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nab3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following psychological factors is normally not a problem with aging?

  1. Paranoia
  2. Depression
  3. Self-actualization
  4. Feelings of worthlessness
A

Self-actualization

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2
Q

Which of the following statements concerning the needs of the elderly is false?

  1. Sexuality drastically reduces with age
  2. Relationships are needed to combat loneliness
  3. The need for closeness is never lost by most of the elderly
  4. Independence to do their “own thing” is very important to the elderly
A

Sexuality drastically reduces with age

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3
Q

To assure that the resident’s assessment is accurate and reflects the resident’s current status, the nursing facility must update the assessment as deemed appropriate, but no less than once every:

  1. month
  2. two months
  3. three months
  4. six months
A

thee months

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4
Q

Discharge planning for a resident should be initiated when the resident is:

  1. admitted
  2. completing the rehabilitation and visitors
  3. re-evaluated at the first quarterly staffing
  4. first evaluated by the utilization review committee
A

first evaluated by the utilization review committee

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5
Q

Which of the following would be most likely to increase the number of infections in a nursing facility?

  1. The frequent use of the invasive devices
  2. The exposure to employees and visitors
  3. The presence of multiple chronic diseases
  4. The increase of incidents of immobility and incontinence
A

The exposure to employees and visitors

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6
Q

Assume that 130 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s physician to be administered in a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered were not given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was the medication error rate?

  1. 1.5 percent
  2. 2.3 percent
  3. 3.8 percent
  4. 5.0 percent
A

3.8 percent

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7
Q

The term bedfast means that, except to be moved for treatment, a resident has been confined in bed all of the time during the past:

  1. 24 hours
  2. 48 hours
  3. 5 days
  4. 7 days
A

7 days

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8
Q

The legal vehicles used to control nursing activities are termed:

  1. federal statutes
  2. nursing practice acts
  3. practice control acts
  4. professional function laws
A

nurse practice acts

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9
Q

After a comprehensive assessment has been made, comprehensive care plans must be completed within:

  1. 5 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 10 days
  4. 14 days
A

7 days

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10
Q

Falls are a major cause of patient injuries in nursing homes. When developing a Fall Prevention Program, which of the following is least likely to be considered a common cause of falls within the facility?

  1. Extensive physical therapy causing the resident to tire more easily, thus increasing the probability of falls
  2. Family bringing in furniture that is too large for the size of the room, thus creating barriers for safe ambulation
  3. A resident who has a medical diagnosis of osteoporosis and suffers a level of dementia which prohibits safety awareness
  4. Residents who have just finished a large meal, which may result in a lowering the blood pressure when the resident stands up
A

Extensive physical therapy causing the resident to tire more easily, thus increasing the probability of falls

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11
Q

Many nursing home residents are afflicted with diabetes mellitus. A diabetic produces insufficient amounts of insulin or is unable to properly utilize it. Which of the following organs is responsible for the production of insulin?

  1. Liver
  2. Kidney
  3. Thyroid
  4. Pancreas
A

Pancreas

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12
Q

A new resident is continually making accusations that his roommate’s pet rats are scaring him. He is afraid of rats and does not want to stay in the room any longer. Upon an exhaustive investigation it is determined that there are no rats in the room. It is also found that the new resident is on a medication that is causing him to be:

  1. looney
  2. paranoid
  3. delusional
  4. hallucinating
A

hallucinating

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13
Q

A legal document that specifies a person’s preference concerning life-sustaining treatment is referred to as a:

  1. living will
  2. statutory will
  3. holographic will
  4. power of attorney
A

living will

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14
Q

A testator is one who:

  1. is an executrix
  2. dies leaving a will
  3. is an executor of an estate
  4. has been appointed as a legal guardian
A

dies leaving a will

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15
Q

When a resident is angry, it is best to:

  1. ignore him/her
  2. correct him/her immediately
  3. let him/her express the anger
  4. refer the resident to a physician
A

let him/her express the anger

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16
Q

The social worker in a long-term care facility is primarily concerned with:

  1. counseling the residents and families regarding their personal problems
  2. reducing the resident’s problems of orientation during admission to the facility
  3. representing the resident’s interests on the resident evaluation or utilization review committee
  4. developing an in-depth relationship with the resident to maintain an accurate and current social record
A

developing an in-depth relationship with the resident to maintain an accurate and current social record

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17
Q

Resident councils allow:

  1. input into staffing requirements
  2. the opportunity to change the resident’s rights
  3. residents a sense of some control of their lives and desires
  4. involvement in the administration and management of the facility
A

residents a sense of some control of their lives and desires

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18
Q

Procedures and directives concerning resident privacy and dignity would not include:

  1. the use of curtains around the bed
  2. knocking before entering the room
  3. assuming the resident is fully clothed
  4. remembering that the resident’s beliefs or concepts or privacy and dignity may differ from that of the employee
A

assuming the resident is fully clothed

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19
Q

The new administrator and the Director of Nursing are charged with updating the facility’s policies concerning advanced directives. In order to ensure that advance directive policies protect the residents’ rights and at the same time enable the staff to provide reasonable care with respect and dignity to the resident, the administrator and DON decide to delegate the task of updating the policies to which of the following committees?

  1. Ethics committee
  2. Safety committee
  3. Utilization Review Committee
  4. Quality Improvement Committee
A

Ethics committee

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20
Q

The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weighed 150 pounds and now weights 142 pounds is:

  1. 2.9 percent
  2. 5.3 percent
  3. 7.5 percent
  4. 8.0 percent
A

5.3 percent

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21
Q

The dietary department is required to maintain various adaptive feeding equipment to assist the resident in eating. However, training needed for utilization of the equipment is usually provided by:

  1. nurses
  2. the activity department
  3. occupational therapists
  4. certified nursing assistants
A

occupational therapists

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22
Q

The Restful Acres Nursing Home is licensed for 135 beds and has an occupancy of 120 residents. In a 30-day month, $21,600.00 is spent on raw food items. What is the per resident day cost?

  1. $5.25 per day’
  2. $5.50 per day
  3. $6.00 per day
  4. $6.24 per day
A

$6.00 per day

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23
Q

If a facility has 90 residents and it requires preparation time of 12 labor minutes per meal, how many labor house are required per week?

  1. 350 hours
  2. 378 hours
  3. 420 hours
  4. 540 hours
A

378 hours

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24
Q

When developing a nutrition-risk protocol, the provider should:

  1. rely totally on the orders given by the medical director
  2. refer the matter to the ethics committee for final decision
  3. include guidelines on weight-tracking and weight-loss interventions
  4. not become involved since this is a legal matter and the facility may have a financial interest
A

include guidelines on weight-tracking and weight-loss interventions

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25
Q

To manually clean utensils, a three-compartment sink is needed to wash, rinse, and:

  1. dry utensils
  2. scrape utensils
  3. sanitize utensils
  4. rinse utensils a second time
A

sanitize utensils

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26
Q

A nursing home resident is considered a polypharmacy patient if he is:
1.prescribed 9 or more medications daily, including vitamins
2. prescribed 4 or more medications, two of which may be contraindicated
3. prescribed 9 or more medications, one of which must be an antipsychotic
4, prescribed 6 or more medications, one of which must be an antipsychotic

A

prescribed 4 or more medications, two of which may be contraindicated

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27
Q

The sum of all activities which create the desired and needed changes in quality care is the definition of:

  1. quality control
  2. quality of assurance
  3. quality improvement
  4. quality measurement
A

quality improvement

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28
Q

Residents in nursing homes have the right to self-administer their medications. However, who must ultimately determine whether or not the resident can safely do so?

  1. Pharmacist
  2. Director of Nursing
  3. Interdisciplinary team
  4. Facility Medical DIrector
A

Interdisciplinary team

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29
Q

Incontinence means:

  1. urinary infection
  2. loss of mental capabilities
  3. inflammation of the muscles
  4. involuntary passage of urine and/or feces
A

involuntary passage of urine and/or feces

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30
Q

An oncologist is a specialist in the area of:

  1. hearing
  2. mental illness
  3. blood conditions
  4. cancer and malignant diseases
A

cancer and malignant diseases

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31
Q

If an administrator becomes aware of a noticeable deterioration in a resident’s condition, the administrator’s most appropriate action would be to:

  1. discuss the change with the attending physician
  2. enter the observations in the resident’s medical record
  3. require the nurse to report further changes to administrator
  4. request the nurse to evaluate the resident’s overall condition and report it to the physician if necessary
A

request the nurse to evaluate the resident’s overall condition and report it to the physician if necessary

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32
Q

According to OBRA regulations, the resident’s physician is required to visit the resident and conduct all of the following except:

  1. sign and date all orders
  2. review all consultant reports
  3. write, sign, and date progress notes
  4. review all medication and treatment
A

review all consultant reports

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33
Q

If dental work is planned for a resident, the facility should be aware of the impact on any of the following except:

  1. artificial hip(s)
  2. heart valve
  3. kidney conditions
  4. knee replacements
A

kidney conditions

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34
Q

The evaluation of the activity program should be aimed at :

  1. the variety of activities available
  2. the number of residents participating
  3. creating a balance of crafts and games
  4. meeting the needs and desires of all residents
A

meeting the needs and desires of all residents

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35
Q

Activities need not:

  1. provide stimulation or solace
  2. involve useful service to the facility
  3. promote physical, cognitive and emotional health
  4. enhance the mental and physical status of the resident
A

involve useful service to the facility

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36
Q

Resident activities should not be designed to emphasize:

  1. social contacts
  2. creative expression
  3. spiritual gratification
  4. the finished product
A

the finished product

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37
Q

The policies and procedures for activity programs should also include:

  1. volunteers
  2. family members
  3. other employees
  4. physical therapists
A

volunteers

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38
Q

In addition to their services to the residents in the facility, volunteers should be recognized for their:

  1. financial support
  2. work which reduces salary cost
  3. participation in the quality assessment program
  4. strengthening of the bond between the facility and the community
A

strengthening of the bond between the facility and the community

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39
Q

When only posters and mounted calendars are utilized for various activity programs, which of the following is the major communication problem?

  1. residents forget the dates and times of activities
  2. the amount of information is inadequate
  3. the signage is not printed in the residents language
  4. signs may not be seen by the residents who are wheelchair and/or bedbound
A

signs may not be seen by the residents who are wheelchair and/or bedbound

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40
Q

Sometimes, when the staff thinks of medical records, only the resident’s chart is considered to confidential. In reality there are other records that may also be considered confidential. Which of the following would not normally be considered confidential?

  1. Audios
  2. Videos
  3. Computer information
  4. Activity attendance records
A

Activity attendance records

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41
Q

If a resident requests to see his or her chart and medical records but there is a letter from the physician indicating that the records cannot be given to the resident or the family, the facility should:

  1. first call the physician
  2. refuse the resident’s request
  3. make copies for the resident and the family
  4. according to resident’s rights give them to the resident
A

first call physician

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42
Q

According to federal law, medical records must be maintained for at least:

  1. 5 years after admission
  2. 7 years after admission
  3. 7 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation
  4. 5 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation
A

5 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation

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43
Q

Surveyors are usually less concerned with how often information is gathered than:

  1. recommendations
  2. who charts the information
  3. when information is charted
  4. sufficient progress information
A

sufficient progress information

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44
Q

A comprehensive MDS assessment for a private pay or Medicaid resident must be completed no later than:

  1. 14 days of admission
  2. 10 days of admission
  3. 7 days of admission
  4. 5 days of admission
A

14 days of admission

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45
Q

Drug interaction means that:

  1. a combination of the drugs becomes fatal
  2. the drug does not achieve the desired results
  3. the resident’s system counteracts the intent of the drug
  4. two or more drugs taken simultaneously can produce unwanted effect
A

two or more drugs taken simultaneously can produce unwanted effect

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46
Q

All of the following goals should be addressed for residents who use antipsychotic drugs except:

  1. drug holidays
  2. drug elimination
  3. gradual dose reduction
  4. behavioral programming
A

drug elimination

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47
Q

All residents’ drug regimens must be reviewed at least monthly by the :

  1. pharmacist
  2. medical director
  3. director of nursing
  4. attending physician
A

pharmacist

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48
Q

The physician’s Desk Reference relates to:

  1. drugs
  2. DRGS
  3. diagnoses
  4. prognoses
A

drugs

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49
Q

If the pharmacist feels a certain laboratory test is needed to determine blood level of a resident, the physician is involved but:

  1. signed stats are not required
  2. the test can be ordered only by DON
  3. the test can be ordered only by the attending physician
  4. neither the DON nor the physician must agree with the pharmacist
A

neither the DON nor the physician must agree with the pharmacist

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50
Q

Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical records. The abbreviation p.r.n means:

  1. performed
  2. every hour
  3. as prescribed
  4. when needed
A

when needed

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51
Q

The person who has most contact with the resident should be properly trained in the area of communication and that person is usually the:

  1. activity director
  2. director of nursing
  3. certified nurse aide
  4. supervisor of housekeeping
A

certified nurse aide

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52
Q

The primary purpose of a rehabilitation program is to help residents:

  1. live life to their fullest potential
  2. improve so they can be dismissed
  3. return to their former level of functioning
  4. improve and be able to handle all their activities of daily living
A

live life to their fullest potential

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53
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that contractual rehabilitation specialists are fully qualified to perform services?

  1. The administrator
  2. The state surveyors
  3. The medical director
  4. The director of nursing
A

The administrator

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54
Q

A physiatrist:

  1. deals with mental illness
  2. works primarily with athletes
  3. provides physical training programs
  4. works with physical and occupational therapists
A

works with physical and occupational therapists

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55
Q

ROM means:

  1. preventive therapy
  2. the immobility of joints
  3. release of muscle tension
  4. the extent of movement of a joint
A

the extent of movement of a joint

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56
Q

Heat and hydrotherapy are used primarily by:

  1. speech therapists
  2. physical therapists
  3. respiratory therapists
  4. occupational therapists
A

physical therapists

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57
Q

Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to:

  1. menus
  2. exercises
  3. nursing modalities
  4. treatment to be provided only by a therapist
A

exercises

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58
Q

Every new employee must complete the I-99 form within:

  1. 3 business days after hiring
  2. 5 business days after hiring
  3. 7 business days after hiring
  4. 10 business days after hiring
A

3 business days after hiring

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59
Q

An administrator using the “open door” policy of communication will be :

  1. better able to communicate with staff at all levels
  2. familiar with every detail of the operation of the nursing facility
  3. getting a true picture of the strengths and weaknesses of the organization
  4. dealing with too much detail and destroying lines of communication and authority
A

dealing with too much detail and destroying lines of communication and authority

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60
Q

All of the following are essential elements of counseling except:

  1. listening
  2. being personal
  3. being non-judgemental
  4. avoidance of criticism
A

being personal

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61
Q

On-the-job training and in-service training are two common types of teaching techniques used in facilities. Which of the following best lends itself to on-the-job training?

  1. Policies
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Proper bed making
  4. accident prevention
A

proper bed making

62
Q

If a certified nurse aide has a grievance, the final step in the grievance procedure will usually be the:

  1. administrator
  2. charge nurse
  3. resident council
  4. director of nursing
A

administrator

63
Q

Which of the following topics is not required but may be recommended as an annual in-service training program?

  1. Confidentiality
  2. Resident rights
  3. Infection control
  4. Accident prevention
A

Confidentiality

64
Q

In helping staff to understand resident needs and resident care, administrators often run into stereotyped attitudes on the part of employees. They say “Well, you know how old folks are,” as if they were all the same. To combat this attitude the administrator should:

  1. prepare clear and specific step-by step procedures that will prevent stereotyped attitudes
  2. create a better screening program with new employees so that people with stereotyped attitude are not hired
  3. accept the fact that aged people often are difficult to work with and not worry about these employee attitudes
  4. organize an on-going in-service training program that teaches all employees to individualize residents and to try to meet individual needs
A

organize an on-going in-service training program that teaches all employees to individualize residents and to try to meet individual needs

65
Q

The best method used to obtain information regarding a potential employee is the:

  1. resume
  2. interview
  3. application
  4. reference letters
A

interview

66
Q

A facility may hire a non-certified nurses’ aide for a period not greater than:

  1. one month
  2. three months
  3. four months
  4. six months
A

four months

67
Q

Of the following, which is considered the best type of recruiting practice?

  1. Job posting
  2. Newspaper ads
  3. Employment agencies
  4. State Department of Employment
A

job posting

68
Q

Which statement is one of the most important principles in the delegation of authority and one that should guide administrators in their work?

  1. Keep all authority
  2. Personally confirm all decision
  3. Delegate as much authority as is effective
  4. Make certain all administrative details are cleared through the administrator
A

Delegates as much authority as is effective

69
Q

During a performance appraisal, the supervisor or administrator should:

  1. bring up new factors
  2. select negative incidents
  3. use broad generalizations
  4. state well-defined job expectations
A

state well-defined job expectations

70
Q

What is the average daily absentee rate for a facility with a total of 120 full-time employees per day and 144 lost workdays or absences during a 60-day period?

  1. 1.9
  2. 2.0
  3. 4.4.
  4. 5.0
A

2.0

71
Q

Coordination deals primarily with:

  1. unifying the efforts of people
  2. formulating overall objectives
  3. recognizing needed authority
  4. directing factors in human relations
A

unifying the efforts of people

72
Q

The use of labor pool can many times:

  1. increase profit
  2. increase morale
  3. improve working conditions
  4. decrease continuity of care
A

decrease continuity of care

73
Q

Sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when:

  1. such action occurs only during working hours
  2. the sexual advance, request, or action results in dating
  3. such action includes any references to a woman’s appearance such as hair style and clothing
  4. submission to such conduct is made a term or condition of employment or continued employment
A

submission to such conduct is made a term or condition of employment or continued employment

74
Q

The results of all investigations regarding abuse must be reported to the administrator or his representative and the administrator must ensure that it is reported to the proper state authority within:

  1. 24 hours
  2. 48 hours
  3. 5 days
  4. 5 working days
A

5 working days

75
Q 
OBRA requires that all certified nurse aides annually receive in-service training of at least :
1. 6 hours
2 .10 hours
3. 12 hours
4. 15 hours
A

12 hours

76
Q

Facilities must report to OSHA any work-related death or when three or more employees are hospitalized within:

  1. 8 hours or the occurrence
  2. 24 hours of the occurrence
  3. 36 hours upon completion of an internal investigation
  4. 5 days upon completion of an internal investigation
A

8 hours or the occurrence

77
Q

Under OSHA, accidents and illnesses do not have to be reported if:

  1. they do not result in death
  2. hospitalization is not required
  3. they do not result in work time lost
  4. they are not chronic illnesses caused by ingestion
A

they do not result in work time lost

78
Q

Which of the following is usually not a revenue center?

  1. Social service
  2. DIetary services
  3. Nursing services
  4. Barber/beauty shop
A

Social services

79
Q

Which of the following is a non-cash expense?

  1. FICA
  2. Payroll
  3. Insurance
  4. Depreciation
A

Depreciation

80
Q

Which one of the following would be generally considered an operating expense?

  1. Purchase of a computer
  2. Weekend ertime wages
  3. Cost of paving the parking lot
  4. Wall partitions installed in resident areas
A

Weekend overtime wages

81
Q

Sound financial management dictates that approving the annual facility budget is the responsibility of the:

  1. CPA
  2. administrator
  3. stockholders
  4. governing body
A

governing body

82
Q

Which of the following is a payroll tax?

  1. Social Security
  2. Workers’ compensation
  3. State unemployment insurance
  4. Federal unemployment insurance
A

Social Security

83
Q

The most effective area to reduce and control costs in food service concerns:

  1. menus
  2. food storage
  3. food purchasing
  4. resident choices
A

menus

84
Q

The primary purpose for maintaining an operating budget is to:

  1. determine profit or loss
  2. record income and expenses
  3. establish reimbursement rates
  4. provide a method of ongoing study and control
A

provide a method of ongoing study and control

85
Q

Financial statements are needed to determine if the business is meeting its primary financial goals of:

  1. income
  2. capital gains
  3. debt reduction
  4. profitability and solvency
A

profitability and solvency

86
Q

Department heads should be involved in the budget process and the administrator should ask them to:

  1. provide a maximum figure on materials and supplies based on 100% occupancy
  2. review the materials and supplies normally used and estimate what will be needed next year
  3. prepare a breakdown of materials and supplies normally used so the administrator can develop the budget
  4. review the materials and supplies normally used and determine the minimum which could be utilized next year
A

review the materials and supplies normally used and estimate what will be needed next year

87
Q

The primary value of financial management is to provide adequate accounting information enabling the administrator to:

  1. make decisions
  2. prepare tax return
  3. inform the home office
  4. discuss financial information with the CPA
A

make decisions

88
Q

Federal regulations oversee staffing patterns for nursing homes. WHich of the following is a Federal mandate?

  1. RN coverage on the day tour duty
  2. Sufficient staff who provide direct competency and skill sets
  3. A Registered Dietitian either full time or part time
  4. Social Workers must have at least a bachelor’s degree in social services
A

Sufficient staff who provide direct competency and skill sets

89
Q

The primary purpose of perpetual inventory is to:

  1. increase assets
  2. eliminate loss through theft
  3. reflect costs based upon actual usage
  4. reduce cost because of mass purchasing
A

reflect costs based upon actual usage

90
Q

The terms FIFO and LIFO refer to:

  1. depreciation schedules
  2. inventory valuing methods
  3. the aging of accounts payable
  4. the aging of accounts receivable
A

inventory valuing methods

91
Q

Liquidity refers to the:

  1. distribution of profit
  2. assets of a corporation
  3. solvency of a corporation
  4. ability to convert assets into cash
A

ability to convert assets into cash

92
Q

A facility purchased a piece of equipment at a cost of $40,000. However, the equipment will reduce operating cost, including salary and supplies, by at least $7,000 per year. What is the pay back period?

  1. 2.80 years
  2. 5.71 years
  3. 7.00 years
  4. 17.50 years
A

5.71 years

93
Q

Cash in excess of that required in the near future should be properly invested in short-term investments as:

  1. mutual funds
  2. blue chip stock
  3. money markets
  4. municipal bonds
A

money markets

94
Q

The cash flow is only valid:

  1. for a given operation
  2. for a specific time period
  3. at the end of each month
  4. at the end of the fiscal year
A

for a specific time period

95
Q

When salaries are listed by departments they usually do not included:

  1. FICA
  2. FUTA
  3. payroll tax
  4. health insurance
A

health insurance

96
Q

Accounts payable, accounts receivable, and general are all examples of:

  1. ledgers
  2. fund accounts
  3. noncurrent assets
  4. accounting systems
A

ledgers

97
Q

Hazardous areas must be protected by fire barriers with a fire resistance rating of one hour or a completely automated extinguishing system. Which of the following would usually not be considered a hazardous area?

  1. Laundry
  2. Dining room
  3. Handicraft shop
  4. Employee locker areas
A

Dining room

98
Q

The CDC requires nursing home employees to use Alcohol Based Hand Rub(ABHR) to properly clean their hands. Which of the following is not an exception to the CDC requirement.

  1. Dietary employees preparing meals
  2. Providing routine care to a resident
  3. Caring for a patient suffering with C-dif
  4. When visible soil is on one’s hands
A

Providing routine care to a resident

99
Q

In a nursing facility situation, the most effective means of preventing the spread of infection is:

  1. hand hygiene
  2. proper waste disposal
  3. the use of disinfectants
  4. the identification of the infective organism
A

hand hygiene

100
Q

Work orders should be simple written requests indicating:

  1. the problem and its location
  2. when the work is to be accomplished
  3. the time and money needed to solve the problem
  4. who will correct the situation and when it will be corrected
A

the problem and its location

101
Q

According to OBRA, a facility must be capable of providing a comfortable indoor temperature within the range of:

  1. 70 to 80 degrees Fahrenheit
  2. 71 to 81 degrees Fahrenheit
  3. 72 to 82 degrees Fahrenheit
  4. 74 to 83 degrees Fahrenheit
A

71 to 81 degrees Fahrenheit

102
Q

The minimum square footage per person of a room excludes all of the following except:

  1. a bed
  2. a toliet
  3. the clostes
  4. a wardrobe
A

a bed

103
Q

Under OBRA, the responsibilities of the safety committee may be assigned to the :

  1. compliance committee
  2. resident rights committee
  3. infection control committee
  4. quality improvement committee
A

quality improvement committee

104
Q

The minimum amount of square footage in a private room with one single bed is:

  1. 80 square feet
  2. 100 square feet
  3. 120 square feet
  4. 150 square feet
A

100 square feet

105
Q

Nursing home buildings must adhere to Federal Life Safety Codes with exceptions. One of those exceptions is when the :

  1. building meets ADAAG and ANSI requirements
  2. building is located in an area where disasters are most unlikely
  3. building was built prior to the implementation of the Life Safe Code
  4. renovations to the building to bring it into compliance create an undue financial hardship on the owners
A

building was built prior to the implementation of the Life Safety Code

106
Q

What is the primary reason to have a good preventive maintenance program?

  1. To reduce energy consumption
  2. To extend useful life of equipment
  3. To save time and money by preventing major breakdowns
  4. To ensure all equipment is safe and operable for resident care
A

To ensure all equipment is safe and operable for resident care

107
Q

Under OSHA, the hazards of each product are determined by the:

  1. employer
  2. employee
  3. distributor
  4. manufacturer
A

manufacturer

108
Q

The designated parking space for the handicapped must be on a hard surface and at least:

  1. 10 feet wide
  2. 13 feet wide
  3. 15 feet wide
  4. 16 feet wide
A

13 feet wide

109
Q

The fire rating of building materials is established by:

  1. ANSI
  2. OSHA
  3. the state
  4. the Life Safety Code
A

the Life Safety Code

110
Q

According to the Hazardous Communication Program, which of the following is not required to be included on all container labels?

  1. An appropriate warning
  2. The identity of the product
  3. The antidote to use if consumed
  4. The name and address of the manufacturer
A

The antidote to use if consumed

111
Q

In planning for disasters, as hurricanes, fires, chemical spills, etc., what is the first thing you would consider in determining what to plan for?

  1. Evacuation routes
  2. Number of residents
  3. Evacuation destination site
  4. Location of the nursing home
A

Evacuation destination site

112
Q

The standards for an isolation room do not include:

  1. a private toilet
  2. single occupancy
  3. a bathtub or shower
  4. hand-washing facilities
A

a bathtub or shower

113
Q

The lighted display board that indicates the affected zone or area in case of fire is called:

  1. a fire control panel
  2. an enunciator panel
  3. a multiple fire-alarm panel
  4. an emergency indicator coard
A

an enunciator panel

114
Q 
The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act empowers FDA to seek penalties against violators of:
1. SMDA
2. EEOC
3. OSHA
4, OBRA
A

SMDA

115
Q

The National Fire Protection Association does not:

  1. publish codes
  2. provide research
  3. establish standards
  4. enforce life safety standards
A

enforce life safety standards

116
Q

Nationally the monitoring and enforcement of ANSI standards is the responsibility of:

  1. EEOC
  2. OBRA
  3. Life Safety Code
  4. an agency within the state
A

an agency within the state

117
Q

All deaths resulting from a medical must be reported to the:

  1. Food and Drug Administration
  2. American National Standards Institute
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
  4. the Life Safety Code, Product Surveillance Division
A

Food and Drug Administration

118
Q

The travel distance between Class B or C fire extinguishers cannot be more than:

  1. 50 feet
  2. 75 feet
  3. 100 feet
  4. 150 feet
A

50 feet

119
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)?

  1. Forcing managers to plan
  2. Eliminating feedback control
  3. Concentrating on critical activities
  4. Taking possible action at the right place and time
A

Eliminating feedback control

120
Q

A major duty of the governing body is to establish:

  1. a clear statement of the facility’s mission
  2. measurable goals for each unit of the facility
  3. specific guidelines for management of facility
  4. means of determining efficiency of management actions
A

a clear statement of the facility’s mission

121
Q

According to OSHA, the color for safety and first aid is:

  1. red
  2. white
  3. green
  4. bright orange
A

green

122
Q

Policies are plans that guide or channel thinking and they must:

  1. pinpoint costs before a project is under taken
  2. allow considerable flexibility in decision making
  3. be specific and authoritative guides to specific action
  4. outline the step-by-step guides by which a task is performed
A

allow considerable flexibility in decision making

123
Q

Rules restrict thinking so they should be developed and used:

  1. when an employee is a trouble maker
  2. when an employee is not to use discretion
  3. only after all employees have agreed to abide by them
  4. only ass they relate to maintaining the health of the residents
A

when an employee is not to use discretion

124
Q

Which of the following is not a leadership style?

  1. Paternal
  2. Directional
  3. Democratic
  4. Laissez-faire
A

Directional

125
Q

Supervisors best attain the desired goals by:

  1. taking the lead
  2. appointing committees
  3. appointing sub-supervisors
  4. developing a chain of command
A

taking the lead

126
Q

The ultimate mission of a nursing home is:

  1. showing a profit
  2. keeping cost down
  3. keeping census high
  4. providing quality care
A

providing quality care

127
Q

Managing a nursing home starts with:

  1. leadership
  2. the owners
  3. adequate funds
  4. sources for obtaining residents
A

leadaership

128
Q

Making beds is normally a housekeeping activity but usually assigned to nursing service on the basis of :

  1. cost
  2. history
  3. intimate association
  4. federal government ruling
A

intimate association

129
Q

Long-range goals are those to be attained in:

  1. one year
  2. two years
  3. several months
  4. three or more years
A

three or more years

130
Q

Good leaders:

  1. are nonemotional
  2. are almost always good listeners
  3. are judgmental in regard to discipline
  4. feel that highly qualified staff is more important than their own knowledge base
A

are almost always good listeners

131
Q

Which of the following statements regarding bylaws is not true? Bylaws contain rules and regulations on the:
1. staffing of each department
2. purpose, mission, or goals of the corporation
3, overall financial management of the corporation
4. corporate membership including active, associate, and shareholders

A

staffing of each department

132
Q

The managerial function of influencing usually in :

  1. initiating action
  2. reducing morale
  3. increasing salaries
  4. increasing job security
A

initiating action

133
Q

A nursing home administrator who involves his/her staff in as much decision making as possible and keeps them informed on organizational issues that affect their work is using what leadership style?

  1. Paternal
  2. Autocratic
  3. Democratic
  4. Laissez-faire
A

Democratic

134
Q

Practicing a micro-management technique refers to:

  1. utilizing supervisors in every department
  2. giving attention to the smallest of details
  3. knowing each employee and his/her background
  4. demanding overly strict time schedules and written reports
A

demanding overly strict time schedules and written reports

135
Q

Primary departmentalization is done according to the basic functions of all organizations. Which one of the following is not basic organizational function?

  1. Customer Service
  2. Finance
  3. Information Technology
  4. Maintenance
A

Maintenance

136
Q

Surveys are conducted annually and on an unannounced basis. What type of survey occurs when there is a change of ownership, management, or director of nursing?

  1. Standard survey
  2. Extended survey
  3. Partial extended survey
  4. Abbreviated standard survey
A

Abbreviated standard survey

137
Q

The establishment of the position of long-term care ombudsman was provided by:

  1. OBRA
  2. Medicaid
  3. Medicare
  4. the Older Americans Act 1965
A

the Older Americans Act of 1965

138
Q

If there is a significant change in the resident’s physical, mental or psychosocial status, the facility must immediately notify all of the following except the:

  1. resident
  2. physician
  3. ombudsman
  4. resident’s legal representative, if known
A

ombudsman

139
Q

Before a resident is transferred, a written notice is required specifying all of the following except:

  1. the right to refuse the transfer
  2. the location to which the resident is transferred
  3. a statement that the resident has the resident has the right to appeal the action to the state
  4. the name, address, and telephone number of the state nursing home association
A

the name, address, and telephone number of the state nursing home association

140
Q

Any event or process that can lead to actions which result directly or indirectly in economic losses or damage to the facility is defined as:

  1. a risk
  2. a suit
  3. a claim
  4. an accident
A

a risk

141
Q

Who mandates that policies in a nursing home must be approved by the governing board?

  1. ACA
  2. EEOC
  3. OBRA
  4. OSHA
A

OBRA

142
Q

Resource Utilization Groups (RUGS) is a :

  1. case mix index
  2. grouping of revenue sources
  3. resident classification system
  4. method of grouping income from Medicaid and Medicare
A

resident classification system

143
Q

During a recent survey, a nursing home received a deficiency with a scope and severity rating of G. What level deficiency is this considered?

  1. level 1
  2. level 2
  3. level 3
  4. level 4
A

Level 3

144
Q

Mandatory surveys are conducted to determine if a nursing home is in compliance with CFR requirements. How often is a survey conducted?

  1. Every 90 days
  2. Routinely twice a year
  3. Whenever complaints are filed
  4. Annually within 15 months form the previous survey
A

Annually within 15 moths from the previous survey

145
Q

What requirement must a facility meet to participate in Medicare and Medicaid?

  1. A social worker on staff
  2. Disclosure of a facility ownership
  3. A facility occupancy of 80% or higher
  4. The facility must have at least 60-beds
A

Disclosure of facility ownership

146
Q

All of the following are primary purposes of the ombudsman program except:

  1. investigating a decision made by a provider
  2. making frequent, unannounced surveys of the facility
  3. investigating and resolving complaints made by or on behalf of residents in facilities
  4. providing counseling services to the residents and assisting them in receiving all benefits needed and available
A

making frequent, unannounced surveys of the facility

147
Q

Which of the following may be the most effective advertising medium in regards to reaching the largest number of interested consumers?

  1. Facility newsletter
  2. Website with virtual tour
  3. Ad in a local church newsletter
  4. Commerical on local radio channel
A

Website with virtual tour

148
Q

An effective marketing campaign should create:

  1. immediate cash flow
  2. a strong relationship with the local hospital
  3. an improvement in the physical attractiveness of the facility
  4. a favorable image, visibility and exposure in the community
A

a favorable image, visibility, and exposure in the community

149
Q

To be successful, the tour of a facility by potential residents should be:

  1. as short as possible
  2. planned and involve staff members
  3. scheduled for groups in order to save time
  4. very comprehensive and include the entire premises
A

planned and involve staff members

150
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a successful marketing plan is not true?

  1. a marketing plan should be flexible and workable
  2. Developing a marketing plan is a democratic process
  3. A marketing plan should be clear, detailed, and precise
  4. Creating a marketing plan communicates the facility’s mission and focus
A

Developing a marketing plan is a democratic process

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