Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adult 300 > N300 Q#1 Peri-Op > Flashcards

N300 Q#1 Peri-Op Flashcards

1
Q

What are 4 reasons for surgery?

A

Diagnostic
Curative
palliative
cosmetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Surgery has both psychological and physical stress impact. Explain physical.

A

resistance to infection lowered

organ fxn altered due to manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

psychological stressors from surgery include?

A

fear,pain, anxiety, loss of control, body image, alterations in ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Surgical risk is assessed by what factors?

A

age, nutritional status, fluid and lytes balance

general health, medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

____: the term used to describe the wide variety of nursing fans associated with pts surgical experience.

A

perioperative nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

______: the term for the nursing fans associated with pts care before and after anesthesia.

A

perianesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

begins when decision for surgical intervention is made and ends with trx of patient to the operating room table

A

preoperative phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With pre-op consult, what is important condition to inquire about?

A

malignant hyperthermia- rxn to anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The following preop meds serve what purpose?

  1. Valium (diazepam)
  2. midazolam
  3. morphine sulfate
  4. atropine
  5. zantac axid or tagamet
A
  1. antianxiety
  2. sedative
  3. analgesic
  4. anticholinergic: increases HR and reduces oral secretions
  5. decreases acidity of stomach contents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

begins when pt is admitted or transferred to surgery and ends when admitted to recovery area.

A

Intraoperative phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an RNFA

A

specialized nurse that can close incisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During interoperative care, what activities must be performed?

A

Ensure safety, positioning
documentation
environment: traffic, infection control, sterilization of supplies
Inadvertent hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ASA classification is a risk grading scale for anesthesia, describe the 1-6 classifications.

A

1 healthy

  1. one medical problem
  2. more than one med prob
  3. severe systemic disease
  4. not expected to survive w/o surgery
  5. organ harvest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the point at which anesthesia is initiated just prior to the 1st incisional cut

A

Anesthesia Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 types of anesthesia?

A

general
regional
MAC monitored anesthesia care (IV)
moderate sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
which type of anesthesia:
controlled LOC
protective reflexes lost
sedation and analgesia
muscle relaxation
IV agents, inhalation agents, narcotics
A

general

17
Q

What type of Anesthesia agent:

  1. thiopental, methohexital
  2. propofol
  3. ketamine
  4. nitrous oxide, halothane, enflurane, isoflane
  5. morphine, fentanyl, slfentanyl, demerol
  6. naloxone, narcan
A

1 barbituates

  1. non-barbituate hypnotic
  2. dissociative agent
  3. inhalation agents
  4. Narcotics, opioids
  5. narcotic antagonists NARCAN
18
Q

Anesthesia agents continued:

  1. diazepam (valium), Loraxepam (ativan)
  2. romazicon flumazenil
  3. muscle relaxants
  4. antiemetics
  5. Toradol…
  6. Zantac, tagamet
A
  1. benzodiazepines (amnesia)
  2. benzodiazepine antagonist
  3. NSAIDs- equal affect to morphine but doesn’t cause airway issue
  4. H2 blockers
19
Q

What complications to general anesthesia can occur w/in the CNS?

A

emergence delirium

delayed emergence

20
Q

What complications to general anesthesia can occur w/in the Cardiovascular system?

A

hypotension

dysrhythmias, MI

21
Q

What complications to general anesthesia can occur w/in the respiratory system?

A

laryngospasm

22
Q

True or False: hypothermia and/or malignant hyperthermia are complication factors to general anesthesia?

A

True

23
Q

____: chain rxn of abnormalities causes pharmoacogenetic disease of the skeletal muscle. This is an inherited disorder (single gene defect) that can only be confirmed with ____ tests after the MH crisis.

A

Malignant hyperthermia

caffeine/ Halothane contracture test

24
Q

Malignant hyperthermia can be triggered by what types of agents? what agent does not cause MH?

A

inhalation agents and depolarizing muscle relaxants.

Nitrous oxide

25
Q

S/s of MH include: muscle ____, tachycardia and dysrhythmias. ___ changes. Tachypnea and ____.

A

rigidity
cutaneous
pyrexia

26
Q

____ is the hallmark of MH but it is a late sign.

A

PYREXIA

27
Q

Management of MH crisis include:

  1. D/c ____ /surgery
  2. administer 100% ____
  3. Administer ____ ASAP
  4. ___ patient
A
  1. anesthesia
  2. oxygen
  3. DANTROLENE (treats muscle spasms)
  4. cool
28
Q

What are types of regional anesthesia?

A

spinal
epidural
caudal
local

29
Q

Esthers and Amides are agents used for what type of anesthesia?

A

Regional

30
Q

____ are used to determine the level of block for a spinal and epidural

A

dermatome

31
Q

With MAC anesthesia, the patient is able to maintain their own ___ and the anesthesia is administered entirely by ___.

A

airway

IV

32
Q

_____: minimally depressed LOC in which patient retains ability to maintain patent airway independently and continuously and is able to respond to verbal commands.

A

Moderate sedation

33
Q

Phase that begins with admission of pt to recovery area and ends with f/u evaluation in the clinical setting or at home.

A

Post-Op

34
Q

What activities are performed in PACU care?

A 
airway, O2
vital signs
anesthesia report
LOC
I/O
Pain/comfort
dressings
labs
35
Q

True or False: the 1st dressing change post-op must be performed by a physician.

A

True

36
Q

with wound ___, separation of wound edges occurs, more likely with vertical incisions and may be caused by ___ infections or poor wound ____.

A

dehiscence, bacterial, healing

37
Q

Wound ____, protrusion of loops of bowel occurs with pink, serous drainage. Occurs more often in ___ obese, diabetic or malnourished pts.

A

evisceration

older

38
Q

What are preventative measures for dehiscence and evisceration?

A

splint incision when coughing

monitor for signs of infection, malnutrition, dehydration

Adult 300 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions