NAB 301 - 400 Flashcards

1
Q

The CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money. Which insurance policy will cover you?

A

Officer’s and director insurance will cover a facility if a CEO is sued by shareholders for mismanaging the company and losing money

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2
Q

Physical restraints are checked every ______ and removed every _____ for ____ hour(s).

A

Physical restraints are removed every 2 hours; leave residents out of restraints for one hour; and check them every 30 minutes.

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3
Q

The loss of urine and bowel control is called ________.

A

Stress incontinence. (Incontinence is loss of urine and bowel control.)

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4
Q

When urine is accidentally released when an individual sneezes or laughs; this is called __________.

A

When urine is accidentally released when an individual sneezes or laughs; this is called stress incontinence.

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5
Q

Minimum daily nursing hours are set by _______.

A

Minimum daily nursing hours are set by the states with federal approval

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6
Q

Infections residents develop after an individual is admitted to a facility is called ______.

A

Nosocomial (from “within”) infections are infections residents develop after they are admitted to a facility (infections not developed in hospital or the home).

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7
Q

Nursing home placement causes anxiety because of ___________.

A

Nursing home placement causes anxiety because of the fear of the unknown

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8
Q

A _____ would exercise the rights of a person declared incompetent by a court.

A

A legally responsible person would exercise the rights of a person declared incompetent by a court (or court appointed guardian).

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9
Q

A resident _____ be required to sign an advance directive as a condition of admission.

A

A resident cannot be required to sign an advance directive as a condition of admission

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10
Q

An attending physician must visit residents every ____ days for the first 3 months (90 days) and then ________ thereafter.

A

Attending physician must visit resident once every 30 days for the first 3 months (90days) and then every other month thereafter (once every 60days).

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11
Q

The facility must make dental services available. The _____ is responsible to pay for such services.

A

The facility must make dental services available; The resident or famly must pay for them

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12
Q

An Otologist deals with _______.

A

An Otologist deals with hearing loss

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13
Q

What kind of activities should residents be encouraged to participate in and offered?

A

Residents are encouraged to participate in activities personally satisfying to them

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14
Q

Activities should focus on _______.

A

Activities should focus on resident enjoyment and participation

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15
Q

Reality orientation involves ______________.

A

Reality orientation involves calendars; clocks and signs

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16
Q

Assessment of a resident’s condition produces a description of their _____ status.

A

Assessment of a resident’s condition produces a description of their current status – this the MDS that requires a physical exam every 3 months.

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17
Q

_______ provides pain relief.

A

Analgesics (aspirin) provides pain relief

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18
Q

Outdated; deteriorated or discontinued drugs may or may not be stored in the drug room.

A

Outdated; deteriorated or discontinued drugs should not be in the drug room

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19
Q

Ambulate means to _________.

A

Ambulate means to walk

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20
Q

Listening intently; connecting with the speaker and acknowledging you hear their concerns is called ________.

A

Active listening involves listening intently; connecting with the speaker and acknowledging you hear their concerns.

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21
Q

The most effective form of communication is _____,

A

Face to face communication is the most effective

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22
Q

The most you can earn each month and still be eligible for Medicaid is ______.

A

The most you can earn each month and still be eligible for Medicaid is $1860

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23
Q

A court order to deduct monies from a worker’s paycheck to repay a debt is called a ___________.

A

A garnishment is a court order to deduct monies from a worker’s paycheck to repay a debt

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24
Q

The main function of personnel management is ______.

A

The main function of personnel management is staffing

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25
Q

Referrals from ______ is best source for new hires.

A

Referrals from current employees is best source for new hires

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26
Q

Solid lines show _____ on an organizational chart.

A

Solid lines show line authority

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27
Q

Department managers have _____authority.

A

Department managers have line authority.

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28
Q

A charge nurse has ______ authority.

A

A charge nurse has line authority

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29
Q

______ depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years.

A

Straight line depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years

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30
Q

True of false - the medical director has line authority.

A

False

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31
Q

The DON is responsible to supervise the ______.

A

The DON is responsible to supervise the nursing staff

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32
Q

The medical director coordinates the _______in the facility.

A

The medical director coordinates physician services in the facility

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33
Q

The _____ can act in the place of an attending physician in an emergency.

A

The medical director can act in the place of an attending physician in an emergency

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34
Q

The ______ is responsible to ensure resident rights are respected.

A

The administrator is responsible to ensure resident rights are respected

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35
Q

Overtime is required by the ___________.

A

Overtime is required by the fair Labor Standards Act

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36
Q

Vacation; sick leave are required by law or provided at the employers discretion?

A

Vacation; sick leave are employee benefits provided at the employers discretion

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37
Q

Personnel policies are found in the ______.

A

Personnel policies are found in the employee handbook

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38
Q

Which accident accounts for most resident injuries?

A

Falls account for most accidents to residents

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39
Q

_______ depreciation claims most depreciation deduction in the first years of an assets life.

A

Accelerated depreciation claims most depreciation deduction in the first years of an assets life while straight line depreciation depreciates evenly over a set period of years.

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40
Q

Assets appear on which financial statement_____.

A

Assets appear on the balance sheet

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41
Q

Expenses appear on which financial statement ______.

A

Expenses appear on the profit and loss Statement

42
Q

Liabilities appear on which financial statement _______.

A

Liabilities appear on the balance sheet

43
Q

How do you calculate working capital?

A

Working capital = current assets – current liabilities

44
Q

What is the accounting equation?

A

Assets equal liabilities + shareholders equity (this is the accounting equation ALC or Assets = Liabilities plus Capital

45
Q

What is your business plan?

A

Your budget is your business plan

46
Q

_____ inventory keeps count of inventory supplies throughout the year.

A

Perpetual is the best of the two because it perpetually keeps count of inventory supplies through the year.

47
Q

A ______ is where the inventory is only counted once a year.

A

A Periodic is where the inventory is only counted once a year

48
Q

_____ is first in and first out – older inventory used first.

A

FIFO is first in and first out – older inventory used first

49
Q

_____ is last in and first out – newer inventory is used first.

A

LIFO is last in and first out – newer inventory is used first

50
Q

Current ratio is calculated by ________.

A

Current ratio is calculated by dividing current assets by current liabilities

51
Q

When your assets are able to meet your current liabilities this is called ______.

A

Liquidity means your current assets can meet current liabilities

52
Q

What is FUTA?

A

FUTA is federal unemployment tax act and refers to unemployment taxes

53
Q

How often is the balance sheet prepared?

A

The Balance Sheet is prepared quarterly

54
Q

What document summarizes the assets; liabilities and capital (or net worth or equity).

A

The balance sheet summarizes the assets; liabilities and capital (or net worth or equity) on a certain date.

55
Q

If you wanted to know how much your business was worth you would look at the ______.

A

If you wanted to know how much a business was worth you would look at the balance sheet

56
Q

Annual audits are done by _______ and are necessary to verify the information in financial statements.

A

Annual audits are done by independent certified public accountants and are necessary to verify the information in financial statements.

57
Q

An effective maintenance program emphasizes _____________.

A

An effective maintenance program emphasizes preventative maintenance

58
Q

Work orders must include ____; ____and _____.

A

Work orders must include location; problem and an authorized signature

59
Q

The maintenance cost of aging capital equipment justifies replacement in ___ years.

A

The maintenance cost of aging machine justifies replacement in 10 years

60
Q

Must close doors in a fire to contain ______.

A

Must close doors to contain smoke

61
Q

Facilities are constructed of ______ materials.

A

Facilities are constructed of non combustible materials

62
Q

The terms “lock out and tag out” refer to _________.

A

“Lock out and tag out” refer to OSHA requirement to protect staff and residents from hazardous energy discharges (electrocution).

63
Q

Pest control programs can or cannot use open traps; sticky fly paper or poison bait.

A

Pest control programs cannot use open traps; sticky fly paper poison bait

64
Q

MSDS material sheets are required by _____.

A

MSDS material sheets are required by OSHA

65
Q

Under respondent superior; is the employer or the employee liable for wrongful acts by the employee to third parties (residents and visitors).

A

Under Respondeat superior; both the employer and the employee are liable for wrongful acts of employees to third parties (residents and visitors).

66
Q

Where oxygen is in use in a room you are required to ______as required by rule not law.

A

A no smoking sign must be posted outside a room where oxygen is in use

67
Q

Where would you correct a mistake made in the journals?

A

The general journal

68
Q

Preparing for future eventualities and uncertainties is called ______.

A

Strategic planning prepares or anticipates future eventualities and uncertainties

69
Q

Rookie managers make the mistake of _________.

A

Rookie managers make the mistake of over managing

70
Q

What are general statements that guide thinking?

A

Policies are general statements that guide thinking

71
Q

What is the most effective way for an administrator to verify what is actually going on in a facility?

A

Management by walking around

72
Q

What is MBWA?

A

Leadership starts with visibility (management by walking around)

73
Q

The ombudsman program is funded by the _____________.

A

The ombudsman program is funded by the Administration on Aging

74
Q

Where would you record prepaid expenses?

A

The general journal

75
Q

Which form of therapy uses the environment as treatment?

A

Milieu therapy uses the environment as treatment

76
Q

True or false - Seniors lose interest in intimacy and sex as they age.

A

False - The aging continue to have a strong interest and need for intimacy and sex through out their lives.

77
Q

State survey process is _____based.

A

State survey process is outcome based

78
Q

Attracting customers to buy the facility’s services and fill empty beds is called _____.

A

Marketing

79
Q

Managing communication between the facility and the public and managing the facility’s image is called ______.

A

Public relations is management of communication between the facility and the public and managing the facility’s image.

80
Q

_____ is the least effective way to market a facility.

A

Advertising in print media and TV ads is least effective way to market a facility

81
Q

_____ is the most effective way to market a facility.

A

Word of mouth is the most effective way to market a facility

82
Q

True or False - A facility is unable to manage a resident with AIDS and must not admit a resident with that diagnosis or discharge if a current resident.

A

False - A facility is able to care for a resident with AIDS using universal precautions

83
Q

Name the 5 legal reasons to involuntarily discharge a resident against their will?

A

Can discharge a resident if they 1. Are a danger to themselves 2. Are a threat to others 3. The facility cannot meet their needs 4. The resident has improved and longer requires SNF care and 5. Did pay their bill.

84
Q

If a resident is given an anti-psychotic; the physician must document _______ in the chart per OBRA 1987.

A

A rationale or reason for the use of the anti-psychotic

85
Q

Name 2 revenue centers in a nursing home.

A

Nursing; Physical Therapy; Dietary (sells meals)

86
Q

Name 3 expense centers in a nursing home.

A

Social Services; Nursing; Physical Therapy; Maintenance; etc.

87
Q

CARF stands for the _________.

A

CARF stands for Commission on Accreditation of Rehab Facilities

88
Q

Must monitor physical restraints every ____ minutes.

A

Must monitor physical restraints every 30 minutes

89
Q

DON can serve as a charge nurse with ______ beds.

A

DON can serve as a charge nurse with 60 beds or less

90
Q

True or false – the administrator must implement all recommendations of the Resident council

A

False - the administrator must respond to such recommendations is not required to implement them.

91
Q

How soon should supplies just delivered to the facility be secured behind locked doors?

A

Should store supplies immediately. DO not leave supplies in the hallway or public areas that can be easily carried away.

92
Q

When supplies are delivered to a facility; what is the correct procedure to verify the items delivered?

A

Check each item delivered against the invoice and manifest and confirm receipt. Items are almost always missing – demand a refund.

93
Q

Carcinoma is _____.

A

Carcinoma is cancer

94
Q

A doctor involved with identifying diseases is a ________.

A

Pathologist is a doctor involved with causes of diseases

95
Q

Who is responsible to implement resident care policies in a SNF?

A

The medical director is responsible to implement resident care policies

96
Q

Physicians must write; date and sign progress notes at _____.

A

Physicians must write; date and sign progress notes at each visit

97
Q

True or False - A facility may but is not required to have a transfer agreement with one or more hospitals approved for participation under Medicare and Medicaid.

A

Every facility must have a transfer agreement with one or more hospitals approved for participation under Medicare and Medicaid - To EXCHANGE MEDICAL INFORMATION PER HIPAA.

98
Q

Under OBRA; the quality improvement committee must meet at least _____.

A

Under OBRA; the quality improvement committee must meet at least quarterly

99
Q

Significant weight loss for 1 month is _____ percent.

A

Significant weight loss for 1 month is 5 percent

100
Q

Significant weight loss for 3 months is __ percent.

A

Significant weight loss for 3 months is 7.5 percent

101
Q

Significant weight loss for 6 months is __ percent.

A

Significant weight loss for 6 months is 10 percent