NASM Practice exam Flashcards
Which term refers to a system of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream to regulate a variety of bodily functions and consists of host organs, chemical messengers, and target cells?
a. Digestive system
b. Endocrine system
c. Nervous system
d. Respiratory system
Endocrine system
What may be the best measure of cardiorespiratory fitness?
a. End-diastolic volume
b. Maximal lung capacity
c. Maximal oxygen consumption
d. Stroke volume
Maximal oxygen consumption
Decreased levels of thyroid hormones tend to cause a decrease in which of the following?
a. Diastolic blood pressure
b. Systolic blood pressure
c. Resting heart rate
d. Resting metabolic rate
Resting metabolic rate
What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?
a. The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
b. The amount of stored adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body increases.
c. The amount of available fuel for exercise from fats is exhausted.
d. The oxidation of proteins predominates as the primary energy source.
The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
Which of the following energy systems is used most when running a 10-second sprint?
a. Oxidative
b. ATP-PC
c. Krebs cycle
d. Glycolysis
ATP-PC
Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?
a. Dyspnea
b. Pneumonia
c. Hypoxia
d. Pulmonary hyperplasia
Dyspnea
Which of the following refers to a position on or toward the front of the body?
a. Anterior
b. Medial
c. Lateral
d. Superior
Anterior
Which term refers to a position on or toward the back of the body?
a. Lateral
b. Anterior
c. Posterior
d. Ipsilateral
Posterior
Which of the following represents the pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood?
a. Medial
b. Distal
c. Diastolic
d. Systolic
Diastolic
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?
a. Inhibiting signal to the interneurons
b. Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
c. Exciting the muscle spindle
d. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons
Stimulating the Golgi tendon organ
Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Muscular atrophy
d. Muscular hypotrophy
Muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following is true of eccentric motion?
a. The agonist muscle is shortening.
b. It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.
c. The antagonist muscle lengthens.
d. It is known as “a positive” in the health and fitness industry.
It is known as “a negative” in the health and fitness industry.
For which activity is the oxidative system primarily used?
a. Jogging for 30 minutes
b. Performing a 1RM squat
c. Executing a 1RM clean and jerk
d. Sprinting 40 yards
Jogging for 30 minutes
Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries?
a. Increased bone density of lumbar spine vertebrae
b. Decreased hypertonicity of superficial hip flexor muscles
c. Increased neural control of the rotator cuff muscles
d. Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
Decreased neural control to stabilizing muscles of the core
In which plane of motion does a hammer curl occur?
a. Anterior-posterior
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse
Sagittal
How does metabolism behave during EPOC?
a. Fluctuates
b. Remains elevated
c. Increases
d. Remains unaffected
Remains elevated
Which of the following refers to vessels that transport blood from the capillaries toward the heart?
a. Veins
b. Arterioles
c. Arteries
d. Carotids
Veins
To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach?
a. Femur
b. Clavicle
c. Vertebrae
d. Humerus
Vertebrae
A personal trainer is advising a client on caloric distribution. Which of the following falls within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for protein?
a. 50%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 60%
30%
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?
a. 1-3 mg/lb
b. 1-3 mg/kg
c. 3-6 mg/lb
d. 3-6 mg/kg
3-6 mg/kg
Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?
a. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
b. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
d. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
Which of the following is an example that exhibits the conditions for being classified as obese?
a. An individual who is 20 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
b. An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
c. An individual who is 10 pounds over the ideal weight for his or her height
d. An individual with a body mass index equal to or less than 20
An individual with a body mass index equal to or higher than 30
During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client’s knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching?
a. Vastus medialis oblique
b. Gluteus medius
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Vastus lateralis
Vastus lateralis
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?
a. VO2 Reserve Method
b. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
c. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
d. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following?
a. An overactive abductor complex and anterior tibialis
b. An overactive pectoralis major and teres major
c. An overactive transverse abdominis and gluteus maximus
d. An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius
An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius
What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?
a. Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
b. Overactive erector spinae and hip extensor complex
c. Overactive latissimus dorsi and teres major
d. Overactive adductors complex and biceps femoris (short head)
Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?
a. Remote Associates Test (RAT)
b. Inhibitory control test
c. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
d. McGill Pain Questionnaire
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?
a. Upon waking in the morning
b. Right before workout
c. Just after workout
d. Right before bed
Upon waking in the morning
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Biceps femoris
Latissimus dorsi
Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?
a. Pro shuttle test
b. 40-yard dash
c. L.E.F.T. test
d. Gait assessment
Pro shuttle test
Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with a body mass index (BMI) of 29?
a. Overweight
b. Obese
c. Underweight
d. Normal
Overweight
Which of the following body composition assessment methods is based on the principle that lean mass sinks, whereas body fat floats?
a. Body mass index
b. Bioelectrical impedance
c. Hydrostatic weighing
d. Skinfold measurement
Hydrostatic weighing
Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?
a. Use prediction formulas to estimate the client’s max heart rate
b. Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
c. Implement a 4-2-1 repetition tempo
d. Employ plyometric-stabilization training
Use the talk test to measure an exercise’s intensity
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?
a. Blood pressure test
b. Heart rate test
c. Static posture assessment
d. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire
Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?
a. Before bedtime
b. Before a workout
c. After waking-up
d. After a workout
After waking-up
Which of the following body mass index (BMI) ranges indicates a person is overweight?
a. 15 to 19.99
b. 10 to 14.99
c. 20 to 24.99
d. 25 to 29.99
25 to 29.99
If a client’s knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?
a. Gluteus maximus
b. Gluteus medius
c. Vastus medialis oblique
d. Adductors
Adductors
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Lower-extremity strength assessment: squat
b. Shark skill test
c. Davies test
d. Overhead squat assessment
Shark skill test
During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client’s shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?
a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Scalenes
c. Lower trapezius
d. Levator scapulae
Lower trapezius
Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?
a. Lifestyle
b. Food consumption habits
c. Occupation
d. Physiological measurements
Physiological measurements
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive if a client’s support or standing leg falls inward during a single-leg squat assessment?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Tensor fascia latae (TFL)
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Adductor complex
Gluteus medius
Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete’s maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?
a. Bench press 1RM test
b. Davies test
c. Pushing assessment
d. Push-up test
Bench press 1RM test
Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?
a. Prone iso-abs
b. Dumbbell snatch
c. Reverse crunch
d. Supported dumbbell row
Reverse crunch
Which of the following involves performing exercises in a superset sequence?
a. Speed Endurance Training
b. Aerobic Endurance Training
c. Anaerobic Endurance Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
Strength Endurance Training
Which of the following percentages of ATP and PC recovery result from a rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
75%
Which of the following is an example of a core-power exercise?
a. Back extension
b. Marching
c. Reverse crunch
d. Ball medicine ball pullover throw
Ball medicine ball pullover throw
Which of the following is the appropriate rest interval when training in the Maximal Strength Phase?
a. 30 seconds
b. 60 seconds
c. 3 minutes
d. 6 minutes
3 Minutes
What is a primary goal of training in the Power Level?
a. Reduce neutralizer strength
b. Increase muscle size
c. Increase rate of force production
d. Reduce prime mover strength
Increase rate of force production
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?
a. X/X/X
b. 4/2/1
c. 1/1/1
d. 2/0/2
2/0/2
Which of the following best describes an OPT model training program that will progress for a year in order to meet a fitness goal?
a. Metacycle
b. Mesocycle
c. Microcycle
d. Macrocycle
Macrocycle
For resistance training in Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise are recommended?
a. 3-5
b. 0-4
c. 1-3
d. 2-4
2-4
How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?
a. 6–7 seconds
b. 3–5 seconds
c. 8–10 seconds
d. 1–2 seconds
3-5 seconds
A client who has been training at high intensities in preparation for a triathlon reports joint pain, excess fatigue, and the inability to sustain normal workouts. In which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is this client?
a. Exhaustion
b. Alarm reaction
c. Overtraining
d. Resistance development
Exhaustion
Which of the following is a training plan that involves a week long exercise program based upon the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
a. Microcycle
b. Metacycle
c. Mesocycle
d. Macrocycle
Microcycle
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?
a. Pyramid
b. Drop-set
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Vertical loading
Vertical Loading
Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
a. Slow
b. Medium
c. Explosive
d. Fast
Medium
Which of the following would be appropriate at the Power Level (Phase 5) of the OPT model or before athletic competition?
a. Active flexibility
b. Functional flexibility
c. Relative flexibility
d. Corrective flexibility
Functional Flexibility
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise?
a. Lunge to two-arm press
b. Repeat squat jumps
c. Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
d. Barbell squat
Multiplanar step-up balance, curl, to overhead press
Which of the following refers to a weekly training program?
a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Mesocycle
d. Metacycle
Microcycle
What type of exercise is used second in a Phase 2: Strength Endurance superset?
a. Strength
b. Stabilization
c. Plyometric
d. Power
Stabilization
Which of the following is a true statement about a set in a training program?
a. It is a group of consecutive repetitions.
b. It is the speed of a set of movements.
c. It is the complete program design of a group of exercises.
d. It is a group of chosen exercises for program design.
It is a group of consecutive repetitions.
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
a. Medicine ball pull over throw
b. Seated lat pull down
c. Seated cable row
d. Standing cable row
Standing cable row
According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following corresponds to the first phase of training?
a. Hypertrophy training
b. Power training
c. Stabilization endurance training
d. Maximal strength training
Stabilization endurance training
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?
a. Peripheral heart action system
b. Split-routine system
c. Drop-set system
d. Pyramid system
Pyramid system
What should be the primary focus when developing SAQ drills for weight loss?
a. Focusing on the development of maximal speed
b. Maximizing sports performance training
c. Keeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
d. Providing variety in the selection of SAQ drills
eeping the heart rate appropriately elevated
Which of the following governs how the body responds and adjusts to stress?
a. Homeostasis
b. General adaptation syndrome
c. Synergistic response
d. Autogenic inhibition
General adaptation syndrome
Which of the following is appropriate at the Stabilization Level (Phase 1) of the OPT model?
a. Functional flexibility
b. Active flexibility
c. Corrective flexibility
d. Passive flexibility
Corrective flexibility
Which of the following is a strategy used in Maximal Strength training?
a. High repetitions
b. Longer rest periods
c. Low volume
d. Low loads
Longer rest periods
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?
a. Single-leg squat
b. Davies test
c. Bench press
d. Shark skill test
Single-leg squat
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press?
a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press
b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
c. Barbell bench press
d. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench
Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Pectineus
c. Psoas
d. Adductor brevis
Psoas
When selecting a balance exercise, which of the following is the most appropriate progression?
a. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam
b. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad
c. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
d. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, balance disc, half foam roll
Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?
a. Perform the exercise with a stability ball.
b. Stand on a balance pad.
c. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.
d. Reaching all the way to the foot.
Reaching all the way to the foot.
What can be thrown, caught, and used to provide resistance for a variety of movements, in a variety of planes of motion, and at a variety of velocities?
a. Kettlebells
b. Water balls
c. Medicine balls
d. Stability balls
Medicine Balls
If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?
a. Seated ball adductor stretch
b. Incline prone iso-abs
c. Machine chest press
d. Foam roll calves
Foam Roll Calves
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client?
a. Postural control
b. Strength
c. Speed
d. Muscle hypertrophy
Postural control
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
a. Elevate the shoulders up to the ears and push the body down.
b. Perform the exercise with legs elevated.
c. Perform the exercise without a bench.
d. Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?
a. Anteriorly rotated pelvis
b. Posteriorly rotated pelvis
c. 90° internally rotated humerus
d. 90° horizontally abducted humerus
Posteriorly rotated pelvis
Which exercise should be avoided if a client exhibits anterior pelvic tilt?
a. Chest press
b. Leg raises
c. Calf raises
d. Seated calf raises
Leg Raises
Which of the following is a technique used to express or validate how a client feels when he or she is working during exercise?
a. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method
b. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
c. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
d. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise.
a. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
b. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
c. Phase 5: Power
d. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
Phase 5: Power
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?
a. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation
Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to step forward with toes pointing straight ahead and then pushing off of the front foot through heel onto the back leg and maintain balance on the back leg?
a. Lunge to balance
b. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
c. Single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
d. Step-up to balance
Lunge to balance
At what angle should the knees be when performing a ball crunch exercise?
a. 60-degree
b. 45-degree
c. 90-degree
d. 120-degree
90-degree
Dynamic stretching uses which of the following concepts to improve soft tissue extensibility?
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Myotatic stretch-reflex
d. Relative flexibility
Reciprocal inhibition
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
a. Leg-stabilization
b. Balance-stabilization
c. Balance-power
d. Leg-power
Balance-power
Resistance should be positioned to resist shoulder horizontal adduction during which of the following exercises?
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Standing cable crunch
d. Standing cable row
Standing cable chest press
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?
a. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
b. Clients who suffer from varicose veins in the lower extremities
c. Youth clients between the ages of 4-8 in which gowth plates are not fused
d. Client’s with no co-morbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
In which of the following cases should the two-arm push press be avoided?
a. When a client wants to train for a race
b. When clients want to develop total body power
c. When a client is performing a power superset
d. When a client has not developed proper stability
When a client has not developed proper stability
Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment?
a. Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.
b. Slowly squat as if sitting in a chair, reaching hand opposite of balance leg toward foot.
c. Push through both heels and stand upright, balancing on one leg.
d. Bend from the waist and slowly reach hand down toward the toes of the balance leg.
Squat as if sitting in a chair, flexing at hips, knees, and ankles and lower to first point of compensation.
Which of the following was developed by a Russian scientist in the training of cosmonauts to decrease the loss of muscle and bone mass while in space?
a. Elastic resistance training
b. Kettlebell training
c. Vibration training
d. Suspension body-weight training
Vibration training
Which of the following is appropriate when spotting during a bench press?
a. Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
b. Place hands at both ends of the barbell.
c. Wait until the client progresses through the sticking point before providing assistance.
d. Spot at the elbows.
Determine the amount of repetitions before performing the set.
What is a client’s strongest source of self-confidence?
a. Performance accomplishments
b. Modeling
c. Verbal persuasion
d. Imagery
Performance accomplishments
Creating a list of motivating key words (e.g., fast, go, focus) to replace negative thoughts is an example of what?
a. Remodeling
b. Affirmations
c. Positive self-talk
d. Reflecting
Positive self-talk
Which of the following is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths?
a. Active listening
b. Reflecting
c. Summarizing
d. Affirmations
Affirmations
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?
a. Reflecting
b. Asking questions
c. Remodeling
d. Active listening
Reflecting
Which of the following stages in the stages of change model involves individuals intending to take action in the next month?
a. The maintenance stage
b. The action stage
c. The precontemplation stage
d. The preparation stage
The preparation stage
The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
a. Open-ended
b. Dichotomous
c. Contingency
d. Directive
Open-ended
A personal trainer asks a client to write down the names of the exercises she performs, how much food she is eating, and how much sleep she is getting. Which of the following strategies is the client following?
a. Self-monitoring
b. Contemplation
c. Imagery
d. Goal setting
Self-monitoring
Which of the following is a characteristic of the maintenance stage?
a. They no longer need support from the personal trainer.
b. They have reached the end of their behavior change development
c. They have maintained change for 6 months or more.
d. They have severe modifications in lifestyle
They have maintained change for 6 months or more
A client who suffers from a chronic disease decides he no longer wants to participate in personal training sessions, based on the advice of his spouse. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Action stage
b. Behavioral reactants
c. Diffusion
d. Remodeling
Behavioral reactants
Which type of influence comes from supportive leadership?
a. Exercise group
b. Parental
c. Exercise leader
d. Family
Exercise leader
Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?
a. I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.”
b. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.”
c. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
d. “Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.”
“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”
Which of the following is the correct order for the stages of change model?
a. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
b. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, continuation
c. Precontemplation, contemplation, action, continuance, maintenance
d. Precontemplation, preparation, contemplation, action, maintenance
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
In the context of behavior change strategies, what aims to change a client’s thoughts and attitudes?
a. Self-monitoring
b. Behavioral strategies
c. Goal setting
d. Cognitive strategies
Cognitive strategies
What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?
a. Social support
b. Intrinsic
c. Association and dissociation
d. Extrinsic
Association and dissociation
What is the fourth step in the stages of change model?
a. Contemplation
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Precontemplation
Action
Cody works as a certified personal trainer with a basketball team. One of the players injures himself during pracitce. In this scenario, what should be Cody’s course of action?
a. Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
b. Cody should wrap the player’s ankle in ice.
c. Cody should treat the player’s injury as he is certified to do so.
d. Cody should refer the player to another personal trainer.
Cody should refer the player to a licensed professional.
Which of the following actions falls within a personal trainer’s scope of practice regarding a client’s nutrition?
a. Provide individual nutrition assessment.
b. Write individualized meal plans.
c. Recommend nutritional therapy.
d. Discuss food preparation methods
Discuss food preparation methods.
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?
a. 2.0 CEU within 1 year
b. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
c. 3.0 CEU within 3 years
d. 3.0 CEU within 2 years
2.0 CEU within 2 years
After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?
a. A way to create value for potential clients
b. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
c. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
d. Obtaining training for marketing services
Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
What is something an in-home personal trainer should take into consideration on a day-to-day basis when compared to other types of personal training employment?
a. Writing meal plans for clients
b. Meeting sales quotas for a health club
c. Adhering to a gym’s dress code
d. Travel times between client locations
Travel times between client locations
A personal trainer can prevent hazards at the workplace by performing which of the following?
a. Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis.
b. Maintain client liability insurance at all times.
c. Complete an online CPR and first aid certification.
d. Complete and save all records about a client in case a hazard occurs.
Maintain fitness equipment on a regular basis.
Which of the following should a fitness professional working as a personal trainer do if his or her client suffers from shortness of breath after a low-intensity work out?
a. Prescribe a treatment for the client’s condition.
b. Refer the client to a physician.
c. Ask the client to perform another low-intensity exercise.
d. Diagnose the client’s condition.
Refer the client to a physician
Amy is a newly certified fitness professional. Amy realizes that she lacks the expertise to work with the special considerations for a client. Which of the following should Amy do for this client?
a. Implement Phase 4 exercise programs from the OPT model for her clients.
b. Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
c. Offer and sell weight loss suplements for all of her clients.
d. Design weight loss meal plans that are effective for the entire group.
Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?
a. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
b. Prescribing nutrition plans
c. Diagnosing injuries
d. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
What is a characteristic of independent fitness professionals?
a. They may be able to control their own schedule.
b. They are exempt from purchasing liability insurance.
c. They receive employment benefits.
d. They have a schedule set by a gym.
They may be able to control their own schedule.
Which of the following is an appropriate behavior for a health and fitness professional?
a. Provide treatment for clients’ health conditions.
b. Prescribe different diets for different clients.
c. Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed.
d. Diagnose medical or health conditions of clients.
Be willing to refer clients to more qualified health and wellness professionals when needed.
Which of the following professions requires a supervised practice program?
a. Group exercise instructor
b. Personal trainer
c. Gym manager
d. Registered dietician
Registered dietician
Which term refers to an anatomical position on the opposite side of the body?
a. Superior
b. Ipsilateral
c. Distal
d. Contralateral
Contralateral
Performing the drawing-in maneuver or bracing can do what?
a. Cause narrowing of openings in the vertebrae
b. Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
c. Result in lower endurance for stabilization
d. Affect posture and muscle balance
Help retrain motor control of local and global stabilization systems
Shoulder elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?
a. Transverse
b. Axial
c. Superior
d. Vertical
Superior
What is the body’s motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli called?
a. Homeostasis
b. Motor behavior
c. Force-couple
d. Arthrokinematics
Motor behavior
In the endocrine system, which of the following secretes hormones such as corticosteroids and catecholamines in response to stress?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Thyroid gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Pineal gland
Adrenal Gland
What is a side effect of caffeine use?
a. A decrease in calcium excretion
b. An increase in HDL cholesterol
c. An increase in urine production
d. A decrease in systolic blood pressure
An increase in urine production
Which term refers to the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all mechanoreceptors that sense position and limb movements?
a. Proprioception
b. Periodization
c. Homeostasis
d. Amortization
Proprioception
Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?
a. 35.0 mL
b. 3.5 mL
c. 350 mL
d. 0.35 mL
3.5mL
Which movements are the latissimus dorsi responsible for concentrically accelerating?
a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation
d. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force increases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
Eccentric
As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Length-tension relationships
b. Relative flexibility
c. Force-velocity curve
d. Rotary motion
Force-velocity curve
A client practices repeated squat exercises in order to create permanent changes in her technique. What is she exhibiting?
a. Relative flexibility
b. Motor learning
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Synergistic dominance
Motor learning
Pronation of the forearm involves the inward movement of the forearm in which of the following planes?
a. Frontal
b. Anterior-posterior
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse
Transverse
According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?
a. 250 min
b. 200 min
c. 150 min
d. 100 min
150 min
During a static postural assessment, a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be shortened?
a. Internal oblique
b. Transverse abdominis
c. Hip flexor complex
d. Hamstring complex
Hip flexor complex
Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exericse at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?
a. Peak VO2 method
b. Straight percentage method
c. Karvonen method
d. VO2rest method
Peak VO2 method
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
a. Medial gastrocnemius
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
c. Adductor complex
d. Gluteus medius
Adductor complex
Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Shark skill test
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg star test
d. Davies test
Shark Skills Test
During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Gluteus medius
d. Adductor complex
Gluteus Medius
Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?
a. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.
b. Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
c. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
d. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers “no” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
Assess the client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.
During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client’s knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?
a. Gluteus medius
b. Adductor brevis
c. Vastus lateralis
d. Biceps femoris
Gluteus medius
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?
a. Increase blood pressure
b. Decrease blood pressure
c. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles
d. Has no effect
Decrease blood pressure
Which of the following is recommended for a client taking beta-blockers for hypertension?
a. Use Valsalva maneuvers
b. Modify training to include heavy workloads
c. Implement a drop-set loading system
d. Avoid prone positions
Avoid prone positions
A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the “good” category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train?
a. 0.95
b. 0.85
c. 0.65
d. 0.75
0.85
Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome?
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Outwardly rotated knees
c. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
d. Flat feet and adducted knees
Forward head and rounded shoulders
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?
a. A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids
b. A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise
c. A source of bulk to the diet to aid digestion
d. A precursor to hormone production
A precursor to hormone production
Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?
a. Pushing assessment, lateral view
b. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view
c. Shark skill test, anterior view
d. L.E.F.T. test, lateral view
Pushing assessment, lateral view
During a single-leg squat assessment your client’s knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?
a. Medial hamstrings
b. TFL
c. Gluteus medius
d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
TFL
Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?
a. Forward head and rounded shoulders
b. Flat feet and knock knees
c. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
d. Hyperextension of the hips and knees
Anterior tilt to the pelvis
Which of the following is one of the sites of skinfold measurement according to the Durnin formula to calculate a person’s percentage of body fat?
a. Triceps
b. Waist
c. Calves
d. Chest
Triceps
Which of the following is a site for testing in the Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test?
a. Waist
b. Iliac crest
c. Calf
d. Neck
Iliac crest
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees?
a. Pronation distortion syndrome
b. Lower extremity movement syndrome
c. Upper crossed syndrome
d. Lower crossed syndrome
Pronation distortion syndrome
Which of the following is true for the upper extremity strength assessment?
a. For the greatest degree of accuracy, perform 8-10 repetitions.
b. Perform this assessment for clients with weight-loss goals.
c. Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance.
d. Rest interval between attempts should be 4 to 5 min.
Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance.
Which of the following is a kinetic chain checkpoint for the overhead squat assessment, when assessing from the lateral view?
a. Feet
b. Ankles
c. Knees
d. Shoulder complex
Shoulder complex
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training?
a. 0-2
b. 2-4
c. 1-3
d. 3-5
1-3
A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
a. Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex
b. Medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae
c. Anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius
d. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae
Soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex
A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?
a. Split-routine
b. Vertical loading
c. Pyramid
d. Peripheral heart action
Vertical loading
Which of the following involves the number of training sessions performed during a specified period?
a. Volume
b. Frequency
c. Intensity
d. Duration
Frequency
Which of the following is a primary focus of exercising in the Stabilization Level of training?
a. Muscular elasticity
b. Muscular extensibility
c. Muscular endurance
d. Muscular degeneration
Muscular endurance
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per resistance training exercise should be performed?
a. 8-12
b. 1-5
c. 6-10
d. 4-8
1-5
Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for zone 1?
a. (220-client’s age)x (65% and 75%)
b. (200-client’s age)x (60% and 70%)
c. (220-client’s age)x (65% and 70%)
d. (200-client’s age)x (60% and 75%)
(220-client’s age)x (65% and 75%)
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
a. Balance-stabilization
b. Balance-plyometric
c. Balance-power
d. Balance-strength
Balance-strength
During a training program, muscular endurance and stabilization adaptations are best developed with which of the following rest intervals?
a. 0–180 seconds
b. 3–5 minutes
c. 0–90 seconds
d. 1–2 minutes
0–90 seconds
Which of the following represents how much effort a client puts into performaing an exercise?
a. Repetitions
b. Load
c. Volume
d. Intensity
Intensity
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a client in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
a. Ball crunch
b. Reverse crunch
c. Cable rotation
d. Floor prone cobra
Floor prone cobra
A new client tells the personal trainer she is experiencing soreness following her first exercise session. Which stage of the general adaptation syndrome does this represent?
a. Resistance development
b. Exhaustion
c. Amortization phase
d. Alarm reaction
Alarm reaction
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?
a. Superset
b. Peripheral heart action
c. Pyramid system
d. Multiple set
Peripheral heart action
In which phase of the OPT model is it appropriate to superset a leg press with a single-leg squat?
a. Phase 1
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 4
d. Phase 3
Phase 2
What does the Maximal Strength Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model focus on?
a. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
b. Decreasing the rate of force production
c. Reducing the recruitment of more motor units
d. Improving the muscle size and muscle growth
Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body
After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined a client falls in the “Below Average” cate1gory for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?
a. Zone three
b. Zone one
c. Zone two intervals
d. Zone two
Zone one
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during running movements?
a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air.
b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position in the air.
c. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.
d. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a plantarflexed position when it hits the ground.
The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground.
Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
a. Phase 4
b. Phase 5
c. Phase 2
d. Phase 1
Phase 5
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
a. 60 reps
b. 10 reps
c. 20 reps
d. 30 reps
30 reps
A client is placing pressure on his calf musculature using a foam roll. Which of the following stretching techniques is the client using?
a. Dynamic stretching
b. Active-isolated stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Self-myofascial release
Self-myofascial release
In which of the following cases should a static stretch be performed?
a. When overactive muscles have been identified
b. When peripheral arterial disease has been identified
c. When high blood pressure has been identified
d. When underactive muscles have been identified
When overactive muscles have been identified
A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?
a. “I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise.”
b. “I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”
c. “I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline.”
d. “I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press.”
“I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge.”
Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?
a. It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.
b. It is ideal for achieving hypertrophy.
c. It typically involves a high number of sets.
d. It is usually done with a 3-minute rest period in between exercises.
It involves a series of exercises that can be performed one after another.
In order for long-term adherence, what is an exercise program required to be?
a. Intense
b. Rigid
c. Extreme
d. Flexible
Flexible
Which of the following exercise techniques involves lying on one’s back and raising the hips off a bench?
a. The reverse crunch
b. The floor cobra
c. The inverted row
d. The squat curl
The reverse crunch
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?
a. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
b. Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.
c. Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.
d. Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids.
Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?
a. Hands on the floor, knees on the floor
b. Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball
c. Hands on the wall, feet on the floor
d. Hands on a bench, feet on the floor
Hands on the floor, feet on a stability ball
A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as an regression?
a. Cable chop
b. Rolling active resistance row
c. Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
d. Cable rotation
Quadruped arm and opposite leg raise
Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?
a. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
b. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.
c. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
d. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
In what position should the ankles, knees, and hips be during the takeoff position of the squat jump?
a. Extension
b. Adduction
c. Abduction
d. Flexion
Flexion
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise that requires an individual to lift one leg directly beside the balance leg and then bend from waist to slowly reach hand toward the toes of the balance leg?
a. Single-leg squat
b. Single-leg balance reach
c. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
Single-leg Romanian deadlift
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae (TFL) while standing, a client’s back leg should be in which of the following positions?
a. Abducted 90°
b. Externally rotated
c. Adducted 90°
d. Internally rotated
Externally rotated
Which of the following is an alternative name for plyometric training?
a. Functional training
b. Reactive training
c. Integrated training
d. Stabilization training
Reactive training
Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?
a. Coccygeal spine
b. Cervical spine
c. Lateral spine
d. Sacral spine
Cervical spine
Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead?
a. Step-up to balance
b. Single-leg Romanian deadlift
c. Lunge to balance
d. Single-leg lift and chop
Step-up to balance
James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?
a. Hold the lunge for 5 seconds
b. Rotate 90 degrees
c. Push off the front foot through the heel
d. Hold balance on the back leg
Push off the front foot through the heel
Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?
a. It can be performed in the presence of muscle imbalances.
b. It should be performed at a controlled speed.
c. It can be performed in the presence of movement compensations.
d. It is performed in rapid, repetitive bouncing movements.
It should be performed at a controlled speed.
Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?
a. Standing triceps extension
b. Standing cable row
c. Dumbbell chest press
d. Biceps curl
Standing cable row
A client is losing motivation to exercise, so his trainer recommends spending time before his next session reflecting on the feelings of accomplishment, sounds, and smells experienced during his last session. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Diffusion
b. Remodeling
c. Imagery
d. Self-monitoring
Imagery
The fitness professional asks the client, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of which of the following types of questions?
a. Contingency
b. Dichotomous
c. Open-ended
d. Directive
Open-ended
In the context of the stages of change, which of the following describes stage 1?
a. People in this stage do not exercise but are thinking about becoming more active.
b. People in this stage have no intention of changing.
c. People in this stage are active.
d. People in this stage do exercise occasionally.
People in this stage have no intention of changing.
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do not exercise but are thinking of becoming more active in the next six months?
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Contemplation
Contemplation
What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program?
a. Family
b. Parental
c. Acquintance
d. Child
Parental
In the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people do occasionally exercise but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month?
a. Contemplation
b. Action
c. Preparation
d. Precontemplation
Preparation
Jennifer is concerned about staying motivated in her fitness program. What will provide her emotional support to remain motivated?
a. Educating her on the benefits of different exercises.
b. Providing her transportation to the fitness facility.
c. Training with family, friends, and coworkers.
d. Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
Sympathizing with her having sore muscles after a workout.
Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?
a. Asking questions
b. Active listening
c. Summarizing
d. Reflecting
Active Listening
Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates a trainer’s skills at encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring?
a. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence.
b. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence.
c. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones.
d. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise.
Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help build self-confidence.
Clients must learn to identify challenging situations and barriers to exercise. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?
a. Self-analysis
b. Self-monitoring
c. Self-review
d. Reflection
Self-monitoring
What are the two types of fitness goals?
a. Process and product
b. Realistic and unrealistic
c. Physical and psychological
d. Smart and reliable
Process and product
A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer. She wants to become regularly active but isn’t sure how this is accomplished. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is the client?
a. Contemplation
b. Precontemplation
c. Preparation
d. Action
Preparation
A new client tells the personal trainer that although he exercises occasionally, he is now ready to try a different approach to become a regular exerciser. This an example of which section of the stages of change model?
a. Preparation
b. Maintenance
c. Precontemplation
d. Action
Preparation
Which of the following should be considered when training clients in their own homes?
a. Packing equipment into the trainer’s car
b. Overhead costs
c. Availability of restrooms
d. Outdoor event planning
Packing equipment into the trainer’s car
Mark has a client who is switching to a vegan diet and would like some advice on meal planning. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario?
a. Send the client to Mark’s vegan friend for guidance.
b. Enroll the client in a group-oriented nutrition program.
c. Design a meal plan for the client.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.
Refer the client to a registered dietician.
Which of the following is a potential advantage to working in a commercial fitness facility?
a. No employer supervision
b. Works only when required
c. In-house employee training
d. Can work from home
In-house employee training
According to continuing education requirements, which of the following is true?
a. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education each year.
b. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
c. Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
d. Accumulate 3 units of approved continuing education each year.
Accumulate 2 units of approved continuing education every 2 years.
Once a personal trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step?
a. Figuring out the closing percentage
b. Figuring out how many potential clients they need
c. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
d. Figuring out how many potential clients need to be contacted each day
Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
The first goal of a new fitness professional should be what?
a. Develop strategic business plans
b. Implement marketing plans
c. Conduct detailed financial assessments
d. Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization
Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization
Which of the four P’s of the marketing mix involves communication strategies such as advertising, sales, and social media?
a. Placement
b. Promotion
c. Price
d. Planning
Promotion
What is an important part of a fitness professional’s career?
a. Only work with clients who have access to emerging technologies
b. To obtain an accredited certification
c. Focus on younger clients who have interest in emerging technologies
d. Push emerging technologies on their clients
To obtain an accredited certification
What kind of business relies on members as its base revenue generator?
a. In-home personal trainers
b. Independent contractors
c. Commercial facilities
d. Outdoor trainers
Commercial facilities
What is a common mistake made when exercise adherence is inconsistent?
a. Engaging an intense exercise program
b. Limiting the number of exercises per workout
c. Reducing the amount of exercises in workouts
d. Preparing shorter workouts
Engaging an intense exercise program
Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
a. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise.
b. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given time.
c. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
d. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
What refers to a position on the same side of the body?
a. Anterior
b. Ipsilateral
c. Medial
d. Proximal
Ipsilateral
How many calories does one gram of carbohydrate yield?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3
4
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?
a. Aortic arch
b. Pulmonary arteries
c. Pulmonary veins
d. Aortic valve
Pulmonary arteries
If a client exhibits increased force output of his hamstrings and adductor magnus to compensate for a weakened gluteus maximus during hip extension, this is an example of which of the following?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Pattern overload
Synergistic dominance
Which term refers to fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone and provide static and dynamic stability as well as input to the nervous system?
a. Effectors
b. Tendons
c. Ligaments
d. Dendrites
Ligaments
Which movements is the gluteus maximus responsible for?
a. Concentrically accelerating hip adduction and medial rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip supination and lateral rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between which of the following?
a. Mass and volume
b. Torque production and inertia
c. Work and energy production
d. Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
Muscle force and the velocity of contraction
The active supine biceps femoris stretch uses which physiological principle to increase flexibility?
a. Synergistic dominance
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Reciprocal inhibition
What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues and are located in muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules?
a. Osmoreceptors
b. Chemoreceptors
c. Photoreceptors
d. Mechanoreceptors
Mechanoreceptors
As the velocity of a muscular contraction increases, the ability to produce force decreases for which part of the muscle action spectrum?
a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Arthrokinetic
d. Isometric
Concentric
In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Capillaries
c. Venules
d. Atrioventricular node
Capillaries
During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus what movement is occurring at the joint?
a. Hip flexion and internal rotation
b. Hip extension and external rotation
c. Hip adduction and lateral rotation
d. Hip abduction and medial rotation
Hip extension and external rotation
What is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and in small amounts in the adrenal glands in males?
a. Testosterone
b. Cortisol
c. Estrogen
d. Epinephrine
Estrogen
What term refers to a group of compounds including triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols?
a. Lipids
b. Polysaccharides
c. Minerals
d. Nucleic acids
Lipids
With which of the following terms is eccentric motion synonymous?
a. Constant force
b. Acceleration
c. Constant length
d. Deceleration
Deceleration
What are sensitive to changes in tension and the rate of that change, protecting a muscle from possible injury?
a. Muscle spindles
b. Osteoclasts
c. Efferent neurons
d. Golgi tendon organs
Golgi tendon organs
Which term refers to the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction?
a. Cardiac output
b. Radial pulse
c. Heart rate
d. Stroke volume
Stroke volume
What is a unit of expression of energy equal to 1,000 calories?
a. Microcalorie
b. Kilocalorie
c. Megacalorie
d. Decacalorie
Kilocalorie
Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?
a. Heart rate and oxygen uptake
b. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. Blood pressure and oxygen release
d. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
Heart rate and oxygen uptake
Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?
a. Levator scapulae
b. Infraspinatus
c. Longus coli
d. Teres minor
Levator scapulae
Which of the following is the method used to estimate the amount of subcutaneous fat beneath the skin?
a. Skinfold measurement
b. Circumference measurement
c. Body mass index
d. Body weight measurement
Skinfold measurement
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?
a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Coronary heart disease
c. Restrictive lung disease
d. Peripheral edema condition
Metabolic syndrome
Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?
a. Treadmills
b. Bicycles
c. Group exercise classes
d. Elliptical trainers
Bicycles
Which of the following is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point?
a. Davies test
b. Spirometry test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Cycle ergometer test
Rockport walk test
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
a. 1RM strength assessment
b. Body composition
c. Pushing/pulling assessments
d. Shark skill test
Pushing/pulling assessments
Which of the following assessments involves positioning a client in the center box of a grid, with hands on hips, and standing on one leg?
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Pulling assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment
Shark skill test
What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?
a. Height
b. Weight
c. Heart rate
d. Body fat
Weight
During a pushing assessment your client’s shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?
a. Upper trapezius
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Mid and lower trapezius
d. Levator scapulae
Mid and lower trapezius
The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?
a. Estimated oxygen consumption
b. Heart rate reserve (HRR)
c. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
d. VO2 reserve
Estimated oxygen consumption
Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client?
a. Subtract the client’s age from 220.
b. Divide 220 by the client’s age.
c. Divide the client’s resting heart rate by 220.
d. Add the client’s resting heart rate from 220.
Subtract the client’s age from 220
The client’s feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?
a. Lateral gastrocnemius
b. Medial hamstring
c. Sartorius
d. Gracilis
Lateral gastrocnemius
During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?
a. Quadruped arm / opposite leg raise
b. Ball cobra
c. Shoulder shrug
d. Ball wall squats
Ball cobra
Body mass index (BMI) is a quick and easy method to determine which of the following?
a. A client’s muscle mass
b. A client’s lean body mass
c. Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height
d. Whether a client’s fat mass is within his or her percent fat recommendations
Whether a client’s weight is appropriate for his or her height
What types of SAQ drills are most appropriate for Phase 1 training?
a. Those allowing grater horizontal inertia
b. Those allowing unpredictability
c. Those allowing maximal horizontal inertia
d. Those with limited horizontal inertia
Those with limited horizontal inertia
A client’s head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?
a. Supraspinatus
b. Longus coli
c. Longus capitis
d. Sternocleidomastoid
Sternocleidomastoid
How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the Power Phase of training of the OPT model?
a. 3-5
b. 1-3
c. 0-2
d. 2-4
3-5
A new client’s goal is to increase lean body mass. Which of the following training phases can be omitted from his annual periodization plan?
a. Hypertrophy
b. Stabilization endurance
c. Strength endurance
d. Power
Power
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?
a. Antagonist muscle strength
b. Prime mover strength
c. Fixator strength
d. Neutralizer strength
Prime mover strength
Low-volume training with high intensity increases which of the following?
a. Metabolic rate
b. Blood lipid serum profile
c. Rate of force production
d. Muscle cross-sectional area
Rate of force production
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client with osteoarthritis?
a. Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.
b. Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.
c. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
d. Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.
Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
What is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used in Phase 1 of the OPT model?
a. Active flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Relative flexibility
d. Functional flexibility
Corrective flexibility
What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?
a. Active stretching
b. Ballistic stretching
c. Elastic stretching
d. Static stretching
Static stretching
A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate while performing resistance training?
a. 10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity
b. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
c. Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity
d. Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity
12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?
a. Vertical loading
b. Circuit training
c. Multiple-set
d. Pyramid
Pyramid
When in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training of the OPT model, which of the following tempos should be used when performing resistance training exercises?
a. 2/0/2
b. 1/1/1
c. X/X/X
d. 4/2/1
4/2/1
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release?
a. 25 seconds minimum
b. 15 seconds minimum
c. 30 seconds minimum
d. 20 seconds minimum
30 seconds minimum
During resistance training, a client is most likely to achieve strength endurance goals when performing which of the following?
a. Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity
b. More sets when performing lower repetitions at a high intensity
c. More sets when performing higher repetitions at a high intensity
d. Fewer sets when performing lower repetitions at a moderate intensity
Fewer sets when performing higher repetitions at a moderate intensity
Which of the following is a resistance training method that involves performing a set with light load followed by increasing the load and decreasing the repetitions with each continuing set?
a. Circuit training
b. Split-routine
c. Vertical loading
d. Pyramid system
Pyramid system
Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?
a. 66-70%
b. 80-85%
c. 86-90%
d. 75-79%
86-90%
Which of the following exercises is a bodyweight exercise?
a. Biceps curls
b. The barbell squat
c. Lift and chop
d. Sit-ups
Sit-ups
What is the focus of the Power Phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?
a. Reduce the recruitment of more motor units
b. Decrease metabolic demand
c. Achieve maximal muscle growth
d. Increase the rate of force production
Increase the rate of force production
How many weeks should a client spend during the Stabilization Phase of core training?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 4
d. 8
4
When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?
a. The groin region inside the upper thigh
b. The short head of the biceps femoris
c. The entire inner thigh region
d. The quadriceps along the vastus medialis
The groin region inside the upper thigh
When training a client in the Stabilization Level, what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
a. Move to a bench
b. Single-arm
c. Alternating arm
d. Increase the weight
Alternating arm
Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?
a. Reactive-speed training
b. Reactive-modification training
c. Reactive-stabilization training
d. Plyometric-power training
Plyometric-power training
When performed at an appropriate tempo, which of the following exercises would offer the best improvement of the power of a client’s pectoralis major?
a. Ball dumbbell chest press
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Medicine ball rotation chest pass
d. Floor push-ups
Medicine ball rotation chest pass
Which of the following is an important quality of a good night’s sleep?
a. Decreased immune function
b. Improved mood
c. Limits effects of regular exercise
d. Increased stress
Improved mood
What is a multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization an example of?
a. Balance-power exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-strength exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
Balance-power exercise
What is a single-leg balance an example of?
a. Balance-modification exercise
b. Balance-power exercise
c. Balance-strength exercise
d. Balance-stabilization exercise
Balance-stabilization exercise
A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is not able to maintain proper alignment. How should the exercise be regressed?
a. Perform with hands on stability ball.
b. Perform with the feet elevated.
c. Perform in a standard push-up position.
d. Perform with one hip in full extension.
Perform in a standard push-up position.
Bracing occurs when a person contracts the abdominal and buttock muscles at the same time as which of the following?
a. Lower back
b. Neck
c. Left shoulder
d. Forearm
Lower back
On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?
a. Vertical loading system
b. Split-routine system
c. Pyramid system
d. Superset system
Split-routine system
If a client exhibits arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment, which activity should be avoided?
a. Versa climber
b. Elliptical trainer
c. Rowing machine
d. Treadmill
Treadmill
Which of the following should be retracted and depressed during the mid phase of a standing cable row?
a. Patellae
b. Femurs
c. Clavicles
d. Scapulae
Scapulae
When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?
a. Power
b. Strength Endurance
c. Maximal Strength
d. Stabilization Endurance
Power
Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?
a. How old are you?
b. How have you tried to lose weight in the past?
c. Why do you want to lose 30 pounds?
d. Why are you choosing to make changes to your life now?
How old are you?
A client tells the personal trainer she does not exercise, but she is thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
a. Contemplation
b. Action
c. Precontemplation
d. Preparation
Contemplation
Which of the following is the first stage in the stages of change model?
a. Preparation
b. Action
c. Maintenance
d. Precontemplation
Precontemplation
According to the stages of change model, which of the following corresponds to a stage where people have formed a change in their behavior for at least six months?
a. Contemplation
b. Action
c. Maintenance
d. Preparation
Maintenance
Sam has joined a gym and has set himself a goal of losing 60 pounds in one year. After three months he has only lost three pounds. Which of the following actions should Sam take?
a. Change his long-term goal from 60 pounds to 70 pounds.
b. Adjust his goal to be more realistic.
c. Take a break for six months and then resume the program.
d. Enroll in an additional program with a different trainer.
Adjust his goal to be more realistic.
A personal trainer is working with a client who reports not having enough time to exercise. Which of the following is the most effective technique to help the client prioritize his time, improving exercise adherence?
a. Have the client keep a daily exercise log for six months.
b. Have the client produce internal experiences to support or enhance exercise participation.
c. Have the client keep a journal that keeps track of daily activities for three days.
d. Have the client create a list of positive thoughts, such as, “I can do it.”
Have the client keep a journal that keeps track of daily activities for three days.
Which of the following is most likely to happen in the first 20 seconds of meeting a new client?
a. The exercise program should be started.
b. Assessments are started.
c. The trainer should present training packages for purchase.
d. First impressions are made.
First impressions are made.
When it comes to client confidentiality, when would it be appropriate to share a client’s personal information with someone else?
a. When a client who is a minor gives permission to discuss his information
b. When a client agrees in writing that you may share his or her personal information
c. During a conversation with a personal training manager
d. During a conversation with the client’s new trainer after the client has switched to another trainer
When a client agrees in writing that you may share his or her personal information
What is one of the advantages of a commercial fitness facility?
a. Salesmanship provides business learning opportunities.
b. The professional controls their schedule.
c. There are no benefits.
d. There is an opportunity to appeal to personalized clientele.
Salesmanship provides business learning opportunities.
How long does a personal trainer have to make a good first impression?
a. 30 seconds
b. 5 minutes
c. 2 minutes
d. 20 seconds
20 seconds
Louis drives interest in his club through social media channels. Which of the following four P’s of the marketing mix is Louis using?
a. Promotion
b. Planning
c. Place
d. Planning
Promotion
A client is looking for a simple way to make bodyweight exercises more proprioceptively challenging. Which of the following modalities would be most appropriate for this?
a. Smith machine
b. Barbells
c. Suspension trainer
d. Resistance machine
Suspension trainer
Recertification requires that the fitness professional get 2.0 CEUs every__________.
a. 4 years
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 3 years
2 years
How can an NASM personal trainer maintain his competencies via continuing education?
a. Submit an online CPR and AED certification.
b. Complete 20 contact hours of continuing education.
c. Complete 20 hrs of hands-on work experience.
d. Complete a 20-hr internship or apprenticeship.
Complete 20 contact hours of continuing education.
Which of the following nutritional strategies is most appropriate for a trainer to share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
a. Excess intake above daily caloric need will cause weight gain
b. Limit carbohydrates to prevent weight gain
c. Increase the intake of high glycemic index foods
d. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates
Excess intake above daily caloric need will cause weight gain
Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful?
a. Schedule flexibility
b. Updated equipment is provided
c. Robust group fitness schedules
d. Provided uniforms
Updated equipment is provided
What are “profit centers” in a commercial fitness facility?
a. One large centeral location
b. Memberships
c. Personal training services
d. Group fitness classes
Personal training services
What is the recommended daily intake for carbohydrates?
a. 11-13 g/kg body weight
b. 6-10 g/kg body weight
c. 1-3 g/kg body weight
d. 3-5 g/kg body weight
6-10 g/kg body weight
What are the muscles of the global stabilization system primarily responsible for?
a. Concentric force production of the thoracic and cervical spine
b. Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities
c. Enhancing pelvic floor function and diaphragmatic breathing
d. Intravertebral stability from vertebra to vertebra
Transferring loads between the upper and lower extremities
What is the term for the production of force when a muscle is shortening?
a. Isokinetic
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
Concentric
Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance?
a. The body seeking the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
b. Synergists taking over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
c. Exertion of more force by a muscle than what is being placed on it.
d. Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.
Large doses of beta-carotene intake can cause an increased risk for which of the following?
a. Hip fractures in older women
b. Lung cancer in smokers
c. Alzheimer’s disease in the elderly
d. Birth defects if taken early in pregnancy
Lung cancer in smokers
Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?
a. A client’s current injuries
b. PAR-Q results
c. If they wear shoes with elevated heels
d. Body composition testing results
Body composition testing results
A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?
a. Upper trapezius
b. Levator scapulae
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Lower trapezius
Lower trapezius
Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?
a. Davies test
b. Shark skill test
c. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) test
d. Pushing test
Pushing test
Which of the following statements is true of the body mass index (BMI)?
a. BMI is used to estimate body weight ranges based on a person’s age.
b. The skin-fold measurement is the best technique of measuring the BMI of an obese person.
c. The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents.
d. BMI helps in developing weight loss goals as it actually measures body composition.
The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents.
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened?
a. Erector spinae
b. Soleus
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Gluteus maximus
Gluteus maximus
In the context of selecting an appropriate speed of movement during training, from which of the following is muscular endurance and stabilization best developed?
a. Explosive repetition tempo
b. Fast, yet controlled, repetition tempo
c. Moderate repetition tempo
d. Slow repetition tempo
Slow repetition tempo
During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?
a. Reactive-strength training
b. Balance-stabilization training
c. Plyometric-stabilization training
d. Balance-strength training
Plyometric-stabilization training
Which of the following exercises is also a dynamic stretch?
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Static 90/90 hamstring stretch
c. Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch
d. Step-up to balance
Single-leg squat touchdown
In the Power Phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
a. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
b. Barbell squat followed by step-up
c. Step-up followed by tuck jump
d. Step-up followed by barbell squat
Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
Which method is most appropriate for Strength Endurance training?
a. Using high levels of volume with minimal rest periods for about 4 weeks
b. Increasing the load placed on the tissues of the body for about 4 weeks
c. Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
d. Focusing on high force and velocity for about 4 weeks
Using superset techniques with high volume for about 4 weeks
What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?
a. Leg-stabilization exercise
b. Balance-modification exercise
c. Balance-stabilization exercise
d. Balance-power exercise
Leg-stabilization exercise
What technique uses a co-contraction of global muscles to enhance global trunk stability?
a. Extension
b. Horizontal adduction
c. Flexion
d. Bracing
Bracing
In order to properly stretch the hamstring during the active supine biceps femoris stretch, a client will need to contract which of the following during knee extension?
a. Gastrocnemius
b. Adductors
c. Quadriceps
d. Gluteus maximus
Quadriceps
Which of the following is true of personal trainers?
a. Certified personal trainers are qualified to apply or wrap ice or heat packs for clients.
b. Certified personal trainers ideally diagnose areas of pain or disease.
c. Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification.
d. They do not refer clients to other health care professionals or practitioners.
Certified personal trainers hold a current emergency cardiac care certification.
Which of the following macronutrients has an acceptable macronutrient distribution range in the 45 - 65% total caloric intake?
a. Protein
b. Lipids
c. Fats
d. Carbohydrates
Carbohydrates
Scapular elevation refers to which of the following motions of the scapula?
a. Transverse
b. Axial
c. Superior
d. Vertical
Superior
Which of the following is a system of organs that collects oxygen from the external environment and transports it to the bloodstream?
a. Endocrine system
b. Respiratory system
c. Immune system
d. Integumentary system
Respiratory system
Within how many minutes should a client consume 1.5 g/kg of carbohydrates to maximize glycogen replenishment after exercise?
a. 180 min
b. 100 min
c. 30 min
d. 120 min
30 min
What do prolonged periods of sitting throughout the day indicate?
a. Good cardiorespiratory conditioning
b. Postural imbalances
c. Good muscle conditioning
d. High energy expenditure
Postural imbalances
Which gland produces the hormones (epinephrine and norepinephrine) that help prepare the body for activity and for the fight or flight response?
a. Adrenal
b. Apocrine
c. Pituitary
d. Thyroid
Adrenal
Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?
a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Central nervous system
c. Enteric nervous system
d. Autonomic nervous system
Central nervous system
What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?
a. Low-back pain
b. High blood sugar level
c. Vitamin K deficiency
d. Spina bifida
Low-back pain
What refers to a position relatively closer to the midline of the body?
a. Anterior
b. Distal
c. Medial
d. Superior
Medial
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?
a. Gluteus minimus
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Psoas major
Gluteus maximus
When should the three measurements for resting heart rate be taken for greatest accuracy?
a. Five minutes apart
b. After working out
c. At the same time each day upon waking Correct
d. Immediately before bed
At the same time each day upon waking
Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client?
a. Inhibitory Control Test
b. McGill Pain Questionnaire
c. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
d. Remote Associates Test (RAT)
Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
During the overhead squat assessment, which areas should the fitness professional focus on from the anterior view?
a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
b. Feet and knees
c. Shoulders and cervical complex
d. Low back and arms
Feet and knees
During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?
a. Gluteals
b. Abdominals
c. Hamstrings
d. Quadriceps
Quadriceps
Which assessment provides an estimation of a client’s cardiorespiratory fitness level?
a. YMCA step test
b. The two-tailed test
c. The LEFT test
d. The one-tailed test
YMCA step test
Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person’s heart rate?
a. Brachial artery
b. Axillary artery
c. Carotid artery
d. Radial artery
Radial artery
During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Piriformis
d. Erector spinae
Levator scapulae
What should senior SAQ training focus on?
a. Activities the individual will need for daily life
b. Keeping the heart rate elevated
c. Maximal unpredictability
d. Weight loss
Activities the individual will need for daily life
Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?
a. Metabolic
b. Overload
c. Neuromuscular
d. Mechanical
Metabolic
What assessment should be avoided or modified if a client’s knees are falling in during a single-leg squat assessment?
a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Lower extremity strength assessment
c. Shark skill test
d. 40-yard dash
Shark skill test
When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?
a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5
5
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
a. Increasing load
b. Increasing speed of movement
c. Increasing proprioception
d. Increasing volume
Increasing proprioception
Which classificaion of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion?
a. Corrective-flexibility
b. Balance-stablization
c. Plyometric-strength
d. Core-stabilization
Plyometric-strength
Which of the following is a stage of the OPT model specific for the adaptation of maximal muscle growth, focusing on high levels of volume with minimal rest periods to force cellular changes that result in an overall increase in muscle size?
a. Hypertrophy training
b. Maximal strength training
c. Power training
d. Stabilization endurance training
Hypertrophy training
In the context of training programs, repetition tempo refers to which of the following?
a. Time taken to recuperate between sets or repetitions
b. Number of training sessions that are repeated during a given period
c. Speed with which each repetition is performed
d. Timeframe from the start of a workout to the finish of a workout
Speed with which each repetition is performed
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model?
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg box hop-up
c. Single-leg balance reach
d. Single-leg lift and chop
Single-leg squat touchdown
Dynamic stretching improves soft tissue extensibility by using which of the following?
a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Davis’s law
c. Autogenic inhibition
d. Wolff’s law
Reciprocal inhibition
A client reports acute soreness and tightness in her calf muscle after a long run. She describes feeling knots in the muscle. Which of the following flexibility techniques should the client use first?
a. Static stretching
b. Self-myofascial release
c. Dynamic stretching
d. Active-isolated stretching
Self-myofascial release
Which of the following differs from a barbell or a medicine ball in that the center of mass is away from the handle?
a. Kettlebell
b. Pull-up bar
c. Dumbbell
d. Wall bar
Kettlebell
In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise?
a. Phase 2: Strength Endurance
b. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
c. Phase 5: Power
d. Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance
Phase 5: Power
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?
a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench
b. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
c. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press
d. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate?
a. Reverse hypers
b. Ball squat
c. Floor cobra
d. Floor bridge
Ball Squat
Shortly after starting his new job as an editor and writer, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and shoulders. Which of the following postures are most likely to have led to his discomfort?
a. Forward head and shoulder elevation
b. Excessive forward lean
c. Knees caved in and feet turned out
d. Arms fallen forward
Forward head and shoulder elevation
Which of the following is an example of a stabilization exercise?
a. Single-leg cable rows
b. Barbell clean
c. Squat jump
d. Two-arm push press
Single-leg cable rows
Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?
a. Psoas
b. Gracilis
c. Pectineus
d. Tensor fascia latae
Psoas
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
a. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
b. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
c. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed
Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
According to the stages of change model, what do trainers need to help clients overcome?
a. Relapse
b. Eating disorders
c. Injuries
d. Progression
Relapse
Which is a component of effective goal setting?
a. Have goals that are hard to achieve.
b. They should be what the trainers sees as important regardless of what the client feels.
c. A goal that does not have a measurable outcome.
d. Always have a specific date of completion.
Always have a specific date of completion.
In the context of the stages of change model, which of the following would serve as the third stage for progressing through the stages of change?
a. Preparation
b. Precontemplation
c. Maintenance
d. Contemplation
Preparation
In the context of behavior change strategies, which of the following goals outlines effective goal setting?
a. SMART goals
b. DART goals
c. START goals
d. STAR goals
SMART goals
Which of the following is a SMART goal?
a. “I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”
b. “I will lose 20 pounds by reducing my calories to 1,200 per day and hiring a personal trainer.”
c. “Now that I have a gym membership, I will lose 10 pounds by exercising every day.”
d. “I will reduce my body weight by exercising as much as I can five days per week and eating a reduced-calorie diet.”
“I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”
In which of the following scenarios is a trainer encouraging a client to practice self-monitoring?
a. Help a client come up with a list of songs that will help motivate him to exercise.
b. Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated.
c. Train a client to notice negative thoughts and replace those thoughts with positive ones.
d. Teach a client to imagine himself performing a barbell squat with greater confidence.
Have a client keep an exercise log on a calendar to help keep him motivated.
Which of the following questions is open-ended?
a. “Are you currently exercising?”
b. “Have you ever worked with a personal trainer?”
c. “Do you enjoy group classes?”
d. “What is your fitness goal?”
“What is your fitness goal?”
Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?
a. Maintenance
b. Preparation
c. Action
d. Precontemplation
Maintenance
A client exercises occasionally and plans to regularly participate in a structured exercise program next month. In which of the following sections of the stages of change model is this client?
a. Action
b. Maintenance
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation
Preparation
Gloria is going to an interview to be a personal trainer. What should she do prior to the interview?
a. Improve her performance on the bench press test.
b. Make copies of her personal dietary plan.
c. Get into the best shape she can before the interview.
d. Practice her interviewing skills.
Practice her interviewing skills.
For which of the following careers is passing a licensure exam to practice required?
a. Personal trainer
b. Gym owner
c. Group exercise instructor
d. Registered dietician
Registered dietician
A 70-year-old client goes to see a personal trainer after a recent heart attack. The trainer has not received written clearance from the client’s doctor prior to the first training session but has completed sessions with a different trainer. What is the appropriate course of action for the trainer to take?
a. Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor.
b. Obtain permission from the personal training manager to continue training.
c. Have the client sign an additional liability waiver.
d. Monitor the client’s blood pressure before every workout session.
Postpone training sessions until written clearance is received from the doctor.
Amanda is a fitness professional assisting the athletic trainer of a soccer team. Which of the following is Amanda prevented from doing because of her role in the team as a fitness professional?
a. Ensuring that athletes correctly perform the exercises prescribed by the trainer
b. Referring an athlete to the appropriate licensed professional in case of an emergency
c. Diagnosing pain and injuries
d. Providing cues that athletes need to follow during training
Diagnosing pain and injuries
Which of the following actions falls outside a personal trainer’s scope of practice?
a. Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.
b. Develop an exercise program for an obese client with hypertension and medical clearance for exercise.
c. Perform various movement and postural assessments on a client to determine potential muscle imbalances.
d. Educate clients regarding nutrients contained in foods or supplements.
Counsel a client with anorexia about the health benefits of a well-balanced diet.
Which of the following requirements is necessary for a personal trainer to recertify his NASM-CPT certification?
a. Earn 2 continuing education units.
b. Complete a 10-hour internship or apprenticeship.
c. Acquire 20 hours of hands-on work experience.
d. Submit an online CPR and first aid certification.
Earn 2 continuing education units.
Which of the following best allows a certified personal trainer to comply with the NASM Code of Professional Conduct?
a. Provide nutritional supplementation to treat illness.
b. Diagnose an injury after an assessment.
c. Maintain adequate liability insurance.
d. Provide detailed menu plans for clients.
Maintain adequate liability insurance.
Which of the following careers require a licensure exam for entry?
a. Personal trainer
b. Group exercise instructor
c. Business owner
d. Registered dietician
Registered dietician
Recertification requires that the fitness professional get 2.0 CEUs every__________.
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
d. 2 years
2 years
How many CEUs are needed to recertify every two years?
a. 3.0
b. 1.0
c. 4.0
d. 2.0
2.0
