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NASM Review > NASM CPT Domain 1-6 > Flashcards

NASM CPT Domain 1-6 Flashcards

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1
Q

Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?

a. sympathetic nervous system
b. enteric nervous system
c. autonomic nervous system
d. central nervous system

A

central nervous system

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2
Q

Maintenance of which of the following is an integrated process requiring optimal muscular balance, joint dynamics, and neuromuscular efficiency using visual, vestibular, and proprioceptive inputs?

a. Dynamic equilibrium
b. Mechanical equilibrium
c. Static equilibrium
d. Postural equilibrium

A

Postural Equilibrium

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of a dietary supplement?

a. Kinesio tape
b. Tobacco
c. Multivitamin
d. Ice pack

A

Multivitamin

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4
Q

Which mechanoreceptor helps prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast?

a. Ruffini endings
b. Muscle spindle
c. Golgi tendon organ
d. Intercalated disc

A

Muscle Spindle

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5
Q

Resting oxygen consumption is approximately how many mL of oxygen per kilogram body weight per minute?

a. 350 mL
b. 0.35 mL
c. 3.5 mL
d. 35.0 mL

A

3.5mL

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6
Q

Which of the following best defines muscle imbalance?

a. Synergists taking over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
b. The body seeking the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
c. Exertion of more force by a muscle than what is being placed on it.
d. Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.

A

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint.

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7
Q

Where is the right foot in relation to the left hand?

a. Medial
b. Contralateral
c. Proximal
d. Posterior

A

contralateral

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8
Q

Increased force output of the synergists for hip extension to compensate for the weakened gluteus maximus is an example of which of the following?

a. Wolff’s law
b. Davis’s law
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Autogenic inhibition

A

Synergistic dominance

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9
Q

During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. Which of the following best describes this action?

a. Arthrokinematic dysfunction
b. Force-couple relationships
c. Length-tension relationships
d. Synergistic dominance

A

Synergistic Dominance

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10
Q

What usually happens after 90 minutes of exercise?

a. The majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted.
b. The amount of stored adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in the body increases.
c. The amount of available fuel for exercise from fats is exhausted.
d. The oxidation of proteins predominates as the primary energy source.

A

The Majority of muscle glycogen stores are depleted

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11
Q

During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus what movement is occurring at the joint?

a. Hip adduction and lateral rotation
b. Hip flexion and internal rotation
c. Hip abduction and medial rotation
d. Hip extension and external rotation

A

Hip Extension and external rotation

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12
Q

Which movements is the gluteus maximus responsible for?

a. Concentrically accelerating hip adduction and medial rotation
b. Concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation
c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
d. Concentrically accelerating hip supination and lateral rotation

A

Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation

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13
Q

Arterioles branch out into vessels know as what?

a. Capillaries
b. Blood vessels
c. Veins
d. Venules

A

Capillaries

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14
Q

Resting metabolic rate accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?

a. 0.7
b. 0.4
c. 0.55
d. 0.85

A

.7

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15
Q

How much caffeine per kg of body weight is recommended about an hour before exercise to provide the most effective ergogenic response?

a. 3-6 mg
b. 13 mg or more
c. 1 mg
d. 2-4 mg

A

3-6mg

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16
Q

In which of the following structures are water and chemicals exchanged between the blood and tissues?

a. Capillaries
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Venules
d. Sinoatrial node

A

Capillaries

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17
Q

What refers to a position relatively closer to the midline of the body?

a. Anterior
b. Medial
c. Distal
d. Superior

A

Medial

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18
Q

What is produced primarily in the ovaries in the female and in small amounts in the adrenal glands in males?

a. Epinephrine
b. Estrogen
c. Cortisol
d. Testosterone

A

Estrogen

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19
Q

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following?

a. Pneumonia
b. Dyspnea
c. Pulmonary hyperplasia
d. Hypoxia

A

Dyspnea

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20
Q

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?

a. Stroke volume
b. Cardiac output
c. Blood pressure
d. Heart rate

A

Cardiac Output

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21
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?

a. Flat feet and knock knees
b. Anterior tilt to the pelvis
c. Hyperextension of the hips and knees
d. Forward head and rounded shoulders

A

Anterior tilt to the pelvis

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22
Q

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?

a. Bicycles
b. Treadmills
c. Elliptical trainers
d. Group exercise classes

A

Bicycles

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23
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Erector spinae
c. Rotator cuff
d. Pectoralis minor

A

Pectoralis minor

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24
Q

Which of the following is one of the sites of skinfold measurement according to the Durnin formula to calculate a person’s percentage of body fat?

a. Chest
b. Triceps
c. Waist
d. Calves

A

Triceps

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25
Q

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

a. Scalenes
b. Teres minor
c. Rhomboids
d. Deep cervical flexors

A

Scalenes

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26
Q

Which of the following tests estimates an individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for a standard time limit?

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Rockport walk test
c. Run test
d. Cycle ergometer test

A

YMCA 3-minute step test

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27
Q

Which of the following is the correct number to subtract age from when calculating a person’s estimated maximal heart rate?

a. 230
b. 210
c. 220
d. 200

A

220

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28
Q

Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client’s predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?

a. Peak maximal heart rate (MHR) method
b. Peak metabolic equivalent (MET) method
c. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) method
d. Heart rate reserve (HRR) method

A

Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) Method

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29
Q

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has pronated feet, as well as adducted and internally rotated knees. Which muscles would he or she expect to be shortened?

a. Adductors
b. Gluteus medius
c. Hip external rotators
d. Gluteus maximus

A

Adductors

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30
Q

In which muscles is overactivity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels?

a. Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon
b. Popliteus, gracilis, and patellar tendon
c. Anterior tibialis, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneal brevis tendon
d. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and posterior tibial tendon

A

Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon

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31
Q

During the subjective assessment, a client reports pain and swelling in his right knee. What is the best course of action for the personal trainer to take?

a. Perform exercise only for the left leg until the swelling subsides in the right knee.
b. Instruct the client to see his physician to diagnose the problem.
c. Instruct the client to use an ice pack on the knee and take over-the-counter antiinflammatory medication for 10 days.
d. Train only the upper body of the client until all pain and swelling has subsided in the right knee.

A

Instruct the client to see his physician to diagnose the problem.

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32
Q

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and teres major
b. Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus
c. Overactive erector spinae and hip extensor complex
d. Overactive adductors complex and biceps femoris (short head)

A

Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus

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33
Q

Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press?

a. Upper extremity strength assessment
b. Single-leg squat assessment
c. Lower extremity strength assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

Upper extremity strength assessment

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34
Q

The Durnin-Womersley formula’s four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?

a. Chest, midaxillary, abdominal, and thigh
b. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest
c. Supraspinale, anterior deltoid, thoracolumbar fascia, and hamstring
d. Calf, gluteal, adductor, and oblique

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest

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35
Q

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

a. Right before workout
b. Just after workout
c. Right before bed
d. Upon waking in the morning

A

Upon waking in the morning

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36
Q

A client’s head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

a. Longus coli
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Longus capitis
d. Supraspinatus

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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37
Q

Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?

a. McGill Pain Questionnaire
b. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)
c. Inhibitory control test
d. Remote Associates Test (RAT)

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

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38
Q

During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?

a. Levator scapulae
b. Piriformis
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Erector spinae

A

Levator scapulae

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39
Q

During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive?

a. Lateral gastrocnemius
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Soleus
d. Medial gastrocnemius

A

Medial gastrocnemius

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40
Q

When assessing a client’s overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

a. Low back arches
b. Knees move inward
c. External rotation of the feet
d. Arms fall forward

A

External rotation of the feet

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41
Q

Which of the following are the most fundamental components of designing a training program, determining the amount of stress placed on the body as well as which adaptations the body will incur?

a. Formed elements
b. Acute variables
c. Motor units
d. Power adaptations

A

Acute variables

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42
Q

A client is performing squats with the goal of achieving maximal strength. Which of the following is an appropriate intensity level?

a. 50-70%
b. 30-45%
c. 75-80%
d. 85-100%

A

85-100%

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43
Q

Which classificaion of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion?

a. Balance-stablization
b. Plyometric-strength
c. Core-stabilization
d. Corrective-flexibility

A

Plyometric-strength

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44
Q

Which type of training involves performing exercises as fast and explosively as possible?

a. Strength-power
b. Reactive-power
c. Reactive-stabilization
d. Stabilization-endurance

A

Reactive-power

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45
Q

Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for zone 1?

a. (200-client’s age)x (60% and 75%)
b. (220-client’s age)x (65% and 75%)
c. (220-client’s age)x (65% and 70%)
d. (200-client’s age)x (60% and 70%)

A

(220-client’s age)x (65% and 75%)

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46
Q

How can a personal trainer provide uncompromising customer service?

a. Express ideas well through verbal communication.
b. Avoid opportunities to create moments that strengthen professional relationships.
c. Take complaints and pass them onto the front desk.
d. Give the impression that a question is inconvenient.

A

Express ideas well through verbal communication.

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47
Q

Maximal strength adaptations during a resistance training program are best achieved with which of the following rest periods?

a. 0–60 seconds
b. 1–2 minutes
c. 3–5 minutes
d. 0–90 seconds

A

3–5 minutes

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48
Q

How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last?

a. 0-3 minutes
b. 5-10 minutes
c. 10-15 minutes
d. 3-5 minutes

A

5-10 minutes

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49
Q

Which principle states the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it?

a. Principle of specificity
b. Principle of overload
c. Principle of progression
d. Principle of individualism

A

Principle of specificity

50
Q

After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined a client falls in the “Below Average” category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?

a. Zone three
b. Zone two intervals
c. Zone two
d. Zone one

A

Zone one

51
Q

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?

a. Superset
b. Multiple set
c. Peripheral heart action
d. Pyramid system

A

Peripheral heart action

52
Q

Power training is done in which phase of the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model?

a. Phase 5
b. Phase 4
c. Phase 1
d. Phase 2

A

Phase 5

53
Q

A client receives a training plan that spans an entire year. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of plan?

a. Microcycle
b. Mesocycle
c. Macrocycle
d. Metacycle

A

Macrocycle

54
Q

Which of the following is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion?

a. Passive flexibility
b. Active flexibility
c. Corrective flexibility
d. Functional flexibility

A

Corrective flexibility

55
Q

Which of the following best describes when a person is ready to move to stage II cardiorespiratory training from stage I?

a. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes.
b. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 15 minutes.
c. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes.
d. Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 20 minutes.

A

Client can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes

56
Q

Which of the following is specifically employed in a resistance training workout in order to develop muscular endurance of the legs?

a. Low-load, high-velocity contractions performed in a plyometric manner.
b. Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions.
c. Exercises that involve low repetitions and high loads.
d. Exercises that involve high loads and long rest periods between sets.

A

Exercises that involve light weights and high repetitions

57
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate rest interval when hypertrophy is the goal?

a. 2 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 30 seconds
d. 7 minutes

A

30 seconds

58
Q

The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?

a. 4/2/1
b. 2/0/2
c. X/X/X
d. 1/1/1

A

2/0/2

59
Q

When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum, a client would not exceed a workout volume of?

a. 20 reps
b. 60 reps
c. 10 reps
d. 30 reps

A

30 reps

60
Q

When training a client with arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?

a. 20
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

5

61
Q

A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. What cue should be used to correct her form?

a. Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
b. Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.
c. Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids.
d. Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.

A

Depress the shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

62
Q

Which balance-power exercise involves lifting one leg directly beside balance leg, hopping off the box and landing on ground on one leg; keeping toes pointing straight ahead and knees directly over the toes, and holding this position for 3 to 5 seconds?

a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
c. Multiplanar lunge to balance
d. Multiplanar step-up to balance

A

Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization

63
Q

Which of the following exercise techniques involves lying on one’s back and raising the hips off a bench?

a. The inverted row
b. The reverse crunch
c. The floor cobra
d. The squat curl

A

The reverse crunch

64
Q

Internally rotating the back hip during the active kneeling hip flexor stretch places a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

a. Tensor fascia latae
b. Gracilis
c. Pectineus
d. Psoas

A

Psoas

65
Q

Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?

a. Sacral spine
b. Lateral spine
c. Coccygeal spine
d. Cervical spine

A

Cervical Spine

66
Q

Shortly after starting his new job as an editor and writer, Mark begins to complain of pain in the neck and shoulders. Which of the following postures are most likely to have led to his discomfort?

a. Forward head and shoulder elevation
b. Arms fallen forward
c. Excessive forward lean
d. Knees caved in and feet turned out

A

Forward head and shoulder elevation

67
Q

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
b. Internally rotated and plantar flexed
c. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed
d. Pointing straight ahead and plantar flexed

A

Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed

68
Q

What exercise requires that the knees always stay in line with the toes during the takeoff and landing components?

a. Overhead soccer throw
b. Single-leg step-up
c. Power step-up
d. Squatting

A

Power step-up

69
Q

What is the proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception?

a. Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable
b. Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable
c. Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable
d. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

A

Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

70
Q

What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?

a. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
b. Barbell clean
c. Kettlebell hang clean and jerk
d. Squat, curl, to two-arm press

A

Squat, curl, to two-arm press

71
Q

Which of the following is an important quality of a good night’s sleep?

a. Increased stress
b. Decreased immune function
c. Limits effects of regular exercise
d. Improved mood

A

Improved Mood

72
Q

Daniel is foam-rolling the piriformis after a workout. Which of the following steps should he take when he encounters a tender spot?

a. Oscillate on the tender spot.
b. Hold the spot for 30 seconds.
c. Perform a large rolling motion across the spot.
d. Roll away from the tender spot.

A

Hold the spot for 30 seconds.

73
Q

For a pregnant client in her third trimester, which of the following exercises is appropriate?

a. Floor cobra
b. Floor bridge
c. Ball squat
d. Reverse hypers

A

Ball Squat

74
Q

In order for long-term adherence, what is an exercise program required to be?

a. Rigid
b. Intense
c. Flexible
d. Extreme

A

Flexible

75
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate spotting technique for a dumbbell chest press?

a. Place the hands just under the client’s dumbbells.
b. Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.
c. Place hands just under the client’s triceps.
d. Place the hands just under the client’s elbows.

A

Place the hands close to the client’s wrists.

76
Q

A client is able to successfully reach their shins when performing the single-leg squat touchdown. What is the next progression this client should work toward for this exercise?

a. Stand on a balance pad.
b. Perform the exercise with a stability ball.
c. Perform the exercise on two legs with dumbbells.
d. Reaching all the way to the foot.

A

Reaching all the way to the foot.

77
Q

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
b. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
c. Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation
d. Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation

A

Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

78
Q

Which of the following involves the entire muscle action spectrum and contraction-velocity spectrum used during integrated, functional movements?

a. Reactive-speed training
b. Reactive-modification training
c. Plyometric-power training
d. Reactive-stabilization training

A

Plyometric-power training

79
Q

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise highly contraindicated?

a. Youth clients between the ages of 4-8 in which gowth plates are not fused
b. Client’s with no co-morbidities but who sit for extended periods of time
c. Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy
d. Clients who suffer from varicose veins in the lower extremities

A

Clients who are in the second or third trimester of pregnancy

80
Q

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

a. Pectineus
b. Adductor brevis
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Psoas

A

Psoas

81
Q

Which of the following is involved in active listening?

a. Communicating understanding
b. Encouraging the involvement of the client’s ego
c. Using terminology specific to a certain industry
d. Multitasking while listening to the client

A

Communicating understanding

82
Q

What is the fourth step in the stages of change model?

a. Precontemplation
b. Contemplation
c. Preparation
d. Action

A

Action

83
Q

Which is a component of effective goal setting?

a. They should be what the trainers sees as important regardless of what the client feels.
b. A goal that does not have a measurable outcome.
c. Have goals that are hard to achieve.
d. Always have a specific date of completion.

A

Always have a specific date of completion.

84
Q

Which of the following is the process of communication that shows appreciation for clients and their strengths?

a. Summarizing
b. Reflecting
c. Active listening
d. Affirmations

A

Affirmations

85
Q

Which of the following is the last stage in the stages of change model?

a. Preparation
b. Action
c. Precontemplation
d. Maintenance

A

Maintenance

86
Q

What cognitive-behavior approach involves thoughts influencing behavior?

a. Extrinsic
b. Social support
c. Intrinsic
d. Association and dissociation

A

Association and dissociation

87
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a closed question?

a. Why do you want to lose 30 pounds?
b. How have you tried to lose weight in the past?
c. Why are you choosing to make changes to your life now?
d. How old are you?

A

How old are you?

88
Q

Which of the following is about having an attitude of genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?

a. Asking questions
b. Summarizing
c. Active listening
d. Reflecting

A

Active Listening

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?

a. “What are your top three fitness goals?”
b. “Did you play sports in high school?”
c. “Is there an athlete or celebrity whose body you would like to have?”
d. “If someone told you all your goals were at the top of a mountain, would you climb that mountain to reach them?”

A

“What are your top three fitness goals?”

90
Q

A personal trainer asks a client to write down the names of the exercises she performs, how much food she is eating, and how much sleep she is getting. Which of the following strategies is the client following?

a. Imagery
b. Self-monitoring
c. Goal setting
d. Contemplation

A

self-monitoring

91
Q

What stage is a client in when they have no desire to change?

a. Action
b. Maintenance
c. Precontemplation
d. Preparation

A

Precontemplation

92
Q

Which of the following is a process created to produce internalized experiences to support exercise participation?

a. Exercise imagery
b. Self-monitoring
c. Positive self-talk
d. Psyching up

A

Exercise imagery

93
Q

Which of the following is most likely to happen in the first 20 seconds of meeting a new client?

a. First impressions are made.
b. The trainer should present training packages for purchase.
c. Assessments are started.
d. The exercise program should be started.

A

First impressions are made.

94
Q

Which of the following is a SMART goal?

a. “I will reduce my body weight by exercising as much as I can five days per week and eating a reduced-calorie diet.”
b. “I will lose 20 pounds by reducing my calories to 1,200 per day and hiring a personal trainer.”
c. “Now that I have a gym membership, I will lose 10 pounds by exercising every day.”
d. “I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”

A

“I will lose 10 pounds in eight weeks by exercising 50 minutes a day, three days per week.”

95
Q

What is a client’s strongest source of self-confidence?

a. Verbal persuasion
b. Performance accomplishments
c. Modeling
d. Imagery

A

Performance accomplishments

96
Q

In the context of behavior change strategies, which of the following goals outlines effective goal setting?

a. START goals
b. SMART goals
c. DART goals
d. STAR goals

A

SMART Goals

97
Q

A client is considering starting an exercise program in the next 6 months. Which of the following is the best strategy a personal trainer can use to help her progress into the preparation section of the stages of change model?

a. Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.
b. Compare the client’s body to a fitness model to help provide motivation to begin.
c. Insist the client begin an exercise program for her own good.
d. Describe personal fitness-related triumphs to encourage the client to exercise.

A

Provide the client with easy-to-read education materials about the benefits of exercise.

98
Q

What type of support is given when someone supports their child in starting an exercise program?

a. Acquintance
b. Child
c. Family
d. Parental

A

Parental

99
Q

People most frequently cite which of the following reasons for not exercising?

a. A lack of access to a fitness club
b. A lack of time
c. A lack of positive social influences
d. A lack of sufficient funds

A

A lack of time

100
Q

Which of the following statements refers to a SMART goal?

a. “Starting on Monday, I will try a new group exercise class to maximize my results and meet new friends.”
b. “Starting next week, I will exercise three times a week to reduce my blood pressure and cholesterol by 5 points.”
c. I will hire a friendly personal trainer with adequate credentials to help me achieve my ideal body and six-pack abs.”
d. “I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”

A

“I will reduce my body fat by 5% in 12 weeks by exercising 60 minutes five days per week and eating a 1,600-calorie per day diet.”

101
Q

The first goal of a new fitness professional should be what?

a. Conduct detailed financial assessments
b. Develop strategic business plans
c. Implement marketing plans
d. Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization

A

Obtain a certification from a recognized and accredited organization

102
Q

Mark has a client who is switching to a vegan diet and would like some advice on meal planning. Which of the following actions should Mark take in this scenario?

a. Design a meal plan for the client.
b. Send the client to Mark’s vegan friend for guidance.
c. Enroll the client in a group-oriented nutrition program.
d. Refer the client to a registered dietician.

A

Refer the client to a registered dietician

103
Q

What is the product a personal trainer must ultimately deliver to a client?

a. The motivation that the personal trainer provides
b. The education the personal trainer provides
c. The result that is trying to be achieved
d. The time spent with the personal trainer

A

The result that is trying to be achieved

104
Q

After becoming certified, a personal trainer obtains liability insurance. What is this an example of?

a. A way to create value for potential clients
b. Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices
c. A sales technique used in commercial fitness facilities
d. Obtaining training for marketing services

A

Professionalism and adherence to ethical business practices

105
Q

Amy is a newly certified fitness professional. Amy realizes that she lacks the expertise to work with the special considerations for a client. Which of the following should Amy do for this client?

a. Implement Phase 4 exercise programs from the OPT model for her clients.
b. Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.
c. Offer and sell weight loss suplements for all of her clients.
d. Design weight loss meal plans that are effective for the entire group.

A

Refer the client to a professional who has the necessary skills and abilities.

106
Q

According to the NASM-BOC Code of Professional Conduct, which of the following is part of professional conduct for the fitness professional?

a. Keeping accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records for a minimum of one year
b. Completing the cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and automated external defibrillator (AED) certification within one month of obtaining personal training certification
c. Referring the client to other healthcare professionals when nutritional meal plans are requested, unless the trainer has been specifically trained to do so
d. Conducting a detailed medical screening and diagnosing musculoskeletal injuries and impairments

A

eferring the client to other healthcare professionals when nutritional meal plans are requested, unless the trainer has been specifically trained to do so

107
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate example of a fitness professional practicing proper conduct and upholding NASM’s Code of Professional Conduct?

a. Training a client with coronary artery disease who has received medical clearance
b. Providing an overweight client with meal plans to help reduce calorie consumption
c. Training a client before the client completes a health history questionnaire
d. Treating common musculoskeletal injuries that appear to be minor

A

Training a client with coronary artery disease who has received medical clearance

108
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of working at a commercial fitness facility for a fitness professional who is looking to be financially successful?

a. Robust group fitness schedules
b. Updated equipment is provided
c. Provided uniforms
d. Schedule flexibility

A

Updated equipment is provided

109
Q

When engaging in active listening, a personal trainer should do which of the following?

a. Think about a sales strategy as the client describes their goals.
b. Keep track of time by looking at a clock.
c. Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking.
d. Observe what the client is wearing during conversation.

A

Provide feedback after the client has finished speaking.

110
Q

Recertification requires that the fitness professional get 2.0 CEUs every__________.

a. 1 year
b. 4 years
c. 3 years
d. 2 years

A

2 Years

111
Q

Which of the following should fitness professionals do while handling clients?

a. They should prescribe safe weight loss suplements for obese clients.
b. They should ensure that client records are well-documented and updated.
c. They should apply ice or kinesio tape for sore muscle groups.
d. They should counsel clients struggling with eating disorders.

A

They should ensure that client records are well-documented and updated.

112
Q

What is something an in-home personal trainer should take into consideration on a day-to-day basis when compared to other types of personal training employment?

a. Adhering to a gym’s dress code
b. Writing meal plans for clients
c. Travel times between client locations
d. Meeting sales quotas for a health club

A

Travel times between client locations

113
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a trainer adhering to ethical business practices?

a. Meeting a client 5 min before a training session to complete any necessary paperwork
b. Slowly easing a client into training after several attempts to obtain medical clearance from his physician
c. Letting a new client know that training will be discounted 10% until liability insurance is obtained
d. Counseling a client with diabetes about his nutrition

A

Meeting a client 5 min before a training session to complete any necessary paperwork

114
Q

What should be included in a training template for client records?

a. The client’s BMI
b. Weight of the client
c. Exercise selection for the client
d. The 1 repetition max of the client’s bench press

A

Exercise selection for the client

115
Q

What is an important part of a fitness professional’s career?

a. Focus on younger clients who have interest in emerging technologies
b. Push emerging technologies on their clients
c. Only work with clients who have access to emerging technologies
d. To obtain an accredited certification

A

To obtain an accredited certification

116
Q

Louis drives interest in his club through social media channels. Which of the following four Ps of the marketing mix is Louis using?

a. Place
b. Planning
c. Planning
d. Promotion

A

Promotion

117
Q

Which of the following is within scope of practice for a personal trainer?

a. Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals
b. Providing diagnostic testing for clients
c. Prescribing nutrition plans
d. Diagnosing injuries

A

Referring to more qualified healthcare professionals

118
Q

Which of the following exemplifies professional service and client care according to the Code of Professional Conduct?

a. Instructing a client to take weight-loss nutritional supplements
b. Providing rehabilitation services to a client after a knee surgery
c. Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist
d. Designing meal plans for a client who has diabetes

A

Referring a client with hypertension to a cardiologist

119
Q

According to a recommendation by the International Health, Racquet and Sportsclub Association (IHRSA), certifying agencies should receive accreditation from which of the following organizations?

a. National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB)
b. National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA)
c. National Association for Sports Medicine (NASM)
d. National Center for Competency Testing (NCCT)

A

National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA)

120
Q

Which of the following is a cognitive strategy to help change a client’s thoughts and attitudes toward exercise?

a. Active listening
b. Imagery
c. Goal setting
d. Contemplation

A

Imagery

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