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Question 1

Which one of the following psychological factors is normally not a problem with aging?

1. Paranoia
2. Depression
3. Self-actualization
4. Feelings of worthlessness

Answer 1

Self-actualization

Question 2

Which of the following statements concerning the needs of the elderly is false?

1. Sexuality drastically reduces with age
2. Relationships are needed to combat loneliness
3. The need for closeness is never lost by most of the elderly
4. Independence to do their “own thing” is very important to the elderly

Answer 2

Sexuality drastically reduces with age

Question 3

To assure that the resident’s assessment is accurate and reflects the resident’s current status, the nursing facility must update the assessment as deemed appropriate, but no less than once every:

1. month
2. two months
3. three months
4. six months

Answer 3

thee months

Question 4

Discharge planning for a resident should be initiated when the resident is:

1. admitted
2. completing the rehabilitation and visitors
3. re-evaluated at the first quarterly staffing
4. first evaluated by the utilization review committee

Answer 4

first evaluated by the utilization review committee

Question 5

Which of the following would be most likely to increase the number of infections in a nursing facility?

1. The frequent use of the invasive devices
2. The exposure to employees and visitors
3. The presence of multiple chronic diseases
4. The increase of incidents of immobility and incontinence

Answer 5

The exposure to employees and visitors

Question 6

Assume that 130 doses of medication were prescribed by the resident’s physician to be administered in a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered were not given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was the medication error rate?

1. 1.5 percent
2. 2.3 percent
3. 3.8 percent
4. 5.0 percent

Answer 6

3.8 percent

Question 7

The term bedfast means that, except to be moved for treatment, a resident has been confined in bed all of the time during the past:

1. 24 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 5 days
4. 7 days

Answer 7

7 days

Question 8

The legal vehicles used to control nursing activities are termed:

1. federal statutes
2. nursing practice acts
3. practice control acts
4. professional function laws

Answer 8

nurse practice acts

Question 9

After a comprehensive assessment has been made, comprehensive care plans must be completed within:

1. 5 days
2. 7 days
3. 10 days
4. 14 days

Answer 9

7 days

Question 10

Falls are a major cause of patient injuries in nursing homes. When developing a Fall Prevention Program, which of the following is least likely to be considered a common cause of falls within the facility?

1. Extensive physical therapy causing the resident to tire more easily, thus increasing the probability of falls
2. Family bringing in furniture that is too large for the size of the room, thus creating barriers for safe ambulation
3. A resident who has a medical diagnosis of osteoporosis and suffers a level of dementia which prohibits safety awareness
4. Residents who have just finished a large meal, which may result in a lowering the blood pressure when the resident stands up

Answer 10

Extensive physical therapy causing the resident to tire more easily, thus increasing the probability of falls

Question 11

Many nursing home residents are afflicted with diabetes mellitus. A diabetic produces insufficient amounts of insulin or is unable to properly utilize it. Which of the following organs is responsible for the production of insulin?

1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Thyroid
4. Pancreas

Answer 11

Pancreas

Question 12

A new resident is continually making accusations that his roommate’s pet rats are scaring him. He is afraid of rats and does not want to stay in the room any longer. Upon an exhaustive investigation it is determined that there are no rats in the room. It is also found that the new resident is on a medication that is causing him to be:

1. looney
2. paranoid
3. delusional
4. hallucinating

Answer 12

hallucinating

Question 13

A legal document that specifies a person’s preference concerning life-sustaining treatment is referred to as a:

1. living will
2. statutory will
3. holographic will
4. power of attorney

Answer 13

living will

Question 14

A testator is one who:

1. is an executrix
2. dies leaving a will
3. is an executor of an estate
4. has been appointed as a legal guardian

Answer 14

dies leaving a will

Question 15

When a resident is angry, it is best to:

1. ignore him/her
2. correct him/her immediately
3. let him/her express the anger
4. refer the resident to a physician

Answer 15

let him/her express the anger

Question 16

The social worker in a long-term care facility is primarily concerned with:

1. counseling the residents and families regarding their personal problems
2. reducing the resident’s problems of orientation during admission to the facility
3. representing the resident’s interests on the resident evaluation or utilization review committee
4. developing an in-depth relationship with the resident to maintain an accurate and current social record

Answer 16

developing an in-depth relationship with the resident to maintain an accurate and current social record

Question 17

Resident councils allow:

1. input into staffing requirements
2. the opportunity to change the resident’s rights
3. residents a sense of some control of their lives and desires
4. involvement in the administration and management of the facility

Answer 17

residents a sense of some control of their lives and desires

Question 18

Procedures and directives concerning resident privacy and dignity would not include:

1. the use of curtains around the bed
2. knocking before entering the room
3. assuming the resident is fully clothed
4. remembering that the resident’s beliefs or concepts or privacy and dignity may differ from that of the employee

Answer 18

assuming the resident is fully clothed

Question 19

The new administrator and the Director of Nursing are charged with updating the facility’s policies concerning advanced directives. In order to ensure that advance directive policies protect the residents’ rights and at the same time enable the staff to provide reasonable care with respect and dignity to the resident, the administrator and DON decide to delegate the task of updating the policies to which of the following committees?

1. Ethics committee
2. Safety committee
3. Utilization Review Committee
4. Quality Improvement Committee

Answer 19

Ethics committee

Question 20

The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weighed 150 pounds and now weights 142 pounds is:

1. 2.9 percent
2. 5.3 percent
3. 7.5 percent
4. 8.0 percent

Answer 20

5.3 percent

Question 21

The dietary department is required to maintain various adaptive feeding equipment to assist the resident in eating. However, training needed for utilization of the equipment is usually provided by:

1. nurses
2. the activity department
3. occupational therapists
4. certified nursing assistants

Answer 21

occupational therapists

Question 22

The Restful Acres Nursing Home is licensed for 135 beds and has an occupancy of 120 residents. In a 30-day month, $21,600.00 is spent on raw food items. What is the per resident day cost?

1. $5.25 per day’
2. $5.50 per day
3. $6.00 per day
4. $6.24 per day

Answer 22

$6.00 per day

Question 23

If a facility has 90 residents and it requires preparation time of 12 labor minutes per meal, how many labor house are required per week?

1. 350 hours
2. 378 hours
3. 420 hours
4. 540 hours

Answer 23

378 hours

Question 24

When developing a nutrition-risk protocol, the provider should:

1. rely totally on the orders given by the medical director
2. refer the matter to the ethics committee for final decision
3. include guidelines on weight-tracking and weight-loss interventions
4. not become involved since this is a legal matter and the facility may have a financial interest

Answer 24

include guidelines on weight-tracking and weight-loss interventions

Question 25

To manually clean utensils, a three-compartment sink is needed to wash, rinse, and: 1. dry utensils 2. scrape utensils 3. sanitize utensils 4. rinse utensils a second time

Answer 25

sanitize utensils

Question 26

A nursing home resident is considered a polypharmacy patient if he is: 1.prescribed 9 or more medications daily, including vitamins 2. prescribed 4 or more medications, two of which may be contraindicated 3. prescribed 9 or more medications, one of which must be an antipsychotic 4, prescribed 6 or more medications, one of which must be an antipsychotic

Answer 26

prescribed 4 or more medications, two of which may be contraindicated

Question 27

The sum of all activities which create the desired and needed changes in quality care is the definition of: 1. quality control 2. quality of assurance 3. quality improvement 4. quality measurement

Answer 27

quality improvement

Question 28

Residents in nursing homes have the right to self-administer their medications. However, who must ultimately determine whether or not the resident can safely do so? 1. Pharmacist 2. Director of Nursing 3. Interdisciplinary team 4. Facility Medical DIrector

Answer 28

Interdisciplinary team

Question 29

Incontinence means: 1. urinary infection 2. loss of mental capabilities 3. inflammation of the muscles 4. involuntary passage of urine and/or feces

Answer 29

involuntary passage of urine and/or feces

Question 30

An oncologist is a specialist in the area of: 1. hearing 2. mental illness 3. blood conditions 4. cancer and malignant diseases

Answer 30

cancer and malignant diseases

Question 31

If an administrator becomes aware of a noticeable deterioration in a resident's condition, the administrator's most appropriate action would be to: 1. discuss the change with the attending physician 2. enter the observations in the resident's medical record 3. require the nurse to report further changes to administrator 4. request the nurse to evaluate the resident's overall condition and report it to the physician if necessary

Answer 31

request the nurse to evaluate the resident's overall condition and report it to the physician if necessary

Question 32

According to OBRA regulations, the resident's physician is required to visit the resident and conduct all of the following except: 1. sign and date all orders 2. review all consultant reports 3. write, sign, and date progress notes 4. review all medication and treatment

Answer 32

review all consultant reports

Question 33

If dental work is planned for a resident, the facility should be aware of the impact on any of the following except: 1. artificial hip(s) 2. heart valve 3. kidney conditions 4. knee replacements

Answer 33

kidney conditions

Question 34

The evaluation of the activity program should be aimed at : 1. the variety of activities available 2. the number of residents participating 3. creating a balance of crafts and games 4. meeting the needs and desires of all residents

Answer 34

meeting the needs and desires of all residents

Question 35

Activities need not: 1. provide stimulation or solace 2. involve useful service to the facility 3. promote physical, cognitive and emotional health 4. enhance the mental and physical status of the resident

Answer 35

involve useful service to the facility

Question 36

Resident activities should not be designed to emphasize: 1. social contacts 2. creative expression 3. spiritual gratification 4. the finished product

Answer 36

the finished product

Question 37

The policies and procedures for activity programs should also include: 1. volunteers 2. family members 3. other employees 4. physical therapists

Answer 37

volunteers

Question 38

In addition to their services to the residents in the facility, volunteers should be recognized for their: 1. financial support 2. work which reduces salary cost 3. participation in the quality assessment program 4. strengthening of the bond between the facility and the community

Answer 38

strengthening of the bond between the facility and the community

Question 39

When only posters and mounted calendars are utilized for various activity programs, which of the following is the major communication problem? 1. residents forget the dates and times of activities 2. the amount of information is inadequate 3. the signage is not printed in the residents language 4. signs may not be seen by the residents who are wheelchair and/or bedbound

Answer 39

signs may not be seen by the residents who are wheelchair and/or bedbound

Question 40

Sometimes, when the staff thinks of medical records, only the resident's chart is considered to confidential. In reality there are other records that may also be considered confidential. Which of the following would not normally be considered confidential? 1. Audios 2. Videos 3. Computer information 4. Activity attendance records

Answer 40

Activity attendance records

Question 41

If a resident requests to see his or her chart and medical records but there is a letter from the physician indicating that the records cannot be given to the resident or the family, the facility should: 1. first call the physician 2. refuse the resident's request 3. make copies for the resident and the family 4. according to resident's rights give them to the resident

Answer 41

first call physician

Question 42

According to federal law, medical records must be maintained for at least: 1. 5 years after admission 2. 7 years after admission 3. 7 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation 4. 5 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation

Answer 42

5 years after discharge in absence of a state regulation

Question 43

Surveyors are usually less concerned with how often information is gathered than: 1. recommendations 2. who charts the information 3. when information is charted 4. sufficient progress information

Answer 43

sufficient progress information

Question 44

A comprehensive MDS assessment for a private pay or Medicaid resident must be completed no later than: 1. 14 days of admission 2. 10 days of admission 3. 7 days of admission 4. 5 days of admission

Answer 44

14 days of admission

Question 45

Drug interaction means that: 1. a combination of the drugs becomes fatal 2. the drug does not achieve the desired results 3. the resident's system counteracts the intent of the drug 4. two or more drugs taken simultaneously can produce unwanted effect

Answer 45

two or more drugs taken simultaneously can produce unwanted effect

Question 46

All of the following goals should be addressed for residents who use antipsychotic drugs except: 1. drug holidays 2. drug elimination 3. gradual dose reduction 4. behavioral programming

Answer 46

drug elimination

Question 47

All residents' drug regimens must be reviewed at least monthly by the : 1. pharmacist 2. medical director 3. director of nursing 4. attending physician

Answer 47

pharmacist

Question 48

The physician's Desk Reference relates to: 1. drugs 2. DRGS 3. diagnoses 4. prognoses

Answer 48

drugs

Question 49

If the pharmacist feels a certain laboratory test is needed to determine blood level of a resident, the physician is involved but: 1. signed stats are not required 2. the test can be ordered only by DON 3. the test can be ordered only by the attending physician 4. neither the DON nor the physician must agree with the pharmacist

Answer 49

neither the DON nor the physician must agree with the pharmacist

Question 50

Abbreviations are used by nurses in completing charts and other medical records. The abbreviation p.r.n means: 1. performed 2. every hour 3. as prescribed 4. when needed

Answer 50

when needed

Question 51

The person who has most contact with the resident should be properly trained in the area of communication and that person is usually the: 1. activity director 2. director of nursing 3. certified nurse aide 4. supervisor of housekeeping

Answer 51

certified nurse aide

Question 52

The primary purpose of a rehabilitation program is to help residents: 1. live life to their fullest potential 2. improve so they can be dismissed 3. return to their former level of functioning 4. improve and be able to handle all their activities of daily living

Answer 52

live life to their fullest potential

Question 53

Who is responsible for ensuring that contractual rehabilitation specialists are fully qualified to perform services? 1. The administrator 2. The state surveyors 3. The medical director 4. The director of nursing

Answer 53

The administrator

Question 54

A physiatrist: 1. deals with mental illness 2. works primarily with athletes 3. provides physical training programs 4. works with physical and occupational therapists

Answer 54

works with physical and occupational therapists

Question 55

ROM means: 1. preventive therapy 2. the immobility of joints 3. release of muscle tension 4. the extent of movement of a joint

Answer 55

the extent of movement of a joint

Question 56

Heat and hydrotherapy are used primarily by: 1. speech therapists 2. physical therapists 3. respiratory therapists 4. occupational therapists

Answer 56

physical therapists

Question 57

Flexion, rotation, abduction, and adduction are all terms referring to: 1. menus 2. exercises 3. nursing modalities 4. treatment to be provided only by a therapist

Answer 57

exercises

Question 58

Every new employee must complete the I-99 form within: 1. 3 business days after hiring 2. 5 business days after hiring 3. 7 business days after hiring 4. 10 business days after hiring

Answer 58

3 business days after hiring

Question 59

An administrator using the "open door" policy of communication will be : 1. better able to communicate with staff at all levels 2. familiar with every detail of the operation of the nursing facility 3. getting a true picture of the strengths and weaknesses of the organization 4. dealing with too much detail and destroying lines of communication and authority

Answer 59

dealing with too much detail and destroying lines of communication and authority

Question 60

All of the following are essential elements of counseling except: 1. listening 2. being personal 3. being non-judgemental 4. avoidance of criticism

Answer 60

being personal

Question 61

On-the-job training and in-service training are two common types of teaching techniques used in facilities. Which of the following best lends itself to on-the-job training? 1. Policies 2. Confidentiality 3. Proper bed making 4. accident prevention

Answer 61

proper bed making

Question 62

If a certified nurse aide has a grievance, the final step in the grievance procedure will usually be the: 1. administrator 2. charge nurse 3. resident council 4. director of nursing

Answer 62

administrator

Question 63

Which of the following topics is not required but may be recommended as an annual in-service training program? 1. Confidentiality 2. Resident rights 3. Infection control 4. Accident prevention

Answer 63

Confidentiality

Question 64

In helping staff to understand resident needs and resident care, administrators often run into stereotyped attitudes on the part of employees. They say "Well, you know how old folks are," as if they were all the same. To combat this attitude the administrator should: 1. prepare clear and specific step-by step procedures that will prevent stereotyped attitudes 2. create a better screening program with new employees so that people with stereotyped attitude are not hired 3. accept the fact that aged people often are difficult to work with and not worry about these employee attitudes 4. organize an on-going in-service training program that teaches all employees to individualize residents and to try to meet individual needs

Answer 64

organize an on-going in-service training program that teaches all employees to individualize residents and to try to meet individual needs

Question 65

The best method used to obtain information regarding a potential employee is the: 1. resume 2. interview 3. application 4. reference letters

Answer 65

interview

Question 66

A facility may hire a non-certified nurses' aide for a period not greater than: 1. one month 2. three months 3. four months 4. six months

Answer 66

four months

Question 67

Of the following, which is considered the best type of recruiting practice? 1. Job posting 2. Newspaper ads 3. Employment agencies 4. State Department of Employment

Answer 67

job posting

Question 68

Which statement is one of the most important principles in the delegation of authority and one that should guide administrators in their work? 1. Keep all authority 2. Personally confirm all decision 3. Delegate as much authority as is effective 4. Make certain all administrative details are cleared through the administrator

Answer 68

Delegates as much authority as is effective

Question 69

During a performance appraisal, the supervisor or administrator should: 1. bring up new factors 2. select negative incidents 3. use broad generalizations 4. state well-defined job expectations

Answer 69

state well-defined job expectations

Question 70

What is the average daily absentee rate for a facility with a total of 120 full-time employees per day and 144 lost workdays or absences during a 60-day period? 1. 1.9 2. 2.0 3. 4.4. 4. 5.0

Answer 70

2.0

Question 71

Coordination deals primarily with: 1. unifying the efforts of people 2. formulating overall objectives 3. recognizing needed authority 4. directing factors in human relations

Answer 71

unifying the efforts of people

Question 72

The use of labor pool can many times: 1. increase profit 2. increase morale 3. improve working conditions 4. decrease continuity of care

Answer 72

decrease continuity of care

Question 73

Sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature constitute sexual harassment when: 1. such action occurs only during working hours 2. the sexual advance, request, or action results in dating 3. such action includes any references to a woman's appearance such as hair style and clothing 4. submission to such conduct is made a term or condition of employment or continued employment

Answer 73

submission to such conduct is made a term or condition of employment or continued employment

Question 74

The results of all investigations regarding abuse must be reported to the administrator or his representative and the administrator must ensure that it is reported to the proper state authority within: 1. 24 hours 2. 48 hours 3. 5 days 4. 5 working days

Answer 74

5 working days

Question 75

``` OBRA requires that all certified nurse aides annually receive in-service training of at least : 1. 6 hours 2 .10 hours 3. 12 hours 4. 15 hours ```

Answer 75

12 hours

Question 76

Facilities must report to OSHA any work-related death or when three or more employees are hospitalized within: 1. 8 hours or the occurrence 2. 24 hours of the occurrence 3. 36 hours upon completion of an internal investigation 4. 5 days upon completion of an internal investigation

Answer 76

8 hours or the occurrence

Question 77

Under OSHA, accidents and illnesses do not have to be reported if: 1. they do not result in death 2. hospitalization is not required 3. they do not result in work time lost 4. they are not chronic illnesses caused by ingestion

Answer 77

they do not result in work time lost

Question 78

Which of the following is usually not a revenue center? 1. Social service 2. DIetary services 3. Nursing services 4. Barber/beauty shop

Answer 78

Social services

Question 79

Which of the following is a non-cash expense? 1. FICA 2. Payroll 3. Insurance 4. Depreciation

Answer 79

Depreciation

Question 80

Which one of the following would be generally considered an operating expense? 1. Purchase of a computer 2. Weekend ertime wages 3. Cost of paving the parking lot 4. Wall partitions installed in resident areas

Answer 80

Weekend overtime wages

Question 81

Sound financial management dictates that approving the annual facility budget is the responsibility of the: 1. CPA 2. administrator 3. stockholders 4. governing body

Answer 81

governing body

Question 82

Which of the following is a payroll tax? 1. Social Security 2. Workers' compensation 3. State unemployment insurance 4. Federal unemployment insurance

Answer 82

Social Security

Question 83

The most effective area to reduce and control costs in food service concerns: 1. menus 2. food storage 3. food purchasing 4. resident choices

Answer 83

menus

Question 84

The primary purpose for maintaining an operating budget is to: 1. determine profit or loss 2. record income and expenses 3. establish reimbursement rates 4. provide a method of ongoing study and control

Answer 84

provide a method of ongoing study and control

Question 85

Financial statements are needed to determine if the business is meeting its primary financial goals of: 1. income 2. capital gains 3. debt reduction 4. profitability and solvency

Answer 85

profitability and solvency

Question 86

Department heads should be involved in the budget process and the administrator should ask them to: 1. provide a maximum figure on materials and supplies based on 100% occupancy 2. review the materials and supplies normally used and estimate what will be needed next year 3. prepare a breakdown of materials and supplies normally used so the administrator can develop the budget 4. review the materials and supplies normally used and determine the minimum which could be utilized next year

Answer 86

review the materials and supplies normally used and estimate what will be needed next year

Question 87

The primary value of financial management is to provide adequate accounting information enabling the administrator to: 1. make decisions 2. prepare tax return 3. inform the home office 4. discuss financial information with the CPA

Answer 87

make decisions

Question 88

Federal regulations oversee staffing patterns for nursing homes. WHich of the following is a Federal mandate? 1. RN coverage on the day tour duty 2. Sufficient staff who provide direct competency and skill sets 3. A Registered Dietitian either full time or part time 4. Social Workers must have at least a bachelor's degree in social services

Answer 88

Sufficient staff who provide direct competency and skill sets

Question 89

The primary purpose of perpetual inventory is to: 1. increase assets 2. eliminate loss through theft 3. reflect costs based upon actual usage 4. reduce cost because of mass purchasing

Answer 89

reflect costs based upon actual usage

Question 90

The terms FIFO and LIFO refer to: 1. depreciation schedules 2. inventory valuing methods 3. the aging of accounts payable 4. the aging of accounts receivable

Answer 90

inventory valuing methods

Question 91

Liquidity refers to the: 1. distribution of profit 2. assets of a corporation 3. solvency of a corporation 4. ability to convert assets into cash

Answer 91

ability to convert assets into cash

Question 92

A facility purchased a piece of equipment at a cost of $40,000. However, the equipment will reduce operating cost, including salary and supplies, by at least $7,000 per year. What is the pay back period? 1. 2.80 years 2. 5.71 years 3. 7.00 years 4. 17.50 years

Answer 92

5.71 years

Question 93

Cash in excess of that required in the near future should be properly invested in short-term investments as: 1. mutual funds 2. blue chip stock 3. money markets 4. municipal bonds

Answer 93

money markets

Question 94

The cash flow is only valid: 1. for a given operation 2. for a specific time period 3. at the end of each month 4. at the end of the fiscal year

Answer 94

for a specific time period

Question 95

When salaries are listed by departments they usually do not included: 1. FICA 2. FUTA 3. payroll tax 4. health insurance

Answer 95

health insurance

Question 96

Accounts payable, accounts receivable, and general are all examples of: 1. ledgers 2. fund accounts 3. noncurrent assets 4. accounting systems

Answer 96

ledgers

Question 97

Hazardous areas must be protected by fire barriers with a fire resistance rating of one hour or a completely automated extinguishing system. Which of the following would usually not be considered a hazardous area? 1. Laundry 2. Dining room 3. Handicraft shop 4. Employee locker areas

Answer 97

Dining room

Question 98

The CDC requires nursing home employees to use Alcohol Based Hand Rub(ABHR) to properly clean their hands. Which of the following is not an exception to the CDC requirement. 1. Dietary employees preparing meals 2. Providing routine care to a resident 3. Caring for a patient suffering with C-dif 4. When visible soil is on one's hands

Answer 98

Providing routine care to a resident

Question 99

In a nursing facility situation, the most effective means of preventing the spread of infection is: 1. hand hygiene 2. proper waste disposal 3. the use of disinfectants 4. the identification of the infective organism

Answer 99

hand hygiene

Question 100

Work orders should be simple written requests indicating: 1. the problem and its location 2. when the work is to be accomplished 3. the time and money needed to solve the problem 4. who will correct the situation and when it will be corrected

Answer 100

the problem and its location

Question 101

According to OBRA, a facility must be capable of providing a comfortable indoor temperature within the range of: 1. 70 to 80 degrees Fahrenheit 2. 71 to 81 degrees Fahrenheit 3. 72 to 82 degrees Fahrenheit 4. 74 to 83 degrees Fahrenheit

Answer 101

71 to 81 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 102

The minimum square footage per person of a room excludes all of the following except: 1. a bed 2. a toliet 3. the clostes 4. a wardrobe

Answer 102

a bed

Question 103

Under OBRA, the responsibilities of the safety committee may be assigned to the : 1. compliance committee 2. resident rights committee 3. infection control committee 4. quality improvement committee

Answer 103

quality improvement committee

Question 104

The minimum amount of square footage in a private room with one single bed is: 1. 80 square feet 2. 100 square feet 3. 120 square feet 4. 150 square feet

Answer 104

100 square feet

Question 105

Nursing home buildings must adhere to Federal Life Safety Codes with exceptions. One of those exceptions is when the : 1. building meets ADAAG and ANSI requirements 2. building is located in an area where disasters are most unlikely 3. building was built prior to the implementation of the Life Safe Code 4. renovations to the building to bring it into compliance create an undue financial hardship on the owners

Answer 105

building was built prior to the implementation of the Life Safety Code

Question 106

What is the primary reason to have a good preventive maintenance program? 1. To reduce energy consumption 2. To extend useful life of equipment 3. To save time and money by preventing major breakdowns 4. To ensure all equipment is safe and operable for resident care

Answer 106

To ensure all equipment is safe and operable for resident care

Question 107

Under OSHA, the hazards of each product are determined by the: 1. employer 2. employee 3. distributor 4. manufacturer

Answer 107

manufacturer

Question 108

The designated parking space for the handicapped must be on a hard surface and at least: 1. 10 feet wide 2. 13 feet wide 3. 15 feet wide 4. 16 feet wide

Answer 108

13 feet wide

Question 109

The fire rating of building materials is established by: 1. ANSI 2. OSHA 3. the state 4. the Life Safety Code

Answer 109

the Life Safety Code

Question 110

According to the Hazardous Communication Program, which of the following is not required to be included on all container labels? 1. An appropriate warning 2. The identity of the product 3. The antidote to use if consumed 4. The name and address of the manufacturer

Answer 110

The antidote to use if consumed

Question 111

In planning for disasters, as hurricanes, fires, chemical spills, etc., what is the first thing you would consider in determining what to plan for? 1. Evacuation routes 2. Number of residents 3. Evacuation destination site 4. Location of the nursing home

Answer 111

Evacuation destination site

Question 112

The standards for an isolation room do not include: 1. a private toilet 2. single occupancy 3. a bathtub or shower 4. hand-washing facilities

Answer 112

a bathtub or shower

Question 113

The lighted display board that indicates the affected zone or area in case of fire is called: 1. a fire control panel 2. an enunciator panel 3. a multiple fire-alarm panel 4. an emergency indicator coard

Answer 113

an enunciator panel

Question 114

``` The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act empowers FDA to seek penalties against violators of: 1. SMDA 2. EEOC 3. OSHA 4, OBRA ```

Answer 114

SMDA

Question 115

The National Fire Protection Association does not: 1. publish codes 2. provide research 3. establish standards 4. enforce life safety standards

Answer 115

enforce life safety standards

Question 116

Nationally the monitoring and enforcement of ANSI standards is the responsibility of: 1. EEOC 2. OBRA 3. Life Safety Code 4. an agency within the state

Answer 116

an agency within the state

Question 117

All deaths resulting from a medical must be reported to the: 1. Food and Drug Administration 2. American National Standards Institute 3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration 4. the Life Safety Code, Product Surveillance Division

Answer 117

Food and Drug Administration

Question 118

The travel distance between Class B or C fire extinguishers cannot be more than: 1. 50 feet 2. 75 feet 3. 100 feet 4. 150 feet

Answer 118

50 feet

Question 119

Which of the following is not an advantage of the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)? 1. Forcing managers to plan 2. Eliminating feedback control 3. Concentrating on critical activities 4. Taking possible action at the right place and time

Answer 119

Eliminating feedback control

Question 120

A major duty of the governing body is to establish: 1. a clear statement of the facility's mission 2. measurable goals for each unit of the facility 3. specific guidelines for management of facility 4. means of determining efficiency of management actions

Answer 120

a clear statement of the facility's mission

Question 121

According to OSHA, the color for safety and first aid is: 1. red 2. white 3. green 4. bright orange

Answer 121

green

Question 122

Policies are plans that guide or channel thinking and they must: 1. pinpoint costs before a project is under taken 2. allow considerable flexibility in decision making 3. be specific and authoritative guides to specific action 4. outline the step-by-step guides by which a task is performed

Answer 122

allow considerable flexibility in decision making

Question 123

Rules restrict thinking so they should be developed and used: 1. when an employee is a trouble maker 2. when an employee is not to use discretion 3. only after all employees have agreed to abide by them 4. only ass they relate to maintaining the health of the residents

Answer 123

when an employee is not to use discretion

Question 124

Which of the following is not a leadership style? 1. Paternal 2. Directional 3. Democratic 4. Laissez-faire

Answer 124

Directional

Question 125

Supervisors best attain the desired goals by: 1. taking the lead 2. appointing committees 3. appointing sub-supervisors 4. developing a chain of command

Answer 125

taking the lead

Question 126

The ultimate mission of a nursing home is: 1. showing a profit 2. keeping cost down 3. keeping census high 4. providing quality care

Answer 126

providing quality care

Question 127

Managing a nursing home starts with: 1. leadership 2. the owners 3. adequate funds 4. sources for obtaining residents

Answer 127

leadaership

Question 128

Making beds is normally a housekeeping activity but usually assigned to nursing service on the basis of : 1. cost 2. history 3. intimate association 4. federal government ruling

Answer 128

intimate association

Question 129

Long-range goals are those to be attained in: 1. one year 2. two years 3. several months 4. three or more years

Answer 129

three or more years

Question 130

Good leaders: 1. are nonemotional 2. are almost always good listeners 3. are judgmental in regard to discipline 4. feel that highly qualified staff is more important than their own knowledge base

Answer 130

are almost always good listeners

Question 131

Which of the following statements regarding bylaws is not true? Bylaws contain rules and regulations on the: 1. staffing of each department 2. purpose, mission, or goals of the corporation 3, overall financial management of the corporation 4. corporate membership including active, associate, and shareholders

Answer 131

staffing of each department

Question 132

The managerial function of influencing usually in : 1. initiating action 2. reducing morale 3. increasing salaries 4. increasing job security

Answer 132

initiating action

Question 133

A nursing home administrator who involves his/her staff in as much decision making as possible and keeps them informed on organizational issues that affect their work is using what leadership style? 1. Paternal 2. Autocratic 3. Democratic 4. Laissez-faire

Answer 133

Democratic

Question 134

Practicing a micro-management technique refers to: 1. utilizing supervisors in every department 2. giving attention to the smallest of details 3. knowing each employee and his/her background 4. demanding overly strict time schedules and written reports

Answer 134

demanding overly strict time schedules and written reports

Question 135

Primary departmentalization is done according to the basic functions of all organizations. Which one of the following is not basic organizational function? 1. Customer Service 2. Finance 3. Information Technology 4. Maintenance

Answer 135

Maintenance

Question 136

Surveys are conducted annually and on an unannounced basis. What type of survey occurs when there is a change of ownership, management, or director of nursing? 1. Standard survey 2. Extended survey 3. Partial extended survey 4. Abbreviated standard survey

Answer 136

Abbreviated standard survey

Question 137

The establishment of the position of long-term care ombudsman was provided by: 1. OBRA 2. Medicaid 3. Medicare 4. the Older Americans Act 1965

Answer 137

the Older Americans Act of 1965

Question 138

If there is a significant change in the resident's physical, mental or psychosocial status, the facility must immediately notify all of the following except the: 1. resident 2. physician 3. ombudsman 4. resident's legal representative, if known

Answer 138

ombudsman

Question 139

Before a resident is transferred, a written notice is required specifying all of the following except: 1. the right to refuse the transfer 2. the location to which the resident is transferred 3. a statement that the resident has the resident has the right to appeal the action to the state 4. the name, address, and telephone number of the state nursing home association

Answer 139

the name, address, and telephone number of the state nursing home association

Question 140

Any event or process that can lead to actions which result directly or indirectly in economic losses or damage to the facility is defined as: 1. a risk 2. a suit 3. a claim 4. an accident

Answer 140

a risk

Question 141

Who mandates that policies in a nursing home must be approved by the governing board? 1. ACA 2. EEOC 3. OBRA 4. OSHA

Answer 141

OBRA

Question 142

Resource Utilization Groups (RUGS) is a : 1. case mix index 2. grouping of revenue sources 3. resident classification system 4. method of grouping income from Medicaid and Medicare

Answer 142

resident classification system

Question 143

During a recent survey, a nursing home received a deficiency with a scope and severity rating of G. What level deficiency is this considered? 1. level 1 2. level 2 3. level 3 4. level 4

Answer 143

Level 3

Question 144

Mandatory surveys are conducted to determine if a nursing home is in compliance with CFR requirements. How often is a survey conducted? 1. Every 90 days 2. Routinely twice a year 3. Whenever complaints are filed 4. Annually within 15 months form the previous survey

Answer 144

Annually within 15 moths from the previous survey

Question 145

What requirement must a facility meet to participate in Medicare and Medicaid? 1. A social worker on staff 2. Disclosure of a facility ownership 3. A facility occupancy of 80% or higher 4. The facility must have at least 60-beds

Answer 145

Disclosure of facility ownership

Question 146

All of the following are primary purposes of the ombudsman program except: 1. investigating a decision made by a provider 2. making frequent, unannounced surveys of the facility 3. investigating and resolving complaints made by or on behalf of residents in facilities 4. providing counseling services to the residents and assisting them in receiving all benefits needed and available

Answer 146

making frequent, unannounced surveys of the facility

Question 147

Which of the following may be the most effective advertising medium in regards to reaching the largest number of interested consumers? 1. Facility newsletter 2. Website with virtual tour 3. Ad in a local church newsletter 4. Commerical on local radio channel

Answer 147

Website with virtual tour

Question 148

An effective marketing campaign should create: 1. immediate cash flow 2. a strong relationship with the local hospital 3. an improvement in the physical attractiveness of the facility 4. a favorable image, visibility and exposure in the community

Answer 148

a favorable image, visibility, and exposure in the community

Question 149

To be successful, the tour of a facility by potential residents should be: 1. as short as possible 2. planned and involve staff members 3. scheduled for groups in order to save time 4. very comprehensive and include the entire premises

Answer 149

planned and involve staff members

Question 150

Which of the following statements regarding a successful marketing plan is not true? 1. a marketing plan should be flexible and workable 2. Developing a marketing plan is a democratic process 3. A marketing plan should be clear, detailed, and precise 4. Creating a marketing plan communicates the facility's mission and focus

Answer 150

Developing a marketing plan is a democratic process