nab Flashcards

1
Q

A physical restraint must be removed from the resident at least:

  1. as requested
  2. every 2 hours
  3. twice per shift
  4. every 30 ins
A

every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The term “incontinent” is used to describe a condition which:

  1. prevents urination
  2. requires the appointment of a legal guardian
  3. causes a person to lose control of excretory functions
  4. renders a person incapable of handling activities of daily living
A

causes a person to lose control of excretory functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The most significant aspect of resident care is :

  1. education of the staff
  2. appearance and dress of staff
  3. the attitude toward the residents
  4. experience in dealing with the elderly
A

the attitude toward the residents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With regard to the staffing for nursing services, which of the following is required?

  1. The individual State sets a minimum staffing ratio
  2. Facilities must have on-site RN coverage 24hours per day, 7 days per week
  3. Facilities must have, at minimum, 2 nurses on duty at all times
  4. Facilities must have sufficient staff with appropriate competencies and skill sets
A

Facilities must have sufficient staff with appropriate competencies and skill sets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Healthcare Association Infections (HAI) are infections associated with:

  1. institutionalization
  2. food and beverages
  3. sexual transmission
  4. post-surgical condtitions
A

institutionalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Assume that 90 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s physician to be administered in a given time period. However, 3 doses ordered were not given and 1 dose was incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was the medication error rate?

  1. 1.8 percent
  2. 3.0 percent
  3. 4.0 percent
  4. 4.4 percent
A

4.4 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The facility may transfer or discharge a resident from the facility for any of the following reasons except:

  1. resident’s needs cannot be met.
  2. resident no longer requires the services
  3. resident has failed to pay for a stay in the facility
  4. Legal guardian appointed by the court refuses the discharge
A

legal guardian appointed by the court refuses the discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A discharge plan must be developed for residents in the facility. Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. Discharge planning begins upon admission and is usually initiated by the social worker
  2. The discharge summary recapitulates the resident’s stay which describes the resident’s course of treatment while residing in the facility
  3. A summary must be completed with a reconciliation of all pre-discharge medications as well as the resident’s post-discharge medications, both prescribed and over-the-counter
  4. Discharge plans and accompanying summaries must be completed and signed by the primary care physician within three days of discharge.
A

Discharge plans and accompanying summaries must be completed and signed by the primary care physician within three days of discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During a review of the wound care protocols in the nursing home, the Director of Nursing and the treatment nurse determine that they should re-educate the staff on the causes of pressure sores. Which of the following is not considered a primary reason for a resident to suffer from a skin breakdown?

  1. Dehydration
  2. malnourishment
  3. poor positioning
  4. Protein Supplements
A

Protein Supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Social workers in a nursing facility may provide all of the following services except:

  1. counseling
  2. psychiatric therapy
  3. utilization of community resources
  4. services provided by the interdisciplinary team
A

psychiatric therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Social work has been defined as a problem-solving process geared to helping people help themselves. The problem most likely to affect residents as they are faced with nursing facility placement is :

  1. the fear of death
  2. the loss of social identity
  3. anxiety related to the unknown
  4. the loss of the sense of self-respect
A

anxiety related to the unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The administrator and every employee in a nursing facility must be aware and knowledgeable of resident’s rights. In a 140-bed facility the initial explanation of the resident rights to the resident and family is usually the responsibility of the :

  1. social worker
  2. 2.licensed nurse
  3. activity director
  4. nursing facility administrator
A

social worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Regarding advanced directives, which of the following statements is false?

  1. All residents must be informed of their rights
  2. A facility must have written policies and procedures
  3. At admission a facility must require signed advanced directives
  4. A facility is not required to provide care that may conflict with an advanced directive
A

At admission a facility must require signed advanced directives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Counseling, group activities, and social functions appear to be productive therapeutic techniques for depressed residents, Of the following, which sign would be least displayed by depressed residents?

  1. Sadness
  2. Weight gain
  3. Loss of interest in people
  4. A sense that a great effort is needed to perform activities
A

Weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a resident is declared mentally incompetent in a court of law, the rights of the resident are usually assigned to the :

  1. facility
  2. children
  3. legally responsible party
  4. Designated Ombudsman
A

legally responsible party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Often residents complain about almost everything and a trained social worker should counsel this type of resident in an effort to:

  1. resolve the complaint
  2. dismiss the complaint
  3. explain that there is no problem
  4. explain that everyone has these problems
A

resolve the complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

OBRA envisions that the function of several previously free-standing committees can now be included in the quality assessment and assurance committee. Which of the following would remain a free-standing committee?

  1. Ethics
  2. Safety
  3. Pharmaceutical
  4. Infection control
A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What therapy treatment tends to work best with severely demented residents?

  1. Drug therapy
  2. Music therapy
  3. Physical therapy
  4. Validation therapy
A

Validation therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All menus must be approved by:

  1. the medical director
  2. a registered dietitian
  3. the director of nursing
  4. the food service director
A

a registered dietitian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hot food must leave the kitchen at a temperature of at least:

  1. 110 degrees Fahrenheit
  2. 120 degrees Fahrenheit
  3. 130 degrees Fahrenheit
  4. 135 degrees Fahrenheit
A

135 degrees Fahrenheit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weighed 180 pounds and now weighs 171 pounds is:

  1. 1.9 percent
  2. 2.0 percent
    1. percent
  3. 9.0 percent
A

1.9 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a facility has 100 residents and it requires preparation time of 12 labor minutes per meal, how many labor hours are required per week?

  1. 500 hours
  2. 420 hours
  3. 360 hours
  4. 240 hours
A

420 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The maximum number of hours allowed between serving the evening meal and breakfast the following day is:

  1. 12 hours
  2. 13 hours
  3. 14 hours
  4. 15 hours
A

14 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following statements is not true in regard to food safety in the nursing home?

  1. The maximum length of time food can be left on the steam table is 4 hours.
  2. Chicken and fish must be cooked to a temperature of 155 degrees F and hamburger meat to 145 degrees F
  3. When cooking raw animal foods in the microwave, all parts of the food should be heated to a temperature of at least 165 degrees F.
  4. Food items that were cooked and cooled and then reheated must be reheated to an internal temperature of 165 degrees F for 15 seconds
A

Chicken and fish must be cooked to a temperature of 155 degrees F and hamburger meat to 145 degrees F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The primary purpose of encouraging all able-bodied residents to eat in the dining room is to:

  1. provide socialization
  2. allow time for housekeepers to clean resident rooms
  3. reduce the cost of transporting food to the resident rooms
  4. allow the food service director to observe the amount of food eaten by each resident
A

provide socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the nursing home’s obligation to its resident’s dental services?

  1. The facility may charge a Medicare resident an additional cost for routine and emergency dental services
  2. If the resident requests, the facility must arrange for transportation to and from the dental service location.
  3. A resident with lost or damaged dentures must be referred for dental services within 3 days after discovery of the condition
  4. Per facility policy, the facility may charge the resident for lost or damaged dentures in all cases
A

Per facility policy, the facility may charge the resident for lost or damaged dentures in all cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following personnel is not required to be a member of the quality assessment and assurance committee?

  1. Medical Director
  2. Director of Nursing
  3. Infection Preventionist
  4. Nursing Home Administrator
A

Nursing Home Administrator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A resident with a hearing loss should be referred:

  1. an otologist
  2. a pathologist
  3. a neurologist
  4. an ophthalmologist
A

an otologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following physicians may not serve as the resident’s attending physician?

  1. Internist
  2. Podiatrist
  3. Oncologist
  4. Family practitioner
A

Podiatrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Under OBRA, the regulations for a skilled-nursing facility (SNF) require that residents must be seen by a physician every 30 days during the first 90 days after admission and thereafter:

  1. once every 30 days
  2. once every 60 days
  3. once every 90 days
  4. only as deemed necessary
A

once every 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A resident who is suffering from a kidney ailment is likely to be referred to which of the following specialists?

  1. Oncologist
  2. Proctologist
  3. Nephrologist
  4. Hematologist
A

Nephrologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

St. Barbara’s Nursing and Rehabilitation Center admits an 86-year old resident. Upon his admission, the Director of Nursing finds the resident has a terminable disease and a prognosis of less than six months to live. The Director of Nursing may consider engaging which of the following outside services to provide services for this resident?

  1. Hospice Care
  2. Palliative
  3. Ministerial Care
  4. Physical Therapy
A

Hospice Care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The use of calendars, clocks, and signs is an integral part of a program of:

  1. virtual reality
  2. reality orientation
  3. facility orientation
  4. experience education
A

reality orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Determining the success of an activity program can be very difficult, yet one determination may be an increase in:

  1. expenses
  2. the number of participants
  3. the number of types of programs
  4. then number of family members involved in the programs
A

the number of participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Residents are most easily encouraged to participate in those activities which are:

  1. very simple
  2. provide income
  3. personally satisfying
  4. shared with relatives
A

personally satisfying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In addition to volunteers, the community has many resources that can be utilized for education, transportation, security, and training. The department that uses many other resources than those listed is the:

  1. activity department
  2. nursing department
  3. maintenance department
  4. housekeeping department
A

activity department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The goal for activities should be focused on:

  1. development of skills
  2. completion of the tasks
  3. activities of daily living
  4. participation and enjoyment
A

participation and enjoyment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The nursing home administrator’s major role in the activity program should be to:

  1. visit, observe, and support
  2. organize a volunteer program
  3. ensure residents participate in all programs
  4. encourage all family members to support the activity department
A

visit, observe, and support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Medical records belong to the:

  1. facility
  2. resident
  3. physician
  4. administrator
A

facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The first steps in implementing information-security programs for computer-based and paper records are to:

  1. physically control the access to the system by using fingerprints and voiceprints
  2. develop and enforce standards and safeguards to ensure the protection of resident records
  3. restrict any employee from reviewing any record except the nurses and medical record librarian
  4. document all users and require each to sign on and off each time an entry is made or when the record is reviewed
A

develop and enforce standards and safeguards to ensure the protection of resident records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Federal regulations require that the medical records of a resident contain all of the following except the resident’s:

  1. progress note
  2. asssessments
  3. plan of care
  4. Medicare and/or Medicaid qualifications
A

Medicare and/or Medicaid qualifications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The primary purpose of medical records is to:

  1. follow physician orders
  2. meet state and federal laws
  3. provide for continuity of care
  4. provide for legal documentation
A

provide continuity of care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

During an annual survey there will be an in-depth review of closed records. How many records must be reviewed for a facility with 120 beds?

  1. 2 charts
  2. 5 charts
  3. 10 charts
  4. 16 charts
A

2 charts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The primary value of systematically organizing medical record forms is for:

  1. variety
  2. appearance
  3. accessibility
  4. reduction of eye strain
A

accessibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

An assessment of resident’s condition results in:

  1. an evaluation of the past
  2. a description of the current status
  3. a forecast of what is expected to occur
  4. a decision regarding action to be taken
A

a description of what is expected to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Nursing homes are required to complete a comprehensive, standardized assessment on each resident for the purpose of enabling the staff to develop a plan of care that allows the resident to reach his fullest health potentials. For nursing homes that participate in Medicare, the assessment tool used is the:

  1. RAI
  2. RAPS
  3. RAVEN
  4. MDS 3.0
A

MDS 3.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Standard pharmacy and medication procedures for storage require that none of the following should be stored in the drug room except:

  1. outdated drugs
  2. deteriorated drugs
  3. discontinued drugs
  4. drugs for external use
A

drugs for external use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Standard medical practice requires that medication orders may be written or oral. However, if oral, they cannot be given to:

  1. the ward clerk
  2. the pharmacist
  3. a licensed nurse
  4. another physician
A

the ward clerk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following drugs reduces pain?

  1. Antidote
  2. Antitoxin
  3. Antibiotic
  4. Analgesic
A

Analgesic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

If a pharmacy delivers a medication with a marred label:

  1. the empty container should be returned to the pharmacist
  2. the nurse should call the pharmacist and request new labels
  3. the medication and container must be returned to pharmacy
  4. only the DON can replace the label with the pharmacist’s approval
A

the medication and container must b returned to pharmacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed at least once a month by;

  1. the medical director
  2. the director of nursing
  3. a licensed pharmacist
  4. the attending physician
A

a licensed pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Prescription drugs can be administered by al of the following except a:

  1. registered nurse
  2. nurse practitioner
  3. certified nursing aide
  4. licensed practical nurse
A

certified nursing aide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Many employees in a nursing home assist the resident in the activities of daily living (ADL’s), particularly those ADL’s that utilize the upper and lower extremities, however such rehabilitation is primarily the responsibility of :

  1. nurses
  2. physicians
  3. rehabilitation aides
  4. occupational therapists
A

occupational therapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ambulate means to:

  1. walk
  2. inject
  3. reduce
  4. increase
A

walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Under the Americans With Disabilities Act, persons are not disabled if they:

  1. cannot read due to dyslexia
  2. have never learned how to read
  3. need a cane for balance when walking.
  4. limp because a broken leg did not heal properly
A

have never learned how to read

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Federal law requires that all specialized rehabilitative services:

  1. must be conducted in-house
  2. be limited to physical therapy
  3. must be prescribed by a licensed physician
  4. must be recommended by the Director of Nursing
A

must be prescribed by a licensed physician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The therapist’s work is not fully accomplished unless the staff:

  1. has been properly trained
  2. can be increased to provide assisted services
  3. is involved in the process of helping the resident
  4. as a whole has been trained to continue the therapy without the therapist
A

is involved in the process of helping the resident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In a health care facility, an important aspect of communication which is often overlooked is:

  1. timing
  2. filtering
  3. commitment
  4. confidentiality
A

confidentiality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Written communication is preferred over oral communication when the information:

  1. has a specific time limit
  2. requires no interpretation
  3. requires immediate feedback
  4. must pass through several levels of management
A

must pass through several levels of management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

As all administrators should know, the most effective form of communication is:

  1. written
  2. face-to-face
  3. posters and signs
  4. telephone conversations
A

face-to-face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

To stimulate participation, discussion and obtain feedback, a productive nursing facility administrator would use:

  1. bulletins
  2. group meetings
  3. the chain of command
  4. intra departmental memos
A

group meetings

62
Q

During the interview of a job applicant, administrators may ask questions regarding:

  1. pervious job experiences
  2. physical and health problems
  3. the ownership of a house or car
  4. number of children and martial status
A

previous job experiences

63
Q

During one year a 100-bed facility with 90 employees experienced 25 resignations and had to discharge 10 employees. What was the annual employee turnover rate?

  1. 35 percent
  2. 39 percent
  3. 41 percent
  4. 45 percent
A

39 percent

64
Q

The major problem with on-the-job in a nursing home is:

  1. the transfer of learning to the specific job
  2. the day-to-day time demands made on the trainers
  3. that employees cannot learn needed skills from their peers
  4. that learning by doing is not as effective as learning by other methods
A

the day-to-day time demands made on the trainers

65
Q

The primary function of human resource management is:

  1. staffing
  2. planning
  3. directing
  4. organizing
A

staffing

66
Q

The primary purpose of a job description for each employee is to:

  1. establish job procedures
  2. establish a work schedule
  3. standardize job performance
  4. outline the duties of each job
A

outline the duties of each job

67
Q

The best source of new employees is usually through:

  1. employment agencies
  2. newspaper advertisements
  3. state unemployment offices
  4. referrals from current employees
A

referrals from current employees

68
Q

Relationships between departments and employees and the lines of authority are best explained using:

  1. policies
  2. procedures
  3. a chart of accounts
  4. an organizational chart
A

an organizational chart

69
Q

When dealing with employees, supervisors contribute most effectively to good morale in their department when they:

  1. permit only self-discipline
  2. discipline consistently and fairly
  3. arrange salary increases at regular intervals
  4. make a point of having coffee with the employees
A

discipline consistently and fairly

70
Q

When an employee makes an error or requires discipline, he or she should be corrected:

  1. at a staff meeting
  2. immediately and in private
  3. off the job on the employee’s time
  4. only after the matter has become serious
A

immediately and in private

71
Q

Usually a garnishment directs an employer to withhold a designated portion of an employee’s pay and :

  1. forward it to a creditor
  2. hold it until the debt is paid in full
  3. deposit it at a designated federal bank
  4. remit it to the proper government agency
A

remit it to the proper government agency

72
Q

All of the following are objectives of performance evaluations except:

  1. giving employees feedback about work performance
  2. directing employee efforts toward organizational goals
  3. providing a basis for managers to use in deciding promotions
  4. following and meeting all requirements of the corporate policies and procedures
A

following and meeting all requirements of the corporate policies and procedures

73
Q

Which of the following is required by the Fair Labor Standard’s Act?

  1. Holiday pay
  2. Vacation pay
  3. Overtime pay
  4. Sick leave pay
A

Overtime pay

74
Q

If a non-exempt employee works 52 hours in a one-week period at a rate of $10.00 per hour, what would be the total gross salary for that employee?

  1. $390.00
  2. $460.00
  3. $520.00
  4. $580.00
A

$580.00

75
Q

Fringe benefits are usually outlined in the :

  1. job analysis
  2. job descriptions
  3. personnel policies
  4. procedure manuals
A

personnel policies

76
Q

Most employee accidents are caused by either unsafe working conditions or:

  1. behaviors
  2. lack of training
  3. faulty equipment
  4. misuse of equipment
A

behavior

77
Q

All deaths or injuries resulting from a medical device must be reported to the FDA no later than:

  1. 5 working days after the incident
  2. 10 working days after the incident
  3. 15 working days after incident
  4. 30 working days after the incident
A

10 working days after the incident

78
Q

The balance sheet included many entries that are summarized from the ledger and profit and loss reports, assets equal:

  1. net worth
  2. liabilities and depreciation
  3. net worth minus depreciation
  4. liabilities and stockholder’s equity
A

liabilities and stockholders’ equity

79
Q

Why should the facility nursing home administrator secure information on budget needs from each department head?

  1. It will encourage supervisors to stay within the budget of their own department
  2. Budget awareness ensures department heads will spend no more than budgeted
  3. The administrator can more easily hold supervisors responsible for expenditures
  4. It provides more cooperation in the use of a budget if supervisors help determine the amounts designated in the budget
A

It will encourage supervisors to stay within the budget of their own department

80
Q

A nursing facility has a gross income of $486,000 with fixed expenses of $ 300,000 and variable expenses of $150,000. What is the approximate percentage of gross profit?

  1. 6.0 percent
  2. 6.2 percent
  3. 7.0 percent
  4. 7.4 percent
A

7.4 percent

81
Q

Nonoperating revenues would include all of the following except:

  1. donations
  2. loan payments
  3. interest income
  4. borrowed funds
A

loan payments

82
Q

Accelerated depreciation schedules compared to straight-line depreciation schedules:

  1. are for a longer period of time
  2. do not consider any salvage time
  3. are limited according to the cost of the item to depreciated
  4. depreciate higher percentages of the original cost of the item during the earlier years of the asset’s useful life
A

depreciate higher percentages of the original cost of the item during the earlier years of the assets’s useful life

83
Q

Assets appear on the:

  1. budget
  2. balance sheet
  3. cash flow statement
  4. profit and loss statement
A

balance sheet

84
Q

The primary purpose of internal control is to:

  1. evaluate performance and efficiency
  2. ensure compliance with policies and procedures
  3. protect and safeguard assets against theft and waste
  4. ensure accurate and reliable data for accounting reports
A

protect and safeguard assets against theft and waste

85
Q

Which of the following terms does not relate to inventory?

  1. FIFO
  2. Posting
  3. Physical
  4. Perpetual
A

Posting

86
Q

Liquidity is the ability of current assets to:

  1. increase net worth
  2. loan out money as an investment
  3. meet the financial obligation of current liabilities
  4. estimate the monetary value of good reputation
A

meet the financial obligation of current liabilities

87
Q

If a 150-bed facility averages 90% occupancy, and during a 30-day month has total expenses of $202,500, what is the average cost per resident per day?

  1. $48.50
  2. $50.00
  3. $ 53.00
  4. $55.00
A

$50.00

88
Q

If a facility has 150 beds and during a 30-day period they have 4,200 occupied bed days. What is their average percentage of occupancy?

  1. 89 percent
  2. 90 percent
  3. 93 percent
  4. 95 percent
A

93 percent

89
Q

The Safe harbor regulations prohibit:

  1. a facility purchasing from any supplier with common ownership
  2. ownership, in excess of 40 percent, of a hospital by a physician
  3. extra payments for services or items reimbursed under Medicare or Medicaid
  4. nursing facility providers investing only in publicly traded companies with an asset value of at least $50,000,000.
A

extra payments for services or items reimbursed under Medicare or Medicaid

90
Q

FUTA refers to:

  1. I-9 form
  2. Social Sercuity
  3. an unemployment tax
  4. worker’s compensation
A

an unemployment tax

91
Q

A current trial balance usually included all of the following except:

  1. debits
  2. credits
  3. zero balances
  4. names of accounts
A

zero balances

92
Q

To determine the capability to meet short-term cash needs, an administrator would use the:

  1. trial balance
  2. balance sheet
  3. cash flow statement
  4. profit and loss statement
A

cash flow statement

93
Q

The balance sheet is a financial statement which, on a given date, summarizes the:

  1. assets, liabilities, and net worth
  2. cash, accounts receivable, and equipment
  3. revenues, expenses, cost of goods and services sold
  4. accounts receivable, accounts payabe, and net worth
A

assets, liabilities and net worth

94
Q

In financial management, control refers to the development and maintenance of systematic ways to:

  1. reduce cost
  2. increase income
  3. identify problems when they occur
  4. control expenses relative to revenue
A

identify problems when they occur

95
Q

Annual audits are necessary to:

  1. verify budgets
  2. calculate new worth
  3. establish depreciation schedules
  4. verify the accuracy of financial records
A

verify the accuracy of financial records

96
Q

Cash flow is the cash receipts:

  1. less liabilities
  2. plus assets minus liabilities
  3. less the cash disbursement
  4. plus assets minus expenditures
A

less cash disbursement

97
Q

Waste management is monitored by:

  1. CMS
  2. ANSI
  3. EEOC
  4. OSHA
A

OSHA

98
Q

Standard Precautions were developed by:

  1. CDC
  2. ANSI
  3. OBRA
  4. OSHA
A

CDC

99
Q

regarding Airborne Infection Isolation Rooms (AIIR), which of the following statements is true?

  1. The room must have a private bath
  2. The room must be vented directly to the inside
  3. The door to the room must be kept closed
  4. A red linen barrel must be placed outside the AIIR door
A

The door to the room must be kept closed

100
Q

OSHA requires that nursing homes oost the OSHA 300A form in a conspicuous place each year. These forms must be:

  1. posted monthly and kept on file for 2 years
  2. posted each February and kept on file for 5 years
  3. posted each February and a copy submitted to OSHA
  4. posted from February 1 through April 30 and kept on file for 5 years
A

posted from February 1 through April 30 and kept on file for 5 years

101
Q

An organized maintenance program that will save time and money emphasizes:

  1. adequate inventory
  2. maintenance contracts
  3. preventive maintenance
  4. employing competent personnel
A

preventive maintenance

102
Q

The purpose of an enunciator panel is to:

  1. control odor
  2. control temperature
  3. indicate the zone of a fire
  4. indicate general hall lights
A

indicate the zone of a fire

103
Q

Work orders should include al of the following except:

  1. the location
  2. the problem
  3. an authorized signature
  4. the equipment needed to complete the job
A

the equipment needed to complete the job

104
Q

Maintenance engineers maintain that a guideline to keep in mind is that the maintenance cost of a machine justifies replacement in:

  1. three years
  2. five years
  3. seven years
  4. ten years
A

ten years

105
Q

OBRA mandates that nursing home rooms be provided with adequate furnishing for each resident with the exception of:

  1. a dresser
  2. over-bed tables
  3. a comfortable chair
  4. a clean, comfortable mattress
A

over-bed tables

106
Q

Lighting, temperatures, and sound levels relate primarily to:

  1. safety
  2. comfort
  3. treatment
  4. cleanliness
A

comfort

107
Q

Safety training programs for the employees must be conducted:

  1. weekly
  2. monthly
  3. quarterly
  4. immediately after being hired
A

immediately after being hired

108
Q

The primary fire-defensive tools of a nursing home are:

  1. sprinklers and alarm pulls
  2. smoke detectors and direct telephone lines
  3. smoke barriers, corridor walls, and resident doors
  4. internal fire-fighting equipment such as hoses and extinguishers
A

smoke barriers, corridor walls, and resident doors

109
Q

The “employee’s right to know” relates to:

  1. resident rights
  2. hepatitis B virus
  3. universal precautions
  4. hazardous communications
A

hazardous communications

110
Q

The term lockout and tagout refer to:

  1. controlling hazardous energy
  2. the Safe Medical Device Act
  3. methods of identifying chemicals
  4. techniques used to separate residents
A

controlling hazardous energy

111
Q

Security has become increasingly important to long-term care facilities. For a small-to-average-size facility, which of the following may not be feasible?

  1. Conducting active shooter drills
  2. Locking all outside entrance doors at night
  3. Developing relationships with the local police and fire departments
  4. Employing around-the-clock security officers
A

Employing around-the-clock security officers

112
Q

Pest control programs are allowed to use:

  1. open traps
  2. sticky flypaper
  3. pump-up type sprayers
  4. above ground poison baits
A

pump-up type sprayers

113
Q

Safety Data Sheets are required by:

  1. ANSI
  2. SMDA
  3. OBRA
  4. OSHA
A

OSHA

114
Q

In case of fire, the primary purpose of closing doors is to:

  1. contain the fire
  2. contain the smoke
  3. prevent residents from entering the danger area.
  4. indicate that the residents have been removed from the area
A

contain the smoke

115
Q

According to the National Fire Protection Association, the number one cause of fires in nursing homes is:

  1. grease fires in the kitchen
  2. extension cord use by residents
  3. unclean lint traps in the laundry
  4. the improper handling of smoking materials
A

grease fires in the kitchen

116
Q

The term “flashover” refers to a fire that:

  1. has started
  2. is out of control
  3. has been put out
  4. results from gasoline
A

is out of control

117
Q

Emergency generators must be checked:

  1. daily
  2. weekly
  3. every 10 days
  4. monthly
A

weekly

118
Q

The number of disaster drills is determined by the:

  1. Life Safety Code
  2. facility in accordance to state requirements
  3. facility in accordance to federal requirements
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
A

facility in accordance to state requirements

119
Q

In a patient room in which oxygen is being used, “ No Smoking” is considered a :

  1. law
  2. rule
  3. policy
  4. statement
A

rule

120
Q

Which of the following service is covered by both Part A and Part B of the Medicare health insurance program?

  1. Hearing aides
  2. Home health visits
  3. Physical check ups
  4. Private duty nurses
A

Home health visits

121
Q

For those sustaining a hip fracture, which of the following factors does not relate to death caused by falls?

  1. The bone strength
  2. the distance fallen
  3. The use of protective devices
  4. The amount of body fat and padding
A

The amount of body fat and padding

122
Q

Which of the following specifics an amount to be paid to hospitals based on diagnostic-related groups?

  1. OBRA
  2. Medicaid
  3. Medicare
  4. The state
A

Medicare

123
Q

A totally private-pay nursing home must be:

  1. certified
  2. licensed
  3. Medicaid approved
  4. Medicare approved
A

licensed

124
Q

Under the doctrine of respondent superior, when an employee commits a wrongful act within the scope of his/her employment:

  1. only the facility may be held liable
  2. only the employee may be held liable
  3. both the facility and the employee may be held liable
  4. neither the facility nor the employee may be held liable
A

only the facility may be held liable

125
Q

A facility must give written notice to the state Medicaid agency when any change occurs in any of the following except:

  1. ownership
  2. the administrator
  3. the census ratios
  4. the director of nursing
A

the census ratios

126
Q

A simple definition of strategic planning is:

  1. long-range budget planning
  2. marketing and public relations
  3. the utilization and allocation of resources
  4. preparing or future eventualities and uncertainties
A

preparing for future eventualities and uncertainties

127
Q

An administrator must be willing to:

  1. be able to perform all tasks
  2. prevent all possible mistakes
  3. be able to answer all requests
  4. be held accountable for mistakes
A

be held accountable for mistakes

128
Q

One of the major mistakes a “rookie” administrator makes is they:

  1. overmanage
  2. undermanage
  3. micro-manage
  4. manage people
A

overmanage

129
Q

Policies are plans in the form of general statements which guide or channel:

  1. action
  2. staffing
  3. thinking
  4. production
A

thinking

130
Q

Leadership starts with:

  1. support
  2. visibility
  3. isolation
  4. adequate staff
A

visibility

131
Q

Procedures should be prepared by:

  1. supervisors
  2. the home office
  3. the administrator
  4. the governing body
A

supervisors

132
Q

Every rule should be:

  1. approved by the president
  2. created by the administrator
  3. prepared by the governing body
  4. associated with some form of discipline
A

associated with some form of discipline

133
Q

The term echelons refers to:

  1. leadership
  2. management styles
  3. levels of management
  4. micro-management techniques
A

levels of management

134
Q

If the wrong medication is given to a resident by an employee, the facility would be covered by:

  1. malpractice insurance
  2. product liability insurance
  3. contractual liability insurance
  4. personal injury liability insurance
A

malpractice insurance

135
Q

General liability insurance on a facility provides the owner with protection against:

  1. accidents to residents and families
  2. claims made by employees while on the job
  3. claims not exempted under charitable immunity
  4. nonoccupational personal injuries sustained on the property of the facility
A

nonoccupational personal injuries sustained on the property of the facility

136
Q

The two most important risk management tools are education and:

  1. insurance
  2. quality control
  3. documentation
  4. accident reports
A

quality

137
Q

Which of the following sets forth the standards to protect a residents medical records and other health information that may be provided to doctors, hospitals, and nursing homes?

  1. CMS
  2. OSHA
  3. OBRA
  4. HIPPA
A

HIPPA

138
Q

The resident, family, and/or responsible party should all participate in care planning, especially in the:

  1. implementation of care plans
  2. development of all care plans
  3. evaluation of the care planning process
  4. first meeting of the resident assessment
A

first meeting of the resident assessment

139
Q

In a nursing home, Total Quality Management is an approach that:

  1. builds strong leadership skills for management
  2. allows no room for employees to question the rules
  3. builds employee inter-relationships through work teams
  4. creates a direct line of communication with ownership
A

builds employee inter-relationships through work teams

140
Q

In nondirective counseling, the counselor:

  1. works only as a member of a team
  2. tries to lead the counselee toward a predetermined action
  3. advises and persuades the counselee to follow a plan of action
  4. guide the counselee to discover the best action for himself/herself
A

guides the counselee to discover the best action for himself/herself

141
Q

Which of the following is the major need of the aging?

  1. Privacy
  2. Relationships
  3. Independence
  4. A reason for being
A

A reason for being

142
Q

Which of the following treatment plans uses the social environment itself as treatment?

  1. Milieu therapy
  2. Re-socialization
  3. Attitude therapy
  4. Reality orientation
A

Milieu therapy

143
Q

Nursing facility administrators need to be aware of the field of sexuality in the aged because:

  1. residents may still have an interest in sex even though they have outlived their spouses
  2. the need for closeness, affection, and intimacy usually continues unabated throughout life
  3. there may be some married couples in the facility and regulations require that privacy be provided for them
  4. residents may need to become more involved in various programs to divert their attention from sexual matters
A

the need for closeness, affection, and intimacy usually continues unabated throughout life

144
Q

The state survey process for nursing facilities is currently:

  1. outcome oriented
  2. used to monitor management
  3. a checklist guide to compliance
  4. focused upon policies and procedures
A

outcome oriented

145
Q

What type of leadership or management allows administrators to involve their supervisors and staff in joint efforts to determine the best way to perform taks?

  1. democratic
  2. participative
  3. Micro-management
  4. departmentalization
A

participative

146
Q

The concept of community relations is to:

  1. inform the community
  2. ensure high occupancy rates
  3. replace public relation programs and marketing
  4. involve the facility and the community in an inter-relationship
A

involve the facility and the community in an inter-relationship

147
Q

Public relations is:

  1. advertising
  2. a program designed to meet the consumers’ needs
  3. the process of selling services to meet the needs of the public
  4. the management of communication between the facility and the public
A

the management of communication between the facility and the public

148
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a successful marketing plan is not true?

  1. a marketing plan should be flexible and workable
  2. Developing a marketing plan is a democratic process
  3. A marketing plan should be clear, detailed, and precise
  4. Creating a marketing plan communicates the facility’s mission adn focus
A

developing a marketing plan is a democratic process

149
Q

Which of the following marketing efforts is perhaps the least effective to increase occupancy?

  1. Advertisement
  2. Word of mouth
  3. Physicians recommendations
  4. Discharge planners from hospitals
A

Advertisement

150
Q

One of the best ways for nursing facilities to attain an effective public relations program is to:

  1. avoid making statements to news reporters
  2. support community interests that support the facility
  3. print a monthly newsletter and distribute to the community
  4. strengthen the bond between the facility and community and involve the two in an interrelationship
A

strengthen the bonds between the facility and community and involve the two in an interrelationship