Nagelhout Video 1 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Ultra-short neuromuscular depolarizing relaxants

A

Succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Intermediate neuromuscular non-depolarizing relaxants

A

Vecuronium (Norcuron)

Cis-astracurium (Nimbex)

Atracurium (Tracrium)

Rocuronium (Zemuron)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Long acting non-depolarizing neuromuscular relaxants

A

pancuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Why is succyinylcholine considered depolarizing?

A

Because it is (essentially) Acetylcholine - it causes the muscle to contract or depolarize once

There is a period of paralysis while waiting for Succs to leave the synapse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How do non-depolarizing neuromuscular agents work?

A

Like classic antagonists- they do not cause muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What percent of muscle receptors is required for patient to have normal tidal volume / RR?

What are the implications of this?

A

20% of receptors

-pt could be 80% paralyzed, poor airway reflexes but have normal respirations

-this is why it’s important to know how many receptors are still occupied by a neuromuscular relaxant before extubating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You can’t be more than 100% paralyzed - what are the implications of this?

A

the more relaxant you give, the harder to get rid of the drug at the end of the case - the less relaxant you use the easier reversal will be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of muscle do neuromuscular relaxants work on?

A

Skeletal muscle only not cardiac or smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What OR procedures require patient to be paralyzed?

A

Abdominal or chest procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When you give a neuromuscular blockade will this work on the bowel?

A

No because it is smooth muscle - but it will work on sphincter causing them to open up

*Which makes a patient susceptible to aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Single Twitch test

A

single supramaximal electrical stimulus ranging from 0.1-1.0 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which Nerve stimulation test provides the least amount of information?

A

Single-twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the single twitch test require and what type of information does it represent?

A

requires a baseline assessment

QUALITATIVE not quantitative

  • If they move they’re not paralyzed
  • IF they don’t they are
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which Nerve stimulation test is the most popular?

A

Train-of-four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Train of Four (TOF)
-timing
-results

A

A series of 4 twitches at 2 Hz. every half-second for 2 seconds

Train-of-four ratio is determined by comparing T1-T4 (looking for fade)

Reflects blockade from 70-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Double burst stimulation

A

two bursts of 50 hz tetanus separated by 0.75 seconds

Compare the first and second twitch - look for fade (fade may be easier to detect than TOF)

Tactile evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tetanus
-energy used, process of

A

Rapid delivery of a 30, 50, or 100- Hz.
Stimulus for 5 seconds.

Should be used sparingly for deep block assessment - painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Post- tetanic count
-Energy used and process

A

50-Hz. tetanus for 5 seconds, a 3-second pause, then single twitches of 1 Hz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tetantic should only be used when which two tests are absent?

A

Used only when TO4 or double-burst stimulation response is absent;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tetanic: less than 8 indicates

A

<8 indicates a deep block and likely prolonged recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Onset

A

time from drug administration to maximum effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Clinical Duration of NMBD is usually

A

time from drug administration to 25% recovery of the twitch response

-DOA of a NMBD = time of recovery of 1/4 TOF twitches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recovery index

A

Time from 25% to 75% recovery of the twitch response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Total Duration

A

Time from drug administration to 90% recovery of the twitch response

*This is the number we use to determine recovery time!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Train of Four Ratio (TOFR)

A

Compares the 4th twitch of a TOF with the 1st twitch.

When the 4th twitch is 90% of the first, recovery is indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Electricity flows from positive to negative, so it flows from what color electrode to what color electrode?

A

Flows from the red electrode to the black electrode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Red electrode should be closest to…

A

the body (proximal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The black lead should be closest to..

A

the twitch site (distal)

Think red goes closest to heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ulnar nerve

A

electrodes just above posterior wrist, pinky side.

*Goal is thumb adduction.

28
Q

Which is the best site to monitor recovery?

A

ulnar nerve

29
Q

Tibial, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves

A

electrodes over posterior tibial nerve or behind knee

30
Q

Facial nerve- electrode placement

A

front of the tragus of the ear and below and slightly posterior

-avoids direct stimulation of either the orbicularis oculi and frontalis muscles.

31
Q

Best site to measure onset

A

facial nerve

32
Q

Goal of facial nerve stimulation

A

eyelid movement

33
Q

Facial nerve stimulation is the most relevant in

A

RSI

34
Q

When stimulating the facial nerve - why do you not put the electrodes near the eyelid?

A

because then you are sending the electricity directly into the muscle, and it will contract (even if the patient is 100% paralyzed).

You are not actually paralyzing the muscle, but rather the nerve-to-muscle connection. With enough stimulation, the muscle can still depolarize.

35
Q

The orbicularis oculi response to facial nerve stimulation reflects the extent of neuromuscular blockade of the_________________ better than does the response of the adductor pollicis to ulnar nerve stimulation

why is this?

A

Diaphragm

this is because the facial nerve receives similar blood flow/cardiac output to the diaphragm.

36
Q

Which muscles are more sensitive to the nerve stimulation tests: upper airway or peripheral muscles?

A

upper airway muscles

37
Q

T/F: · No difference in sensitivity exists between the arm (adductor pollicis muscle) and the leg (flexor hallicus brevis) muscles

A

True

38
Q

Placement of electrodes when using temporal branch of the facial nerve-

A

Negative electrode should be placed over the nerve, and the positive electrode should be somewhere else on the forehead.

39
Q

Neuromuscular relaxant sequence

A
  1. Eyelids - this is different than the facial muscles.
  2. Extremities
  3. Chest- intercostals - from strap muscles in neck and downward
  4. Abdominal muscles
  5. Diaphragm: hardest muscle in the body to paralyze!

**The muscles regain function in the opposite order!

40
Q

What is the minimal current output that a peripheral nerve stimulator should provide?

A

30 mA

41
Q

What type of neuromuscular function monitoring do we WANT to use when possible?

A

Quantitative

41
Q

Tactile evaluation of TOF / DBS fade reduces but DOES NOT eliminate ______________________

A

post-op residual paralysis compared with the use of clinical criteria to assess readiness for tracheal extubation.

42
Q

What should be established before pharmacologic antagonism of NMBD block with anticholinesterases - does not apply to sugammdex?

A

adequate spontaneous recovery.

43
Q

T/F: Protective reflex muscles of the pharynx and upper esophagus recover later than the diaphragm, larynx, hands, or face.

A

True

44
Q

Monitoring of the offset and recovery from neuromuscular blockade is probably better

A

at the ulnar nerve

44
Q

Monitoring of which nerve for determination of onset and readiness for intubation may be preferable to monitoring of the ulnar nerve

A

Facial

45
Q

When there is only one response to TOF stimulation, successful reversal may take as long as _____ minutes.

A

30

46
Q

At a TOF count of two or three responses, recovery usually takes _________ minutes after intermediate-acting drugs and may take up to ______ minutes after administration of the long-acting relaxant Pancuronium

A

4- 15 minutes

30 minutes

47
Q

When the fourth response to TOF stimulation appears, adequate recovery can be achieved within ____ minutes of reversal with neostigmine or 2 to 3 minutes after use of edrophonium.

A

5 minutes

48
Q

The timing of tracheal extubation should be guided by monitoring tests such as

A

TOF >0.9

or

DBS3, 3 >0.9.

49
Q

1 response TOF

A

90-95% blockade

**This is the ideal place to carry a patient in the OR!

50
Q

2 responses TOF

A

80 - 85% blockade

51
Q

0 response TOF

A

100% blockade (TOFR < .9 or 90%)

52
Q

3 responses TOF

A

75%-80%

53
Q

4 responses TOF

A

70 - 75% blockade (TOFR > .9 or 90%)

54
Q

Does fade occur in non-depolarizing or depolarizing agents?

A

non-depolarizing because they affect both post-synaptic ACh receptors as well as the positive feed back loop of ACh at the pre-synaptic receptors

55
Q

Is there fade with succinylcholine?

A

No because succinylcholine does not affect pre-synaptic ACh receptors only post-synaptic ACh receptors

TOFR becomes meaningless because 4:1 is always 100%

56
Q

Normal response - tetanus contraction

A

Normal means you push the button and the hand should contract for 5 seconds (i.e. sustained contraction). If you get no response, you have 100% paralysis.

57
Q

How to initiate a PTC

A

Apply tetanus at 50 Hz for 5 seconds Pause (wait) for 3 seconds

Apply single twitches every second up to 20

58
Q

A PTC of “1” means that the time of the appearance of T4 in a TOF will be about

A

30 minutes for a Pancuronium and

8 minutes for either atracurium or vecuronium.

59
Q

PTC = 10 was found to correlate with

A

appearance of the T, in the TOF.

60
Q

Benefits of PTC

A
  • It is helpful in assessing the level of blockade
  • It is helpful in determining when and with what agent to reverse NM blockade.
61
Q

Train of four tells us how paralyzed a patient is between

A

70-100%

62
Q

Single twitch is all or nothing! Patient is either

A
  • 100% or 0% paralyzed.
63
Q

Tetanus is the strongest. If there is fade, patient is still

A

paralyzed

64
Q

If all else fails, we can use the PTC. The lower the number

A

the more paralyzed the patient is. If PTC=2, call for a ventilator in the PACU!

65
Q

Characteristics of depolarizing (phase I) blockade

A

Muscle fasciculation PRECEDES paralysis

sustained response to tetantic stimulation

No post-tetantic potentiation

No fade in TOF / DBS

Antagonized by pre-treatment with non-depolarizing agent (requires 20% more succinylcholine)

Potentiated by anticholinesterase drug

66
Q

Characteristics of depolarizing (phase 2) blockade

A

No muscle fasciculation

Tetantic fade

Post-tetanic potentiation, stimulation, or fasciculation.

TOF and double-burst fade

Rare cases- may be produced by an overdose and desensitization with succinylcholine >6mg/kg

Reversal with anticholinesterase drug