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NAPLEX Flashcards

1
Q

Bumex

A

Bumetanide

*Sulfa allergy
*1mg Bumex = 40mg Lasix

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2
Q

Lasix

A

furosemide

  • Protect IV from LIGHT
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3
Q

Maxzide
Diazide

A

triamterene/ hydrochlorothiazide

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4
Q

Zaroxolyn

A

metolazone

  • thiazide-related that can be used in renal failure
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5
Q

Aldactone

A

spironolactone

  • SE: gynecomastia; HF dose: 50mg QD
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6
Q

Lotensin

A

benazepril

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7
Q

Vasotec

A

enalapril

  • only ACE that comes in IV form
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8
Q

Zestril
Prinivil

A

lisinopril

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9
Q

Zestoretic

A

lisinopril w/ HCTZ

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10
Q

Accupril

A

quinapril

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11
Q

Altace

A

ramipril

  • only ACEI that comes in capsules
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12
Q

Avapro

A

irbesartan

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13
Q

Cozaar

A

losartan

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14
Q

Hyzaar

A

losartan w/ HCTZ

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15
Q

Diovan

A

valsartan

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16
Q

Benicar

A

olmesartan

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17
Q

Micardis

A

telmisartan

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18
Q

Normodyne

A

labetalol

  • tk with food. safe in preggo
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19
Q

Bystolic

A

nebivolol

  • ↑ nitric oxide (vasodilation)
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21
Q

Tenormin

A

atenolol

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21
Q

Coreg, Coreg CR

A

carvedilol

  • tk with food
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22
Q

Inderal

A

propanolol

  • tk with food
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23
Q

Lopressor

A

metoprolol tartrate

*IR - take with food

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24
Q

Toprol XL

A

metoprolol succinate

  • can be split in half
  • for HF, start at 12.5mg, ↑ to TD of 200mg/day
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25
Q

Zebeta

A

bisoprolol

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26
Q

Calan SR
Verelan
Verelan PM

A

verapamil

*PO/IV for ventricular rate control
*inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

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27
Q

Cardizem
Tiazac
Taztia XT

A

diltiazem

*PO/IV for ventricular rate control
*inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

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28
Q

Cardizem, Tiazac, Taztia XT

A

diltiazem

*PO/IV for ventricular rate control
*inhibitor/substrate of CYP3A4

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29
Q

Norvasc

A

amlodipine

*substrate of CYP3A4
*weak inhibitor of CYP3A4

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30
Q

Plendil

A

felodipine

*substrate of CYP3A4
*ER
*do not crush or chew
*QD

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31
Q

Procardia
Procardia XL

A

nifedipine

*substrate of CYP3A4

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32
Q

Catapres
Catapres TTS
Kapvay

A

clonidine

*1 patch q7d

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33
Q

Tenex
Intuniv

A

guanfacine

Tenex → ADHD

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34
Q

Apresoline

A

hydralazine

*safe in pregnancy

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34
Q

BiDil

A

Isosorbide dinitrate + hydralazine

*used for HF

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35
Q

Minipress

A

Prazosin

*short acting
*not for BPH
*only for HTN

[alpha 1-blocker]

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36
Q

Cardura
Cardura XL

A

doxazosin

*indicated for HTN and BPH
*titrate due to risk of orthostatic ↓BP

[alpha 1-blocker]

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37
Q

Hytrin [brand DSC]

A

terazosin

*indicated for HTN and BPH
*titrate due to risk of orthostatic ↓BP

[alpha 1-blocker]

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38
Q

Flomax

A

tamsulosin

*SULFA
*tk 30 min after same meal each day

[alpha 1-blocker]

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39
Q

Rapaflo

A

silodosin

*QD
*WITH FOOD
*Caps can be opened and sprinkled onto applesauce

[alpha 1-blocker]

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40
Q

Uroxatral

A

alfuzosin

*tk with same meal each day

[alpha 1-blocker]

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41
Q

Avodart

-dosing

A

dutasteride

*males: PO: 0.5mg QD alone or in combo with tamsulosin

[5 Alpha-reductase Inhibitor]

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42
Q

Proscar
Propecia

-dosing

A

finasteride

*proscar: 5mg for BPH
*propecia: 1mg for male pattern baldness

[5 Alpha-reductase Inhibitor]

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43
Q

Lotrel

A

amlodipine + benazepril

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44
Q

Ziac

A

bisoprolol + HCTZ

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45
Q

Ziac

A

bisoprolol + HCTZ

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46
Q

Ziac

A

bisoprolol + HCTZ

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47
Q

Tarka

A

verapamil + tandolapril

*with food

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48
Q

Prestalia

A

amlodipine + perindopril

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49
Q

Exforge

A

amlodipine + valsartan

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50
Q

Twynsta

A

amlodipine + telmisartan

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51
Q

Azor

A

amlodipine + olmesartan

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52
Q

Caduet

A

amlodipine + atorvastatin

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53
Q

Consensi

A

amlodipine + celecoxib

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54
Q

isosorbide mononitrate

-dosing

A

IR: 20mg BID with the 2 doses given 7 hours apart

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55
Q

Isosordil

-when to administer

A

isosorbide dinitrate

*dont administer around the clock to prevent tolerance; allow nitrate free interval ≥14h (IR) and ≥18h (SR)
*IR : BID : 8AM and 1PM
*TID: 8AM, 1PM, 6PM

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56
Q

Nitrostat
NitroBid

-storage

A

nitroglycerin

*IV must be in GLASS bottle

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57
Q

Ranexa

-indication
-CI

A

ranolazine

*indicated for chronic stable angina
*CI: hepatic impairment

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58
Q

Heparin

-dosage form
-monitoring parameters
-doses

A

*IV/SQ
*IV: monitor Hgb, Hct, platelet, aPTT, signs of bleeding
*Heparin lock flush is intended to maintain IV line open (NOT anticoagulant tx)
*1,2,10,100 units/mL

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59
Q

Lovenox

-monitoring
-dosing
-CI
-antidote

A

enoxaparin

*monitoring: platelet, hemoglobin , hematocrit, fecal occult blood, bleeding signs, anti-factor Xa levels (as appropriate), serum creatinine at baseline and during tx
*DVT prophylaxis in hip/knee replacement: 30mg SC q12h, start 12-24h post-op for 7-10d
40mg SC QD
CrCl <30: 30 mg SC QD
*DVT prophylaxis in abdominal surgery: 40mg SC QD start 2h pre op no more than 12 days
*DVT treatment: 1mg/kg SC q12h or 1.5mg/kg QD
CrCl <30: 1mg/kg SC QD
*MI/ unstable angina/ thrombolytic adjunct/ PIC: ID 30mg IV single bolus + 1 mg/kg SC q12h w/ aspirin

*CI: pork allergy
*antidote: protamine

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60
Q

Pradaxa

-drug class
-antidote
-storage

A

dabigatran

*direct thrombin inhibitor: inhibits factor IIa
*antidote: idarucizumab (Praxbind)
*KEEP IN ORIGINAL BOTTLE. Once opened - 4m

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61
Q

Praxbind

A

idarucizumab

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62
Q

Eliquis

-dosing
-antidote

A

apixaban

*DOSED BID
*antidote: Andexanet alfa (Andexxa) (IV)

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63
Q

Andexxa

A

Andexanet alfa

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64
Q

Xarelto

-dosing
-antidote

A

rivaroxaban

*DVT prophylaxis: Knee (12d) or hip (35d): 10mg QD
*Stroke prophylaxis in non-Valv Afib:
CrCl>50 : 20mg QD with PM meal
*DVT/PE tx: 15mg BID x 21d; then 20mg QD for 3m or +
*Antidote: andexanet alfa (Andexxa) (IV)

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65
Q

Jantoven

-monitor
-antidote

A

warfarin

*Monitor: INR, Hgb, Hit, hematocrit, bleeding signs
*CYP inhibitors will ↑ INR, CYP inducer ↓ INR
*Antidote: VitK (phytonadione) (Mephyton)

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66
Q

Mephyton

A

Phytonadione (Vitamin K)

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67
Q

Plavix

-dosing
-drug class

A

clopidogrel

*LD: 300mg → 75mg QD
*Prodrug: CYP2C19 inhibitor ↓ plavix

[ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] irreversible

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68
Q

Efficient

-dosing
-drug class

A

prasugrel

*60mg LD →10mg QD

[ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] irreversible

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69
Q

Brilinta

-LD/MD
-BBW
-drug class

A

ticagrelor

*LD: 180mg (2 x 90mg)
*MD: 90mg BID
*BBW: aspirin dose >100mg reduces effectiveness

[ADP receptor P2Y12 inhibitor] reversible

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70
Q

Aggrenox

A

dipyridamole + aspirin

*CI: salicylate allergy

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71
Q

Pacerone
Nexterone

A

Amiodarone

*DI with warfarin (↑INR)
*dont give sofosbuvir

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72
Q

Multaq

A

dronedarone

*with FOOD
*avoid grapefuit juice
*watch for liver failure and HF

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73
Q

Betapace
Betapace AF

A

Sotalol

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74
Q

Tikosyn

A

dofetilide

*PO
*do not use if CrCl <20
*CI w/ HCTZ, citalopram: QT prolongation

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75
Q

Lanoxin
Digitek
Digox

-antidote

A

digoxin

Antidote: Digifab

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76
Q

Statins Monitoring Parameters

A

*Lipid Panels
*LFT: at baseline
*Muscle aches: CPK: not routine: if muscle ache

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77
Q

Lipitor

-max dose

A

atorvastatin

*MAX 80mg

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78
Q

Crestor

-max dose

A

rosuvastatin

*MAX 40mg except Asians (ID: 5mg/ MAX: 20mg)

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79
Q

Crestor

A

rosuvastatin

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80
Q

Zocor

-max dose

A

simvastatin

*MAX 40mg

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81
Q

Vytorin

A

ezetimibe + simvastatin

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82
Q

Pravachol

-max dose

A

pravastatin

*least drug interactions
*MAX 80mg

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83
Q

Mevacor

-max dose

A

lovastatin

*IR with evening meal
*MAX 80mg

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84
Q

Lopid

A

gemfibrozil

*do not use with statin: ↑ myopathy

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85
Q

Tricor
Lipofen
Antara
Lofibra

A

fenofibrate

*Lipofen and Antara taken with food

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86
Q

Trilipix
Fibricor

A

fenofibric acid

87
Q

Praluent

-dosing
-storage
-drug class

A

alirocumab

*SQ once q2w
*in the fridge

[PCSK9 inhibitor]

88
Q

Repatha

-dosing
-storage
-drug class

A

evolcumab

*SQ 140mg q2w or 420mg qm
*in the fridge

[PCSK9 inhibitor]

89
Q

Zetia

-dosing

A

ezetimibe

*10mg QD

90
Q

Niacor
Niaspan

A

Niacin (Vitamin B3)

*with food
*tk ASA 325mg 30min before dose to reduce flushing

91
Q

Lovaza

A

omega-3

*↑risk of bleeding with warfarin

92
Q

Synthroid
Levoxyl
Levothyroid

A

levothyroxine

*T4
*must take on empty stomach

93
Q

Cytomel
Triostat

A

liothyronine

*T3
*rapid absorption, rapid onset

94
Q

PTU

A

propylthiouracil

*preferred in 1st trimester of pregnancy
*indicated for hyperthyroidism

95
Q

Tapazole

A

methimazole

*preferred in 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy
*indicated for hyperthyroidism

96
Q

Androgel
Androderm

A

testosterone

*comes in gel and transdermal patches
*CIII

97
Q

Estrace
Premarin

A

estradiol

*PO and vaginal cream

98
Q

Provera
Depo-Provera

A

medroxyprogesterone

*PO
*Depo-Provera: IM/SQ: q3m

99
Q

Proometrium

A

progesterone

*CI: PEANUT ALLERGY

100
Q

CombiPatch

A

estradiol + norethindrone

*1 patch twice weekly
*REFRIGERATE

101
Q

Proventil HFA
Ventolin HFA
ProAir HFA
RespiClick

A

albuterol

*Priming: Proair (3 sprays), Ventolin/Proventil (4 sprays)
*Re-priming if not used >14d
*RespiClick: Discard 13m after removal from foil pouch

*for acute asthma

102
Q

Xopenex

A

levalbuterol

*Neb: once foiled is opened, good for 2w. out of foil, 1w
*HFA: prime 4 sprays & after 3d of non=use

*for acute asthma

103
Q

Flovent HFA
Flovent Diskus
Arnuity Ellipta

A

fluticasone

*QD

*for asthma + COPD

104
Q

Asmanex

A

mometasone

*discard 45 days after removal from pouch

*for asthma + COPD

105
Q

Dulera

A

mometasone + formoterol

*for asthma + COPD

106
Q

Pulmicort
Pulmicort Flexhaler

A

budesonide

*DOC during pregnancy

*for asthma + COPD

107
Q

Symbicort

A

budesonide + formoterol

*good for 90 days after opening foil wrap

[MDI]
*for asthma + COPD

108
Q

Qvar Redihaler

A

beclomethasone

*do not use a spacer
*prime or shake

*for asthma + COPD

[breath-actuated aerosol inhaler]

109
Q

Serevent

A

salmeterol

*expires 6w after opening

*for asthma + COPD

110
Q

Singulair

A

montelukast

*oral granules cannot be mixed in any liquid other than baby formula or breast milk
*can cause flu-like symptoms, mood changes, and restlessness

*for asthma + COPD

111
Q

Accolate

A

zarfirlukast

*EAT LATER
*must be taken on empty stomach

*for asthma + COPD

112
Q

Zyflo CR

A

zileuton

*LFT

*for asthma + COPD

113
Q

Atrovent HFA

A

ipatropium

*anticholinergic
*shaking NOT needed
*solution

*for COPD

114
Q

Combivent Respimat

A

ipatropium + albuterol

*anticholinergic
*respimat (PTOP)
*shaking not needed
*discard 3m after cartridge inserted

*for COPD

115
Q

DuoNeb

A

ipatropium + albuterol

*anticholinergic

*for COPD

116
Q

Spiriva HandiHaler
Spiriva Respimat

A

tiotropium

*anticholinergic
*Handihaler: inhale 1 capsule QD
*Spiriva Respimat: inhale 2 puffs QD

*for COPD

117
Q

Incruse Ellipta

A

umeclidinium

*anticholinergic
*Ellipta: dry powders
*NO SHAKING
*NO PRIMING
*discard 6w after removal from foil

*for COPD

118
Q

Tudorza

A

aclidinium

*anticholinergic
*NO SHAKING
*Discard after 45d after removal from pouch

*for COPD

119
Q

Seebri Neohaler
Lonhala Magnair

A

glycopyrrolate

*anticholinergic
*reversal of bradycardia: IV(Rubinul, Glyrx-P)
IM used for reduction of secretions
PO(Glycate, Cuvposa-soln) used for drooling and hyperhidrosis

*for COPD

120
Q

Striverdi Respimat

A

olodaterol

*for COPD

121
Q

Striverdi Respimat

122
Q

Perforomist

A

formoterol

*requires refrigeration and is not mixed with other drugs

*for COPD

123
Q

Advair
Wixela

A

fluticasone + salmeterol

*after opening, good for 30d

*for COPD

124
Q

Breo Ellipta

A

fluticasone + vilanterol

*Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch

*for COPD

125
Q

Anoro Ellipta

A

umeclidinium + vilanterol

*Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch

*for COPD

126
Q

Stiolto Respimat

A

olodaterol + tiotropium

*for COPD

127
Q

Trilogy Ellipta

A

fluticasone + umeclidinium + vilanterol

*Ellipta formulation expires 6w after removal from pouch

*for COPD

128
Q

Daliresp

A

roflumilast

*QD
*CI in liver impairment
*3A4 substrate; suicidal events; wt loss

*for COPD

129
Q

Daliresp

A

roflumilast

*QD
*CI in liver impairment
*3A4 substrate; suicidal events; wt loss

*for COPD

130
Q

Entresto

A

Sacubitril + valsartan

*dont give within 36 hours of ACEinhibitor

131
Q

Entresto

A

Sacubitril + valsartan

132
Q

Apidra

A

glulisine

*RT 28 d
*vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial
*pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen

[Rapid acting] : Clear

133
Q

Humalog

A

lispro

*RT 28 d
*vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial
*pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen

[Rapid acting] : Clear

134
Q

Novolog

A

aspart

*RT 28 d
*vials: 100u/ml (10ml) = 1000u/vial
*pens: 100u/ml (3ml) = 300 u/pen

[Rapid-acting] : Clear

135
Q

Humulin R
Novolin R

A

Insulin regular

*Humulin R: RT 31d
*Novolin R: RT 42d

[Short-acting] : Clear

136
Q

Humulin N
Novolin N

A

insulin NPH (OTC)

*Humulin N: RT 31d
*Novolin N: RT 42d

[Intermediate acting] Cloudy

137
Q

Levemir

A

determir

*RT 42d

[Basal] (long acting)

138
Q

Lantus
Basaglar

A

glargine

*Lantus: RT 28d
*DO NOT MIX with other insulin

[Basal] (long acting)

139
Q

Novolog

A

degludec

*RT 56d
*DO NOT MIX with other insulin

[Basal] (long acting)

140
Q

SymlinPen

A

pramlinitide

*SQ TID immediately before meals

141
Q

Glucophage (XR)

141
Q

Glucophage (XR)

A

metformin

*hold metformin if contrast dye 48h after
*CI in patients with CrCl <30ml/min

142
Q

Glynase

A

glyburide

*long acting: more hypoglycemia
*avoid ≥ 65 y/o

[Sulfonylureas]

143
Q

Glucovance

A

glyburide + metformine

[Sulfonylureas]

144
Q

Glucovance

A

glyburide + metformine

145
Q

Glucotrol (XL)

A

glipizide

*DOC in renal failure

[Sulfonylureas]

146
Q

Amaryl

A

glimepiride

*8mg QD

[Sulfonylureas]

147
Q

Amaryl

A

glimepiride

*8mg QD

148
Q

Actos

A

pioglitazone

*BBW: HF, fractures, fluid retention, and liver failure
*MAX 45mg QD

[Thiazolidinediones]

149
Q

Byetta
Bydureon
BCise

A

exenatide

*bydureon: qw (refrigerate; RT 4w)
*BCise : Suspension : SHAKE 15s
*Byetttea: BID (refrigerate; RT 30d)

[GLP1 agonist]

150
Q

Victoza
Saxenda

A

liraglutide

*1.8mg QD for DM
*3mg QD Saxenda for wt loss
*Refrigerate; RT 30d

[GLP1 agonist]

151
Q

Trulicity

A

dulaglutide

*dosed weekly
*Refrigerate; RT 14d

[GLP1 agonist]

151
Q

Trulicity

A

dulaglutide

*dosed weekly
*Refrigerate; RT 14d

[GLP1

152
Q

Onglyza

A

saxagliptin

  • ↑risk of HF
    *CYP3A4 substrate

[DPP4 inhibitors]

153
Q

Januvia

A

sitagliptin

*25, 50, 100 mg QD
*dose adjust in renal

[DPP4 inhibitors]

154
Q

Nesina

A

alogliptin

*↑ risk of HF

[DPP4 inhibitors]

155
Q

Tradjenta

A

linagliptin

*no dose adjustment renal/hepatic
*CYP3A4 substrate

[DPP4 inhibitors]

156
Q

Janumet (XR)

A

sitagliptin + metformin

157
Q

Kombiglyze XR

A

saxagliptin + metformin

158
Q

Kazano

A

alogliptin + metformin

159
Q

Invokana

A

canagliflozin

*QAM
* Do not initiate if GFR < 30
*SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE

[SGLT2 Inhibitor]

160
Q

Jardiance

A

empagliflozin

*QAM
* Do not initiate if GFR < 30
*SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE

[SGLT2 Inhibitor]

161
Q

Farxiga

A

dapagliflozin

*FDA approved for HF
*QAM
* Do not initiate if GFR < 45
*SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE

[SGLT2 Inhibitor]

162
Q

Steglatro

A

ertugliflozin

*QAM
* Do not initiate if GFR < 45
*SE: UTI, ↑LDL, ↑K, ↑Mg, ↑PO4, ↓wt, ↓BP, bone FRACTURE

[SGLT2 Inhibitor]

163
Q

Does one take penicillin + ampicillin with or without food???

A

*tk on empty stomach

164
Q

Moxatag
Amoxil

A

amoxicillin

*regardless of food

165
Q

Augmentin

A

amoxicillin + clavulanate

*w/ FOOD
*suspension must be refrigerated

166
Q

Zosyn

A

piperacillin + tazobactam

*ANTIPSUDOMONAL
*CrCl >40: 3.375g q6h
nosocomial pneumonia: 4.5g q6h
*CrCl20-40: 2.25g q6h
nosocomial pneumonia: 4.5g q8h/3.375g q6h

167
Q

Keflex

A

cephalexin

168
Q

Omnicef

A

cefdinir

*dont refrigerate oral suspension
*seperate from vitamins/antacids

169
Q

Fortaz

A

ceftazidime

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*IV/IM

170
Q

Avycaz

A

ceftazidime + avibactam

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*IV
*Intra-abdominal infections
*HAP

171
Q

Ceftriaxone

-coverage
-dose

A

N. gonorrhoeae treatment mono therapy

<150 kg: 500mg IM x1
≥150 kg: 1g IM x1

IM: gluteal injection

171
Q

ceftriaxone

172
Q

Zithromax
Azasite

A

azithromycin

*Azasite: ophthalmic
*refrigerate - discard after 14d
*DO NOT refrigerate oral suspension

173
Q

EES
Ery-tab

A

erythromycin

*most macrolides are strong 3A4 inhibitor : NEVER use in combo with theophylline or warfarin
*refrigerate suspension

174
Q

Biaxin
Biaxin XL

A

clarithromycin

*XL with food

175
Q

Cleocin

A

clindamycin

*BBW: C difficile colitis
*DO NOT refrigerate suspension

176
Q

Cubicin

A

daptomycin

*gram (+)
*SE: neuropathy, myopathy,
*IV in D5W QD
*DO NOT USE for pneumonia (binds to surfactant of lung)

177
Q

Vancocin

A

vancomycin
*gram(+)
*SE: neuropathy, ototoxicity, red man syndrome
*IV over 1 hour

178
Q

gentamicin

-coverage
-SE

A

gram (-)
SE: ototoxicity, neuropathy

179
Q

Arikayce

A

amikacin

*IM,IV 5-7mg/kg/dose q8h
*GFR 10-50: q24-72h
*Peak: UTI 15-20/serious 20-25/ life threatening inf 25-40
*trough: <5-8

180
Q

Zyvox

A

linezolid

*PO, IV: 600mg BID
*Monitor: thrombocytopenia (CBC), eyes MAOI, renal

181
Q

Septra
Bactrim DS

A

Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole

*1:5
*watch for SULFA allergy
*hydrate to ↓ risk of crystalluria
*IV-D5W
*DO not refrigerate
*discard after 6h

182
Q

MacroBid
Macrodantin

A

Nitrofurantoin

*UTI
*tk with food
Macrobid: nitrofurantoin monohydrate + macro crystals BID
Macrodantin: nitrofurantoin macrocrystals :PO 50-100mg q6h

183
Q

Cipro

A

ciprofloxacin

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)
*Do NOT use cipro suspension down the NG tube

*indicated for UTI, not CAP

184
Q

Levaquin

A

levofloxacin

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)

185
Q

Avelox
Vigamox ophthalmic (TID)

A

moxifloxacin

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)
*greater risk of QT prolongation

*indicated for CAP, not UTI

186
Q

Floxin

A

ofloxacin

*ANTIPSEUDOMONAL
*BBW: tendon rupture, peripheral neuropathy, CNS (avoid if seizure history)

187
Q

Minocin
Solodyn

A

minocycline

*avoid in preggo
*CI: patients ≤8 y/o (tooth discoloration)

188
Q

Vibramycin
Doryx

A

doxycycline

*avoid in preggo
*CI: patients ≤8 y/o (tooth discoloration)
*use doxy in renal impairment
*Oracea on an empty stomach

189
Q

Flagyl

A

metronidazole

*tk ER on empty stomach

190
Q

MRSA coverage

A

IV: vancomycin
Vanco-resistant: Ceftaroline, Daptomycin, Linezolid, Tedizolid, Telavacin, Dalbavancin, Oritavancin

PO: Clindamycin, Bactrim, Doxycycline, Minocycline, Linezolid, Tedizolid

191
Q

VRE

A

Linezolid, Tedizolid, Daptomycin, Oritavancin, Tigecycline, Quinupristin/Dalfopristin

192
Q

Pseudomonas coverage

A

Zosyn , Ceftazidime, Ceftazidime/Avibactam, Cefepime, Ceftolozane/tazo, aztreonam, meropenem, doripenem, imipenem/ cilastatin; gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, plazomycin; cipro, levaquin, delafloxacin

193
Q

anaerobes coverage

A

amoxicillin/ clavulanate acid, ampicillin/sulbactam, zosyn, cefoxitin, cefotetan, carbapenems, eravacycline, omadacycline, tigecycline, moxiflaxacin, delafloxacin, clindamycin, metronidazole

194
Q

Tamiflu

A

oseltamivir

*for influenza, start within 2d of symptoms

75mg BID x 5d
prevention: 75mg qd x7d

195
Q

Zovirax

A

acyclovir

*indicated for HSV
*oral: 400mg TID/ 200mg 5 x QD for 7-10d

196
Q

Valtrex

A

valacyclovir

*indicated for HSV
*prodrug: 1g BID x7-10d

197
Q

Diflucan

A

fluconazole

*single dosing: 150mg tab x 1 for vaginal candidiasis

198
Q

Nizoral

A

ketoconazole

*BBW: hepatotoxicity

199
Q

Mycostatin

A

nystatin

*oral yeast infection “swish and swallow” 4-5x QD

200
Q

Lamisil

A

Terbinafine

*1st line for onychomycosis
*PO (RX)
*250mg QD 6-12w

201
Q

Sporanox

A

itraconazole

*for onychomycosis
*PO (RX)

202
Q

Penlac

A

ciclopirox

*for onychomycosis
*topical (Rx)

203
Q

Jublia

A

efinaconazole

*for onychomycosis
*topical (Rx)
*QD

204
Q

Kerydin

A

tavaborole

*for onychomycosis
*topical x48w

205
Q

Truvada

A

TDF + emtricitabine

206
Q

Atripla

A

efavirenz + emtricitabine + TDF

*empty stomach

207
Q

Edurant

A

rilpivirine

208
Q

Sustiva

209
Q

Pifeltro

A

doravirine

210
Q

Perseris

A

Risperidone

-LAI (SQ)

211
Q

Aristada

A

Aripiprazole

BRAND/GENERIC (7 decks)

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