Concepts in Malignant Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

normal haemopoiesis?

A

stem cells > multipotent progenitors > oligolineage progenitors > mature cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what kinetic events occur during haemopoiesis?

A
self-renewal
proliferation
differentiation/lineage commitment
maturation
apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how can normal, mature non-lymphoid cells be identified?

A

via morphology

  • cell surface antigens (e.g glycophorin A = red cells)
  • enzyme expression (myeloperoxidase = neutrophils)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the non-lymphoid cells?

A

red cells (erythrocytes)
platelets
granulocytes (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils)
macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how can normal progenitor cells/stem cells be identified?

A

cell surface antigens (immunophenotyping eg CD34)
cell culture assay
animal models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

malignant haemopoiesis is characterised by what?

A

increased numbers of abnormal and dysfunctional cells

loss of normal activity (loss of normal haemopoiesis in leukaemia or loss of immune function in certain lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what problems can occur in haemopoiesis?

A

increased proliferation
lack of differentiation
lack of maturation
lack of apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe bone marrow aspirate in acute leukaemia

A

proliferation of abnormal progenitors with block in differentiation/maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe bone marrow aspirate in chronic myeloproliferative disorders (e.g chronic myeloid leukaemia)

A

proliferation of abnormal progenitors

but no block of differentiation/maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what causes haematological malignancy?

A

genetic, epigenetic and environmental interaction
somatic mutations in regulatory genes(driver/passenger genes)
recurrent cytogenic abnormalities (e.g deletions, chromosomal translocations etc) can contribute but not usually causal
usually multiple “hits” rather than single event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

driver mutations can select “clones”, what are clones?

A

population of cells derived from a single parent cell
this parent cells has a genetic marker that is chared by all daughter cells
clones can diversify but contain similar genetic backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

clones in normal haemopoiesis vs malignant haemopoiesis?

A
normal = polyclonal
malignant = monoclonal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is a driver mutation?

A

a mutation that gives a selective advantage to a clone in its microenvironment, through either increasing its survival or reproduction. Driver mutations tend to cause clonal expansions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how do driver mutations cause cancer?

A

they confer a growth advantage on the cells and are selected during the evolution of the cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a passenger mutation?

A

AKA hitchhiker mutation
doesn’t confer a growth advantage but can still be associated with clonal expansion as it occurs on the same genome as the driver mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are types of haematological malignancies based on?

A

lineage
developmental stage (precursor) within lineage
anatomical site involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

types of haematological malignancy based on lineage?

A

myeloid

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

examples of haematological malignancy based on developmental stage?

A

cancer of lymphocyte precursor = acute lymphoblastic anaemia
cancer of mature lymphocytes = chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
cancer of mature plasma cell (branch of B cell) = myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

types of haematological malignancy based on anatomical site involved?

A

blood involvement = leukaemia
lymph node involvement with lymphoid malignancy = lymphoma
(however chronic lymphocytic leukaemia can involve blood and lymph nodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which is more histologically and clinically more aggressive, acute leukaemias/high grade lymphomas or chronic leukaemias/low grade lymphomas?

A

acute leukaemias and high grade lymphomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what features on histology indicate aggressive cancer?

A

large cells with high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio
prominent nucleoli
rapid proliferation

22
Q

clinical features of aggressive cancer?

A

rapid progression of symptoms

acute leukaemias, in contrast to chronic, present with failure of normal bone marrow function

23
Q

what myeloid cancers occur at stem cell stage?

A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

chronic myeloproliferative disorders

24
Q

what myeloid cancers occur at multipotent progenitor stage?

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

25
Q

what lymphoid cancer can occur at multipotent progenitor stage?

A

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

26
Q

what lymphoid cancer can occur at mature cell stage?

A

lymphomas
chronic lymphocytic anaemia
myeloma of plasma cells

27
Q

describe pathology of acute laeukaemia

A

rapidly progressive clonal malignancy of the marrow/blood with maturation defects
defined as an excess of “blasts” (>20%) in either the peripheral blood or bone marrow
decrease/loss of normal haemopoietic reserve

28
Q

types of acute leukaemia?

A

acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

29
Q

ALL is a malignant disease of which cells?

A

primitive lymphoid cells (lymphoblasts)

30
Q

most common childhood cancer?

A

ALL

31
Q

clinical presentation of ALL?

A

features of marrow failure (anaemia, infection, bleeding)
leukaemic effects (high blood cell counts with obstruction of circulation, involvement of areas outside blood/marrow)
bone pain

32
Q

who is AML more common in?

A

elderly (>60)

can be de novo or secondary to something else

33
Q

presentation of AML?

A

similar to ALL

subgroups may have characteristic presentation (DIC, gum infiltration etc)

34
Q

investigations for acute leukaemia?

A

blood count and film
coagulation screen
bone marrow aspirate

35
Q

blood film in acute leukaemia?

A

reduction in normal cells

presence of abnormal cells (high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio etc)

36
Q

characteristic feature found in cells in acute myeloid leukaemia on blood film?

A

auer rod (pale area/line/blob/slit? at edge of cell)

37
Q

what features do you look for on bone marrow aspirate?

A

morphology
immunophenotyping (are there lineage-specific proteins on cell surface?)
cyto/molecular genetics
trephine (piece of bone) - better assessment of cellularity and helpful if aspirate not great

38
Q

definitive diagnosis to differentiate between AML and ALL?

A

immunophenotyping

even though cells from AML and ALL look alike, they express lineage associated proteins

39
Q

curative treatment of acute leukaemia?

A

multi-agent chemo

other options include targeted treatments with kinase inhibitors and allogeneic stem cell transplant in select patients

40
Q

how is multi agent chemo given in ALL?

A

can last up to 2-3 years
different phases of treatment with different intensity
targeted treatment in certain subsets

41
Q

how is multi-agent chemo given in AML?

A

intensive
2-4 cycles (5-10 days chemo then 2-4 weeks recovery)
prolonged hospital stay
targeted treatments in subsets

42
Q

what is a hickman line?

A

long term IV line inserted through the chest and SVC > right atrium
has port for easy connection of drips and syringes

43
Q

problems with marrow suppression from chemo?

A

anaemia
neutropenia (main problem as can cause infections which are severe and long lasting)
thrombocytopenia (bleeding problems)

44
Q

what type of bacteria can cause fulminant life threatening sepsis in neutropaenic patients?

A

gram -ve

45
Q

other complications of chemo?

A
nausea and vomiting
hair loss
liver/renal dysfunction
tumour lysis syndrome
infection
late effects such as infertility, cardiomyopathy in anthracyclines)
46
Q

how is bacterial infection in chemo managed (important)?

A

broad spectrum antibiotics as soon as neutropenic fever occurs
(cover gram -ves in particular)

47
Q

what suggests a fungal infection in chemo? (important)

A

prolonged neutropenia and persisting fever unresponsive to anti-bacterial agents

48
Q

how effective is treatment in acute leukaemia?

A

many people go into remission
however remission might not last depending on type of acute leukaemia and many relapse
some patients will also die of treatment related toxicity

49
Q

definition of remission?

A

<5% marrow blasts with recovery of normal haemopoiesis

50
Q

cure rates in acute leukaemia

A

childhood ALL = 85-90%
adult ALL = 30-40
adult AML = 40-50
elderly AML = 10% or less