Myeloproliferative Neoplasms Flashcards

1
Q

myeloproliferative neoplasms (MPN) used to be called what?

A

myeloproliferative disorders

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2
Q

what does myeloproliferative mean?

A

proliferation of bone marrow/bone marrow lineages

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3
Q

myeloproliferative neoplasms are clonal haematopoietic stem cell disorders, what does this mean?

A

increased production of one or more types of haematopoietic cells
maturation is relatively preserved (in contract to acute leukaemia)

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4
Q

sub-types of myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A

BCR-ABL1 negative

BCR-ABL1 positive

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5
Q

types of BCR-ABL1 negative myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A
primary myelofibrosis
polycthaemia vera (overproduction of RBCs)
essential thrombocytopenia (overproduction of platelets)
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6
Q

types of BCR-ABL1 positive myeloproliferative disorders

A

chronic myeloid leukaemia (overproduction of granulocytes, Philadelphia chromosome)

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7
Q

when should a myeloproliferative neoplasm be considered as a diagnosis?

A
high granulocyte count 
\+/-
high RBCs/Hb
\+/-
high platelets
\+/- 
eosinophilia/basophila
splenomegaly
thrombosis in unusual place
(must have no reactive explanation)
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8
Q

what happens in CML?

A

proliferation of myeloid lineage cells (granulocytes and their precursors, other lineages including platelets)
previously, had a chronic phase with intact maturation of cells for 3-5 years followed by “blast crisis” reminiscent of acute leukaemia with maturation defect

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9
Q

CML is fatal in the chronic phase without what?

A

stem cell/bone marrow transplant

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10
Q

3 phases of CML?

A

chronic phase
accelerated phase
blast crisis

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11
Q

clinical features of CML?

A
asymptomatic
splenomegaly
hypermetabolic symptoms
gout
miscellaneous (problems related to hyperleukocytosis problems, priapism)
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12
Q

lab features of CML?

A

blood count changes

- normal/reduced Hb, leucocytosis with neutrophilia and myeloid precursors, eosinophilia, basophilia, thrombocytosis

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13
Q

what is the hallmark of CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome

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14
Q

genetics of CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome results in a new chimaeric gene (BCR-ABL1)
the gene produces a tyrosine kinase which causes abnormal phosphorylation (signalling) leading to haematological changes in CML

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15
Q

types of BCR-ABL1 negative myeloproliferative neoplasms

A
polycthaemia vera (PV)
essential thrombocytopenia (ET)
primary myelofibrosis (PMF)
others
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16
Q

features common to myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A
asymptomatic
increased cell turnover (gout, fatigue, weight loss, sweats)
signs of splenomegaly
marrow failure
thrombosis (arterial and venous)
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17
Q

what is PV?

A

polycthaemia vera
high Hb/haematocrit accompanied by erythrocytosis (true increase in RBC mass) but can have excessive production of other lineages

18
Q

how can PV be distinguished from secondary polycthaemia?

A

secondary associated with chronic hypoxia, smoking and erythropoietin secreting tumour etc

19
Q

how can PV be distinguished from pseudopolycthaemia?

A

pseudopolycthaemia associated with dehydration, diuretic therapy, obesity etc

20
Q

true vs pseudo polycthaemia?

A
true = actual increase in number of RBCs
pseudo = same amount of RBCs but RBCs are dissolved in less plasma so looks like relatively more RBCs
21
Q

clinical features of PV?

A

same features common to all MPNs
headache
fatigue (result of increased BLOOD viscosity not plasma)
itch (aguagenic pruritis)

22
Q

how is polycthaemia investigated?

A

history
examination (splenomegaly etc)
FBC
blood film
JAK2 mutation status (IMPORTANT)
investigate for secondary/pseudo causes (CXR, SpO2, ABGs)
other tests (erythropoietin, bone marrow biopsy done rarely)

23
Q

what is JAK2 mutation?

A

JAK2 = a kinase
JAK2 mutation results in loss of auto-inhibition and activation of erythropoiesis present
present in 95% of PV cases, therefore part of screening for PV

24
Q

how is PV managed?

A

venesect until haematocrit <0.45
aspirin
cytotoxic oral chemotherapy (hydroxycarbamide)

25
what is ET?
essential thrombocytopenia uncontrolled production of abnormal platelets resulting in thrombosis and bleeding at high levels due to von Willebrand disease
26
clinical features of ET?
features common to all MPNs (particularly vaso-occlusive complications) bleeding
27
how is ET diagnosed?
exclude reactive thrombocytosis (IMPORTANT) exclude CML check for genetic mutations (JAK2, CALR, MPL, some can be triple negative) characteristic bone marrow appearance
28
how is ET managed?
anti-platelets (aspirin) | cytoreductive therapy to control proliferation (hydroxycarbamide, anagrelide, interferon alpha)
29
what can cause myelofibrosis?
idiopathic post-polycthaemia essential thrombocytopenia
30
features of idiopathic myelofibrosis?
marrow failure bone marrow fibrosis with no alternative cause extramedullary haematopoiesis (in liver and spleen)
31
blood film appearance of idiopathic myelofibrosis (important)
leucoerythroblastic film appearance | teardrop-shaped RBCs in peripheral blood
32
clinical features of myelofibrosis?
marrow failure (anaemia, bleeding, infection) spelomegaly (LUQ pain, complications including portal hypertension) hypercatabolism also the clinical features common to all MPNs
33
lab diagnosis of myelofibrosis?
typical blood film (teardrop RBCs - "poikilocytes" and leucoerythroblastic) dry aspirate fibrosis on trephine biopsy (bone section) JAK2, CALR, MPL mutations
34
causes of leucoerythroblastic film?
sepsis (reactive bone marrow) marrow infiltration myelofibrosis
35
what is leucoerythroblastic film?
presence of immature RBCs and WBCs
36
how is myelofibrosis managed?
supportive care (blood transfusions, antibiotics) allogenic stem cell transplant in some splenectomy (controversial) JAK2 inhibitors
37
most common cause of high cell counts?
most commonly reactive
38
reactive causes of high granulocytes?
infection | physiological (post surgery, steroids etc)
39
reactive causes of high platelets?
infection iron deficiency malignancy blood loss
40
reactive causes of high RBCs?
dehydration (diuretics) i.e - pseudopolycthaemia | secondary polycthaemia