NASM Practice exam Flashcards
Which term refers to a system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate a variety of bodily functions and consists of host organs, chemical messengers, and target cells?
a. Digestive system
b. Endocrine system
c. Nervous system
d. Respiratory system
Endocrine system
What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?
a. End-diastolic volume
b. Maximal lung capacity
c. Maximal oxygen consumption
d. Stroke volume
Maximal oxygen consumption
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
a. Diastolic blood pressure
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Resting metabolic rate
Resting metabolic rate
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?
a. The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
b. The amount of stored adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body increases.
c. The amount of available fuel for exercise from fats is exhausted.
d. The oxidation of proteins predominates as the primary energy source.
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint?
a. Oxidative
b. ATP-PC
c. Krebs cycle
d. Glycolysis
ATP-PC
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
a. Dyspnea
b. Pneumonia
c. Hypoxia
d. Pulmonary hyperplasia
Dyspnea
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
a. Anterior
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Superior
Anterior
Which term refers to a position on or toward the back of the body?
a. Lateral
b. Anterior
c. Posterior
d. Ipsilateral
Posterior
Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?
a. Medial
b. Distal
c. Diastolic
d. Systolic
Diastolic
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
a. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons
b. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
c. Exciting the muscle spindle
d. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Muscular atrophy
d. Muscular hypotrophy
Muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?
a. The agonist muscle is shortening.
b. It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.
c. The antagonist muscle lengthens.
d. It is known as “a positive” in the health and fitness industry.
It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used?
a. Jogging for 30 minutes
b. Performing a 1RM squat
c. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk
d. Sprinting 40 yards
Jogging for 30 minutes
Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries?
a. Increased bone density of lumbar spine vertebrae
b. Decreased hypertonicity of superficial hip flexor muscles
c. Increased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles
d. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur?
a. Anterior-posterior
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse
Sagittal
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?
a. Fluctuates
b. Remains elevated
c. Increases
d. Remains unaffected
Remains elevated
Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?
a. Veins
b. Arterioles
c. Arteries
d. Carotids
Veins
To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach?
a. Femur
b. Clavicle
c. Vertebrae
d. Humerus
Vertebrae
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
a. 50%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 60%
30%
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
a. 1-3 mg/lb
b. 1-3 mg/kg
c. 3-6 mg/lb
d. 3-6 mg/kg
3-6 mg/kg
Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?
a. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
b. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
d. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
Which of the following is an example that exhibits the conditions for being classified as obese?
a. An individual who is 20 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
b. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
c. An individual who is 10 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
d. An individual with a body mass index equal to or less than 20
An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client’s knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching?
a. Vastus medialis oblique
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Vastus lateralis
Vastus lateralis
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?
a. VO2 Reserve Method
b. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
d. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following?
a. An overactive abductor complex and anterior tibialis
b. An overactive pectoralis major and teres major
c. An overactive transverse abdominis and gluteus maximus
d. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius
An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius
What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?
a. Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
b. Overactive erector spinae and hip extensor complex
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and teres major
d. Overactive adductors complex and biceps femoris (short head)
Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?
a. Remote Associates Test (RAT)
b. Inhibitory control test
c. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
d. McGill Pain Questionnaire
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
a. Upon waking in the morning
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Right before bed
Upon waking in the morning
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Biceps femoris
Latissimus dorsi
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
a. Pro shuttle test
b. 40-yard dash
c. L.E.F.T. test
d. Gait assessment
Pro shuttle test
Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29?
a. Overweight
b. Obese
c. Underweight
d. Normal
Overweight
Which of the following body composition assessment methods is based on the principle that lean mass sinks, whereas body fat floats?
a. Body mass index
b. Bioelectrical impedance
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Skinfold measurement
Hydrostatic weighing
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
a. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
c. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
a. Blood pressure test
b. Heart rate test
c. Static posture assessment
d. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire
Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?
a. Before bedtime
b. Before a workout
c. After waking-up
d. After a workout
After waking-up
Which of the following body mass index (BMI) ranges indicates a person is overweight?
a. 15 to 19.99
b. 10 to 14.99
c. 20 to 24.99
d. 25 to 29.99
25 to 29.99
If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Vastus medialis oblique
d. Adductors
Adductors
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Lower-extremity strength assessment: squat
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Overhead squat assessment
Shark skill test
During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client’s shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Scalenes
c. Lower trapezius
d. Levator scapulae
Lower trapezius
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
a. Lifestyle
b. Food consumption habits
c. Occupation
d. Physiological measurements
Physiological measurements
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive if a client’s support or standing leg falls inward during a single-leg squat assessment?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Tensor fascia latae (TFL)
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Adductor complex
Gluteus medius
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
a. Bench press 1RM test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing assessment
d. Push-up test
Bench press 1RM test
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?
a. Prone iso-abs
b. Dumbbell snatch
c. Reverse crunch
d. Supported dumbbell row
Reverse crunch
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
a. Speed Endurance Training
b. Aerobic Endurance Training
c. Anaerobic Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
Strength Endurance Training
Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
75%
Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise?
a. Back extension
b. Marching
c. Reverse crunch
d. Ball medicine ball pullover throw
Ball medicine ball pullover throw
Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 3 minutes
d. 6 minutes
3 Minutes
What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level?
a. Reduce neutralizer strength
b. Increase muscle size
c. Increase rate of force production
d. Reduce prime mover strength
Increase rate of force production
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?
a. X/X/X
b. 4/2/1
c. 1/1/1
d. 2/0/2
2/0/2
Which of the following best describes an OPT model training program that will progress for a year in order to meet a fitness goal?
a. Metacycle
b. Mesocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Macrocycle
Macrocycle
For resistance training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise are recommended?
a. 3-5
b. 0-4
c. 1-3
d. 2-4
2-4
How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?
a. 6–7 seconds
b. 3–5 seconds
c. 8–10 seconds
d. 1–2 seconds
3-5 seconds
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client?
a. Exhaustion
b. Alarm reaction
c. Overtraining
d. Resistance development
Exhaustion
Which of the following is a training plan that involves a week long exercise program based upon the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
a. Microcycle
b. Metacycle
c. Mesocycle
d. Macrocycle
Microcycle
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
a. Pyramid
b. Drop-set
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Vertical loading
Vertical Loading
Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
a. Slow
b. Medium
c. Explosive
d. Fast
Medium
Which of the following would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?
a. Active flexibility
b. Functional flexibility
c. Relative flexibility
d. Corrective flexibility
Functional Flexibility
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise?
a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Repeat squat jumps
c. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Barbell squat
Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
Which of the following refers to a weekly training program?
a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Mesocycle
d. Metacycle
Microcycle
What type of exercise is used second in a Phase 2: Strength Endurance superset?
a. Strength
b. Stabilization
c. Plyometric
d. Power
Stabilization
Which of the following is a true statement about a set in a training program?
a. It is a group of consecutive repetitions.
b. It is the speed of a set of movements.
c. It is the complete program design of a group of exercises.
d. It is a group of chosen exercises for program design.
It is a group of consecutive repetitions.
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
a. Medicine ball pull over throw
b. Seated lat pull down
c. Seated cable row
d. Standing cable row
Standing cable row
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?
a. Hypertrophy training
b. Power training
c. Stabilization endurance training
d. Maximal strength training
Stabilization endurance training
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?
a. Peripheral heart action system
b. Split-routine system
c. Drop-set system
d. Pyramid system
Pyramid system
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
a. Focusing on the development of maximal speed
b. Maximizing sports performance training
c. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
d. Providing variety in the selection of SAQ drills
eeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress?
a. Homeostasis
b. General adaptation syndrome
c. Synergistic response
d. Autogenic inhibition
General adaptation syndrome
Which of the following is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?
a. Functional flexibility
b. Active flexibility
c. Corrective flexibility
d. Passive flexibility
Corrective flexibility
Which of the following is a strategy used in Maximal Strength training?
a. High repetitions
b. Longer rest periods
c. Low volume
d. Low loads
Longer rest periods
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Single-leg squat
b. Davies test
c. Bench press
d. Shark skill test
Single-leg squat
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
c. Barbell bench press
d. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Pectineus
c. Psoas
d. Adductor brevis
Psoas
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?
a. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam
b. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad
c. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
d. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, balance disc, half foam roll
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?
a. Perform the exercise with a stability ball.
b. Stand on a balance pad.
c. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.
d. Reaching all the way to the foot.
Reaching all the way to the foot.
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?
a. Kettlebells
b. Water balls
c. Medicine balls
d. Stability balls
Medicine Balls
If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?
a. Seated ball adductor stretch
b. Incline prone iso-abs
c. Machine chest press
d. Foam roll calves
Foam Roll Calves
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
a. Postural control
b. Strength
c. Speed
d. Muscle hypertrophy
Postural control
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
a. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down.
b. Perform the exercise with legs elevated.
c. Perform the exercise without a bench.
d. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
a. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
c. 90° internally rotated humerus
d. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
Posteriorly rotated pelvis
Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt?
a. Chest press
b. Leg raises
c. Calf raises
d. Seated calf raises
Leg Raises
Which of the following is a technique used to express or validate how a client feels when he or she is working during exercise?
a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
b. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
c. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
d. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise.
a. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
b. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
c. Phase 5: Power
d. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Phase 5: Power
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?
a. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation
Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
a. Lunge to balance
b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
d. Step-up to balance
Lunge to balance
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
a. 60-degree
b. 45-degree
c. 90-degree
d. 120-degree
90-degree
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Myotatic stretch-reflex
d. Relative flexibility
Reciprocal inhibition
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
a. Leg-stabilization
b. Balance-stabilization
c. Balance-power
d. Leg-power
Balance-power
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable crunch
d. Standing cable row
Standing cable chest press
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
a. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
b. Clients who suffer from varicose veins in the lower extremities
c. Youth clients between the ages of 4-8 in which gowth plates are not fused
d. Client’s with no co-morbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
In which of the following cases should the two-arm push press be avoided?
a. When a client wants to train for a race
b. When clients want to develop total body power
c. When a client is performing a power superset
d. When a client has not developed proper stability
When a client has not developed proper stability
Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment?
a. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.
b. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot.
c. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg.
d. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg.
Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
a. Elastic resistance training
b. Kettlebell training
c. Vibration training
d. Suspension body-weight training
Vibration training
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Spot at the elbows.
Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
What is a client’s strongest source of self-confidence?
a. Performance accomplishments
b. Modeling
c. Verbal persuasion
d. Imagery
Performance accomplishments
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
a. Remodeling
b. Affirmations
c. Positive self-talk
d. Reflecting
Positive self-talk
Which of the following is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths?
a. Active listening
b. Reflecting
c. Summarizing
d. Affirmations
Affirmations
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
a. Reflecting
b. Asking questions
c. Remodeling
d. Active listening
Reflecting
Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month?
a. The maintenance stage
b. The action stage
c. The precontemplation stage
d. The preparation stage
The preparation stage
The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
a. Open-ended
b. Dichotomous
c. Contingency
d. Directive
Open-ended
A personal trainer asks a client to write down the names of the exercises she performs, how much food she is eating, and how much sleep she is getting. Which of the following strategies is the client following?
a. Self-monitoring
b. Contemplation
c. Imagery
d. Goal setting
Self-monitoring
Which of the following is a characteristic of the maintenance stage?
a. They no longer need support from the personal trainer.
b. They have reached the end of their behavior change development
c. They have maintained change for 6 months or more.
d. They have severe modifications in lifestyle
They have maintained change for 6 months or more
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Action stage
b. Behavioral reactants
c. Diffusion
d. Remodeling
Behavioral reactants
Which type of influence comes from supportive leadership?
a. Exercise group
b. Parental
c. Exercise leader
d. Family
Exercise leader
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
a. I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.”
b. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.”
c. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
d. “Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.”
“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of change model?
a. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
b. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, continuation
c. Precontemplation, contemplation, action, continuance, maintenance
d. Precontemplation, preparation, contemplation, action, maintenance
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client’s thoughts and attitudes?
a. Self-monitoring
b. Behavioral strategies
c. Goal setting
d. Cognitive strategies
Cognitive strategies
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
a. Social support
b. Intrinsic
c. Association and dissociation
d. Extrinsic
Association and dissociation
What is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Precontemplation
Action
Cody works as a certified personal trainer with a basketball team. One of the players injures himself during pracitce. In this scenario, what should be Cody’s course of action?
a. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
b. Cody should wrap the player’s ankle in ice.
c. Cody should treat the player’s injury as he is certified to do so.
d. Cody should refer the player to another personal trainer.
Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding a client’s nutrition?
a. Provide individual nutrition assessment.
b. Write individualized meal plans.
c. Recommend nutritional therapy.
d. Discuss food preparation methods
Discuss food preparation methods.
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?
a. 2.0 CEU within 1 year
b. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
c. 3.0 CEU within 3 years
d. 3.0 CEU within 2 years
2.0 CEU within 2 years
After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?
a. A way to create value for potential clients
b. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
d. Obtaining training for marketing services
Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
What is something an in-home personal trainer should take into consideration on a day-to-day basis when compared to other types of personal training employment?
a. Writing meal plans for clients
b. Meeting sales quotas for a health club
c. Adhering to a gym’s dress code
d. Travel times between client locations
Travel times between client locations
A personal trainer can prevent hazards at the workplace by performing which of the following?
a. Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis.
b. Maintain client liability insurance at all times.
c. Complete an online CPR and first aid certification.
d. Complete and save all records about a client in case a hazard occurs.
Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis.
Which of the following should a fitness professional working as a personal trainer do if his or her client suffers from shortness of breath after a low-intensity work out?
a. Prescribe a treatment for the client’s condition.
b. Refer the client to a physician.
c. Ask the client to perform another low-intensity exercise.
d. Diagnose the client’s condition.
Refer the client to a physician
Amy is a newly certified fitness professional. Amy realizes that she lacks the expertise to work with the special considerations for a client. Which of the following should Amy do for this client?
a. Implement Phase 4 exercise programs from the OPT model for her clients.
b. Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
c. Offer and sell weight loss suplements for all of her clients.
d. Design weight loss meal plans that are effective for the entire group.
Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
a. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
b. Prescribing nutrition plans
c. Diagnosing injuries
d. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?
a. They may be able to control their own schedule.
b. They are exempt from purchasing liability insurance.
c. They receive employment benefits.
d. They have a schedule set by a gym.
They may be able to control their own schedule.
Which of the following is an appropriate behavior for a health and fitness professional?
a. Provide treatment for clients’ health conditions.
b. Prescribe different diets for different clients.
c. Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed.
d. Diagnose medical or health conditions of clients.
Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed.
Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program?
a. Group exercise instructor
b. Personal trainer
c. Gym manager
d. Registered dietician
Registered dietician
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?
a. Superior
b. Ipsilateral
c. Distal
d. Contralateral
Contralateral
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
a. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
b. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
c. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
d. Affect posture and muscle balance
Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
Shoulder elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?
a. Transverse
b. Axial
c. Superior
d. Vertical
Superior
What is the body’s motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli called?
a. Homeostasis
b. Motor behavior
c. Force-couple
d. Arthrokinematics
Motor behavior
In the endocrine system, which of the following secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thyroid gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Pineal gland
Adrenal Gland
What is a side effect of caffeine use?
a. A decrease in calcium excretion
b. An increase in HDL cholesterol
c. An increase in urine production
d. A decrease in systolic blood pressure
An increase in urine production
Which term refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements?
a. Proprioception
b. Periodization
c. Homeostasis
d. Amortization
Proprioception
Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?
a. 35.0 mL
b. 3.5 mL
c. 350 mL
d. 0.35 mL
3.5mL
Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?
a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
Eccentric
As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Length-tension relationships
b. Relative flexibility
c. Force-velocity curve
d. Rotary motion
Force-velocity curve
A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?
a. Relative flexibility
b. Motor learning
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance
Motor learning
Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
a. Frontal
b. Anterior-posterior
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse
Transverse
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
a. 250 min
b. 200 min
c. 150 min
d. 100 min
150 min
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
a. Internal oblique
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Hamstring complex
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?
a. Peak VO2 method
b. Straight percentage method
c. Karvonen method
d. VO2rest method
Peak VO2 method
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
c. Adductor complex
d. Gluteus medius
Adductor complex
Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Shark skill test
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg star test
d. Davies test
Shark Skills Test
During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Gluteus medius
d. Adductor complex
Gluteus Medius
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
a. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.
b. Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
c. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
d. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers “no” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client’s knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor brevis
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Biceps femoris
Gluteus medius
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
a. Increase blood pressure
b. Decrease blood pressure
c. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
d. Has no effect
Decrease blood pressure
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
a. Use Valsalva maneuvers
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Implement a drop-set loading system
d. Avoid prone positions
Avoid prone positions
A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the “good” category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train?
a. 0.95
b. 0.85
c. 0.65
d. 0.75
0.85
Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome?
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Outwardly rotated knees
c. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
d. Flat feet and adducted knees
Forward head and rounded shoulders
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
a. A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids
b. A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise
c. A source of bulk to the diet to aid digestion
d. A precursor to hormone production
A precursor to hormone production
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
a. Pushing assessment, lateral view
b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view
c. Shark skill test, anterior view
d. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
Pushing assessment, lateral view
During a single-leg squat assessment your client’s knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
a. Medial hamstrings
b. TFL
c. Gluteus medius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
TFL
Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Flat feet and knock knees
c. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
d. Hyperextension of the hips and knees
Anterior tilt to the pelvis
