NAPLEX Flashcards

1
Q

specific gravity units

A

g/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SCE or E value units

A

g NaCl/g drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

mEq to mg or mg to mEq

A
mg = (mEq)(molecular weight/valence)
mEq = (mg)(valence/molecular weight)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

BSA equation

A

square root of: (cm)(kg)/3600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

BMI equation

A

kg/(m^2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

magnesium stearate in compounding

A

glidant/lubricant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sodium lauryl sulfate in compounding

A

surfactant to neutralize static charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

adsorbant powders

A

used to keep powders dry (eutectic mixtures - lower melting point when mixed than either component alone)
magenium oxide, magnesium carbonate, kaolin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

emulsifiers

A

acacia, agar, carbomers, glyceryl monostearate, pectin, PEG, sodium lauryl sulfate, sorbitan lipophilic esters, sorbitan hydrophilic esters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

levigating agents

A

glycerin, mineral oil, PEG, propylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

drugs that cause photosensitivity

A

carbamazepine, diuretics (thiazide and loop), methotrexate, oral and topical retinoids, quinolones, st. john’s wort, sulfa abx, tacrolimus, tetracyclines, voriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

drugs that cause TTP

A

clopidogrel, ticlopidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

drugs that cause severe skin reactions

A

allopurinol, lamotrigine, penicillins, phenytoin, piroxicam, sulfamethoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cl calculations

A

Cl = Rate of elimination / concentration
Cl = F*dose / AUC
for IV, F = 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

F (bioavailability) calc

A

F = 100 * (AUC(extravascular)/AUC(IV)) * (Dose(IV)/Dose(extravascular))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

k (elimination rate constant) calc

A

k = Cl/Vd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

t1/2 calc

A

t1/2 = 0.693/k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

loading dose calculation

A

LD = (desired conc)(Vd)/F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CYP inducers

A
PS-PORCS (big inducers)
phenytoin
smoking
phenobarbital
oxcarbazepine
rifampin
carbamazepine
st. john's wort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CYP inhibitors

A
g pacman (big inhibitors)
grapefruit
PIs (protease inhibitiors)
Azole antifungals
C - cyclosporine, cimetidine, cobicistat
Macrolides (NOT azithromycin)
Amiodarone
non-DHP CCBs (dilt and verapamil)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

genetic testing strongly recommended prior to starting therapy

A

abacavir (including Epzicom and Triumeq): HLA-B5701 due to risk of fatal hypersensitivity - must test all patients prior to starting and withhold if positive
Carbamazepine: HLA-B
1502 due to SJS or TEN risk - must test all asian patients and withhold if positive
Trastuzumab, adotrastuzumab emtansine: HER2 overexpression is required for use - do not use if negative
Cetuximab: KRAS - drug is not effective in patients with colorectal cancer who have a KRAS mutation - only use if KRAS negative
azathioprine: TPMT - no TPMT activity can lead to increased risk of severe myelosuppression; if TPMT low or absent, start at very low dose or use alt therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

genetic testing should be considered prior to starting therapy

A

allopurinol: HLA-B*5801 due to risk of SJS - if positive, avoid
clopidogrel: CYP2C19 allele - *1 allele is fully functional, *2 and *3 alleles have decreased conversion to active metabolite and may experience increase CV events
codeine: CYP2D6 - ultra metabolizers may experience toxicity due to morphine overdose
Warfarin: CYP2C9 *2 and 3, VKORC1 (G to A) - increased bleeding risk with decreased function of alleles
Capecitabine - DPD deficiency cause increase toxicity; if DPD deficient, avoid use
Phenytoin: HLA-B
1502 in asian patients - if positive, do not use due to risk of SJS or TEN

23
Q

Confidence interval: result is statistically significant if the CI does not include

A

zero

24
Q

ratio data (risk ratio, odds ratio, hazard ratio): result is statistically significant if the CI does not include

A

one

25
Q

alpha

A

probability of a type-1 error (false positive; i.e. concluded that drug was better than placebo when it was not).

26
Q

beta

A

probability of a type II error (false negative, i.e. drug is concluded not to have benefit when it actually does).

27
Q

statistical power

A

probability that the test will reject the bull hypothesis when the null hypothesis is false (avoiding a type II error). power = 1-beta. higher statistical power means that we can be more certain that the null hypothesis was correctly rejected.

28
Q

discrete data

A

limited or finite set of values. only whole numbers. Nominal and ordinal.

29
Q

nominal data

A

type of discrete data. consists of categories where the order is arbitrary (i.e. 0=male, 1=female).

30
Q

ordinal data

A

type of discrete data. consists of ranked categories where the difference cannot be considered equal (i.e. NYHA functional class). ranked by severity but cannot be measured/quantified.

31
Q

continuous data

A

infinite number of possible values within a defined range. interval or ratio.

32
Q

interval data

A

type of continuous data. used to measure data that have legitimate mathematical values. 0 point is arbitrary and does not mean “none” (i.e. celsius).

33
Q

ratio data

A

type of continuous data. equal intervals between values and a meaningful zero point (i.e. height, weight)

34
Q

nominal data statistical tests

A

2 independent samples: chi squared or fishers exact
3+ independent samples: chi squared
2 paired samples: mcnemar test
3+ paired samples: cochran Q

35
Q

ordinal data statistical tests

A

2 independent samples: wilcoxon rank sum or mann whitney U test
3+ independent samples: kruskal-wallis test
2 paired samples: wilcoxon signed rank sum
3+ paired samples: friedman

36
Q

Continuous data statistical tests

A

2 independent samples: students T test
3+ independent samples: ANOVA or kruskal-wallis
2 paired samples: paired student T test or wilcoxon signed rank test
3+ paired samples: ANOVA

37
Q

risk ratio overview

A

probability of an unfavorable event occurring in the treatment group vs the control group
1= no different in risk
less than 1=fewer events in the treatment group
more than 1=more events in the treatment group
RR = (risk in treatment group)/(risk on control group)

38
Q

relative risk reduction overview

A

how much risk is reduced in the treatment group compared to control group
RRR=1-RR

39
Q

absolute risk reduction

A

difference between control groups event rate and treatment groups event rate
ARR=(risk in control)-(risk in treatment)
expressed in % meaning that for every 100 patients, X fewer would experience the outcome

40
Q

number needed to treat

A

number of people who would need to be treated with the intervention for a certain period of time in order to achieve the desired outcome in one patient
NNT=1/ARR

41
Q

odds

A

the probability of the event occurring compared with the probability that it will not occur
100 smokers, 40 develop cancer. 40:60. 67% are the odds of developing cancer

42
Q

odds ratio

A

ratio of odds of an event occurring in the treatment group to the odds of an event occurring in the control group. measure of association between an exposure and an outcome.
OR = (drug group gets disease x placebo group does not get disease)/(drug group does not get disease x placebo group gets disease)
if OR is 6, it means that drug group is 6 times as likely to experience the outcome
if OR is 1, there is no difference between groups

43
Q

hazard ratio

A

chance of an unfavorable event occurring by a given point in time
used as a time-to-event analysis
HR = (hazard rate in the treatment group)/(hazard rate in the control group)
HR less than one: at any given time, relatively fewer patients in the treatment group have had an event compared to the control

44
Q

sensitivity

A

proportion of time a test is positive in patients who have a disease
(true+)/(true+ + false -)

45
Q

specificity

A

proportion of time a test is negative in patients who do not have the disease
(true-)/(true- + false+)

46
Q

low specificity and high sensitivity

A

false positive

47
Q

high specificity and low sensitivity

A

false negative

48
Q

drugs that require non PVC containers *

A

amiodarone, insulin, lorazepam, nitroglycerin, tacrolimus

49
Q

drugs that must be put in saline (no dextrose) *

A

ampicillin, amp/sul, caspofungin, dapto, phenytoin, ertapenem, infliximab

50
Q

drugs that must be put in dextrose (no saline) *

A

amp B, quinupristin/dalfopristin, sulfa/TMP, cell cept

51
Q

drugs with filter requirements *

A

continuous amiodarone, ampB (5 micron during compounding only), golimumab, lipids (1.2 micron), lorazepam, phenytoin, parenteral nutrition

52
Q

drugs that should not be refrigerated *

A

dexmedetomidine, enoxaparin, furosemide, metronidazole, moxifloxacin, phenytoin, SMX/TMP

53
Q

drugs to protect from light *

A

doxycycline, epoprostenol, micafungin, sodium nitroprusside