsaid)

131
Q
  1. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of Dementia and is often diagnosed in people over 65 years old. Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of Alzheimer’s?
    a. Fosamax
    b. Ensure
    c. Geritol

d . Named a (mainantine ). Fat Nemory

132
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about drug classification is NOT true?
    a. Amiodine is an antiarrthymic is an antiarrhythmic
    b. Clopidigrel is an anti platelet
    c. Plogitazone is an antibiotic
    d. Dulcuetine is an antidepressant
A

Plogitazone is an antibiotic

133
Q
  1. The physiology process of distribution is the means by which a drug:
    a. Enters the bloodstream
    b. Is transported throughout the body
    c. Is removed from the body

D. Is broken down by natural occurring biochemical

A

Is transported throughout the body

134
Q

Knowledge Domain #2

A

Pharmacy Law & Regup

135
Q
  1. The requirement that all cosmetics. Consumables & drus be proven safe before marketing is the responsibly of the:
A

Food and Drug Administration

136
Q
  1. This Act separated drugs into legend (Rx) and non-legend (OTC) drugs:
A

Durham-Humphrey Act (1951)

137
Q
  1. This Act created the Drug Enforcement Agency and categorized five ached oof drugs based off drug abuse potential:
A

Controlled Substance Act. (Reagan-War on Drugs)

138
Q
  1. Reduced accidental harming by requiring most RX and ITC drugs be packaged in child-proof containers is regulated by the :
A

Poison Prevention Packaging Act

139
Q

Pharmacy Math Calculatins

A

Pharmacy Math Calculations

140
Q
  1. A prescribed notates that the dispensed quantity on a prescription be “*tabs” How many tablets should be dispensed? I
141
Q
  1. An optometrist wishes to dispense an eye drop with a total of “CL gtts” in the bitty. What size bottle would you dispense?
142
Q
  1. What volume of alcohol would be required to package 144 pints of alcoholic?
A

18 gallons. 8 pints per gallon

144/8 = 18

143
Q
  1. Dermatologist prescribed 1 lb of Triamcinolonr 0.1% cream to a patient How much should you dispense?

a . 16 oz

b. 454 grams

C. 60 oz

d. Both a and b are correct

A

Both a and b are correct

16 oz in a pound
28.35 grams in an oz
28,35 * 16 = 453.6

144
Q
  1. What is 41 deg F in Celsius
A

5 deg C

(deg F - 32) * 5/9 = deg C

(Deg C * 9/5) + 32 = deg F

145
Q

6 what is15 deg C in Fahrenheit?

A

59 deg F

(deg C * 9/5) + 32 = deg F

(15*9/5) + 32 = 27+32 = 59

146
Q
  1. How much Theophylline 80mg/15 ml elixir is reqtfor a dose of 240 mg?
A

3 TBSP

240 ml/ 80 mg = 3
3* 15 ml = 45 ml

45ml * 1 tbsp/ 14.8 ml = 3.15 TBSP

1 Tbsp = 14.8 ml/ tbsp
1 ml = .07 tbsp/ ml

147
Q
  1. A drug concentration is 100 mg/ 2.5 ml. If 100 mg is administered QID, the total daily dose would be:
A

10 ml containing 0.4 g

148
Q
  1. How many 250 mg doses are in a 5 oz bottle of 125 mg/5mL amoxicillin suspension?
A

10mL containing 0.4 g

149
Q
  1. A preorder specifies potassium chloy15mEq PO BID. What Botox KCI elixir containing. 40mEq/30mL will be required to deliver a single dose?
A

11.25 mL

MEQ = Milequivalance

150
Q
  1. If the label on a multi-dose vial reads 25 mg/mL, what volume will deliver a dose of 6 mg?
A

0.24 mL

25 Mg/ 6 mg = 4.17

1 mg /4.17 = 0.24 mL

151
Q
  1. A pharmacy fills an order for 28 Bactrian tablets containing 0.8g of trimethoprim each How many trimethoprim is dispensed?
A

2240.00 mg

28tablets * 0.08g /tablet = 2.24g
2.24g* 1000mg/gm = 22400 mg

152
Q
  1. How much amoxicillin suspension 250mg/ 5mL would be needed to fill a prescription for Amoxicillan 200 mg PO q8h for 10 days?
153
Q
  1. If an insuocimoaby will pay for a 21-day supply only and the prescription reads “ I-II q 4-6”, what is the maximum number that can be dispersed?
154
Q
  1. A patient is taking theee 100 mg capsules of phenytoin (Dilantin) each day. How many phenytoin would the patient take in 29 days?
A

6000 mg

100mg/capsule * 3 capsules /day * 20 days = 6000 mg

155
Q
  1. An order calls for Httone 1% cream and Lortrimin 1% cream as was. How many grams of Lotrimin cream would be needed to make a total of 60g of cream?
A

30 g

30 g of Hytone cream and 30g of Kotrimin cream

156
Q
  1. The pharmacy receives an order for prednisone 5 mg 2 qid, p. C. And he. How much of the drug needs to be placed in the meditation drawer fo a 24-hr period?
157
Q
  1. If 125 tablets contain 260 mg of a substance, how many grains would 500 tablets contain?
A

16 grains.

260 mg. /125 tablets = 2.08 mg/ tablet

500 tablets * 2.08 mg / tablet = 1040 mg

1 mg = .0154 grains

1040 mg * .0154 grains / mg = 16.0 grains

158
Q
  1. How many 500mg doses can be prepared from a 10mg vial of Cefazoline?
A

20 doses

10g* 1000mg/g = 10000mg
10000mg/500mg/dose = 20 doses

159
Q
  1. What volume of Maslow would be dispensed to administer a dose of 1 1/2 oz ?
A

45mL

1 oz= 29.574 mL

1.5 oz = 29.574*1.5 = 44.4

160
Q
  1. A patient has the following prescription “Captopril 12.5 mg Sig: SS tab BID. How much of the drug will the patient take in a week?
A
  1. 5 mg

12. 5 mg /day * 7days/week= 87.5 mg/week

161
Q

22.What volume of a 0.5mg/2mL digoxin injection will delivers dose of 0.225 mg

A

0.5 mL

0.5 mg/2mL = 1.25 mg / X mL
X mL = 1.25 mg/0.5 mg/2 mL
= 1.25mg* 2 mL/0.5mg=2.5/5=0.5mL

162
Q
  1. A liquid contains 0.25 mg/mL of a substance. How much of the substance will 2.5L contain?
A

875 mg

1 L =1000 mL

3.5 L * 1000 mL/ L = 3500mL

3500 mL * 0.25 mg/mL = 875 mg

163
Q
  1. What is the percentage rate if 14 errors are detected in the preparation of 300 scripts?
A

4.7 %

14 errors / 300 scripts = 4.7 %

164
Q
  1. A 20 mL dose of a mixture prescribed for pain relief contains 10 mg morphine, 10 mg codeine, 5 mL alcohol, 5 mL cherry syrup, QS with water. How many 30 mg morphine sulfate tablets are needed to prepare 480 make of this solution?
165
Q
  1. A patient is to be administered a drug that has a recommended dosage of 0.5mg/ kg of bast weight. The patient is an infant weighing 15 lbs. The amount of the drug the patient is to receive is:
A

3.4 mg

1 kg = 2.205 lbs

0.5 mg/ kg* 2.205 lbs/kg = 0.227 mg/ lb

15 lbs * 0.227 mg/lbs = 3.4 mg

166
Q
  1. What amount of 6% ammoniated mercury ointment must be diluted with white petrolatum to fill an order for 1 pound of 2% ammoniated mercury ointment ?
A

152 g

1 lb = 454 g

2% ammoniated mercury ointment/ 6% ammoniated Mercedes ointment = .33

1 lb of 2% ammoniated mercury ointment * 454g / 1 lb * 0.333 = 151

167
Q
  1. How many grams of 20 % zinc oxide ointment will deliver 8g of zinc oxide?
A

40 g

20% zinc oxide / 100 % zinc oxide = X / 8 g

5 * 8 g = 40 g

168
Q
  1. How much me my in powder must be added to Fluocinolone cream to dispense an order for 60 g of Fluocinolone cream with 0.5% neomycin?
A

300 mg

1 gm = 1000 mg

60 g * 1000 mg/g = 60000mg

60000* .005 = 300 mg

169
Q
  1. The quantity of hydrocortisone powder needed to prepare 4 oz of 2% hydrocortisone cream is :
A

2.4 g

1 oz = 28.35 g

4 oz * 28.35 g/oz = 113.4 g

113.4 * .002 + 2.3

170
Q
  1. What amount of 50% magnesium sulfate solutions should be injected to prepare an IV bag containing 2 g Mg504?
171
Q
  1. How many 1 mg tablets of folic acid would be added to 360
    mL of vitamin preparation to increase the folic acid content by 0.5mg/5mL?
A

36 tablets

172
Q
  1. What volume of 5% sodium hypochlorite is required to prepare 1L of 0.1% sodium hypochlorite disinfecting solution
173
Q
  1. A pharmacy technician dilutes a 1 g vial of ampicillin (Omnipen). With 3.4 mL sterile water for injection. When properly mixed, the concentration of the drug solution is 250 mg /ml. If the prescribed dose is 759 mg, the required volume of the drug solution is :
174
Q
  1. How many millimeters of water must be added to a pint of 5% alcohol to prepare a diluted 20% solution?
    ( 1 pint = 473 ml)
175
Q
  1. An IV dilution 𝙊𝙧𝙙𝙚𝙧 is received for KCL 29 mEq in 1000 ml of D5W to be infused at 125 mL /hr. What amount of KCL will that patient receive per hour?
176
Q
  1. An IV Infusion 𝙊𝙧𝙙𝙚𝙧 is received for aminophyiline 599 mg in 599 mL of D 5W , to be infused at 1 mg/kg/hr . The patient weighs 154 lbds. What will the flow rate be in mL / min?
A

1.2 mL/min

177
Q
  1. An IV infusion 𝙊𝙧𝙙𝙚𝙧 is received for lidocaine ( Xylocaine( 2 g 259 ml of D5 W to be infused at 3mh/min. What will the flow rate be in mL/ hr?
A

22.5 mL/hr

3 mg/1. + X mg /60 = 180 mg/69
2999 mg/ 259 mL. = 3 mg/ Cx mL =
0.375 mL * 60 (hr) = 22.5 mL / HRx

178
Q
  1. The administration set that delivers 12 gtt/mL is set up to infuse 1000 mL D5W over a 24 hr period. What flow rate will be required to deliver the 1099 mL? I
A

8 drops / min

12gtt/ mL = (12000 gtts/ 1000 mL )/1440 mins = 0.83 gtts/ min= 8 gtts/ min

24 hrs * 60 mins = 1440 mins

179
Q
  1. An IV solution contains 25 g of a medication in 1000mL of stock solution. What is the final percentage concentration?
180
Q
  1. If 1 kg of an ointment contains 259 g of salicylic acid. What is the percentage strength of the ointment?
181
Q
  1. If you want to prepare 150 g of a coal tar ointment containing 12 g of coal tar: what is the percentage strength of coal tar in the ointment?
182
Q
  1. The concentration of 0.1 % expressed as a rato strength is?
183
Q
  1. How much gentian violet is in 500 mL of s 1:10000 solution?
184
Q
  1. To process a prescription order for a 12.5% dextrose solution. The pharmacy technician would mix the stock solutions of 20% and 5%?dextris solutions in which ratio?
185
Q
  1. A Mouthwash contains 0.35 % mint flavoring . How many ml of flavoring are in a quart of mouthwash?
    ( 1 qt= 969 ml)
186
Q
  1. An order for 1 lb 4% zinc oxide paste is prepared using the pharmacy stock 10 % paste and 1% paste. How much of each stock paste must be mixed to obtain the desired concentration?
    ( Assume 1 lb = 454 g)
A

151g of 10% , 303g of 1%

187
Q
  1. If the dosage of a medication is 40mg/kg/day in three divided doses, what is the dose for a 205 lb patient?
A

1.25 g TID

188
Q
  1. The label on a 200 ml bottle of Ampicillin 125mg/ml directs you to add 158 ml of water. How much ampicillin 3is in the bottle and what is the powder volume of Ampicillin in the bottle?
A

5000 mug of Ampicillin and 42 ml of powder.

189
Q
  1. A cold capsule contay30 mg of Pseudoephedrine, 2 mg of Brompheniramine and 200 mg of ibuprofen. How many grams of each drug are required to make 209 of these cold capsules?
A

3g PSE, 0.2 g Bromphomiramine, 29g ibuprofen

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