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ASS Microbiology > MYCO-VIRO > Flashcards

MYCO-VIRO Flashcards

1
Q

Most common cause of outbreaks of tinea capitis in children.

Main cause of endothrix

A

Trichophyton tonsurans

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2
Q

Young child showing large circular erythematous scaly lesion with raised border on the nose

A

Microsporum gypseum

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3
Q

Causative agent of Tinea Versicolor

A

Malassezia Furfur

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4
Q

Spaghetti and meatballs apperance.
Hypopigmented spots on the ches and neck.
Causative agent?

A

Malassezia Furfur

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5
Q

Causes black nodules on the hair shaft, Affects mainly the scalp hair. Causative agent?

A

Piedraia Hortae.

Black Piedra

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6
Q

Forms Light coloured nodules on the hair of the beard, mustache and pubic hair. Afects the beard and Mustache hair.
Causative Agent?

A

Trichosporon Beigelii.

White Piedra

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7
Q

Typical brown to black non-scaling macules on the palmar aspect of the hands. Causative agent?

A

Tinea Nigra

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8
Q

Pigeon Droppings, Eucalyptus strees.
Seen as encapsulated yeast cells on India Ink.
Opportunistic fungi

A

Cryptococcus Neoformans

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9
Q

Causes Sporothricosis/ rose gardener’s disease.
Seen as Cigar-shaped budding yeast on specimens
Flowerette arrangement of conidia

A

Spororthrix schenckii

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10
Q

Barrel-shaped arthroconidia

A

Coccidioides Immitis

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11
Q

Mariner Pilot’s wheel

A

Coccidioides Brasilienses

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12
Q

Broad-Based Budding yeast

A

Blastomyces Dermatitidis

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13
Q

Dichotomously branching hyphae

A

Aspergillus Fumigatus

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14
Q

Associated with bird/ bat droppings
“Spelunker’s Disease”
resembles pulmonary TB in xray

A

Histoplasma Capsulatum

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15
Q

Fungi used in making wine, bread and beer

A

saccharomyces cerevisiae

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16
Q

Filoviruses causing hemorrhagic fevers

A

Marburg virus, Ebola virus

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17
Q

Filivirus exported from the philippines causing fatal infections in monkeys

A

Reston Virus

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18
Q

Paralytic Poliomyelitis and aseptic meningitis

fecal-oral route

A

Poliovirus

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19
Q

Herpangina, Hand-foot-and mouth disease

A

Coxsackie A virus

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20
Q

Pleurodynia (Bornholm Disease)

Myocarditis, Pericarditis

A

Coxsackie B

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21
Q

Major cause of acute diarrhea, infantile gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus

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22
Q

Group of rotavirus known to cause disease in humans

A

rotavirus A, B, and C

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23
Q

Sixth Disease, exanthem subitum, caused by human herpesvirus type 6

A

Roseola

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24
Q

Clinical manifestations: erythema infectiosum, transient aplastic crisis, pure red cell aplasia, hydrops fetalis

A

Parvoviridae

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25
Q

Largest and most complex of viruses, manifests as rash

A

Poxviruses

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26
Q

More virulent poxvirus infections in human

A

Variola

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27
Q

Less virulent poxvirus infections in human

A

Vaccinia

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28
Q

He introduced vaccination with live cowpox virus in 1798

A

Edward Jenner

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29
Q

Control of smallpox by deliberated infection with mild forms of the disease

A

Variolation

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30
Q

The earliest physical evidnce of smallpox with pustular rash on the mummified body of?

A

Pharoah Ramses v

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31
Q

eosinophilic nuclear inclusions composed of nucleic acid and protein seen in cells infected with Herpes simplex virus, Varicella-zoster virus, and CMV

A

Cowdry A inclusions

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32
Q

inclusion bodies associated with polio, adenovirus

A

Cowdry B inclusions

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33
Q

inclusion bodies associated with Variola (small pox)

A

Guarnieri Bodies

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34
Q

inclusion bodies associated with Rubeola(measles)

A

Warthin finkeldey bodies

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35
Q

inclusion bodies associated with Rabies

A

Negri bodies

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36
Q

inclusion bodies associated with Molluscum contagiosum

A

Hendersen-petersen bodies

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37
Q

inclusion bodies associated with CMV

A

owl’s eye bodies

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38
Q

Enumerated the Herpes viruses “CHEV”

A

CMV, HSV,EBV, VZV

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39
Q

A smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells.
Used to assay for HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV

A

Tzanck Test

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40
Q

VZV route of transmission

A

respiratory droplet

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41
Q

reactivation of latent varicella zoster virus in sensory ganglia

A

Shingles

Herpes zoster

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42
Q

Appearance of shingle lesion

A

dewdrops on a rose petal

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43
Q

Most common intrauterine viral infection

A

cytomegalovirus

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44
Q

the tubular cells of the human kidney shed the virus for prolonged periods

A

Epstein-Barr virus

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45
Q

Causes infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein-Barr virus

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46
Q

EBV heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs

A

monospot test

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47
Q

2 major influenza virus antigens

A

hemaglutinin(H) and Nueraminidase (N)

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48
Q

Avian flu: influenza A virus subtype

A

H5N1

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49
Q

Swine flu: influenza A virus subtype

A

H1N1

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50
Q

3 C’s of measles

A

couch, coryza, conjunctivitis

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51
Q

clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa (opposite the upper 1st & 2nd molars) and are pathognomonic for measles

A

Koplik spots

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52
Q

2 complications of measles virus

A

SSPE and giant cell pneumonia

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53
Q

Results from a persistent infection with altered measles virus harbored intracellularly in the CNS for many years usually (7-10) years

A

Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)

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54
Q

Hallmark of SSPE, resulting from extension of the inflammatory process site to deeper structures in the brain including the basal ganglia

A

Massive myoclonus

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55
Q

inclusion bodies of SSPE?

A

Cowdry A bodies

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56
Q

Pathognomonic microscopic finding for measles. Resulting from fusion of infected cells with up to 100 nuclei

A

Warthin-Finkeldy Giant Cells

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57
Q

Vitamin A recommended dosage for:
children >1 year?
6months to 1 year?
< 6months?

A

Capsule: single dose of 200,000 IU for children >1 year, 100, 000 IU for 6 months to 1 year, 50,000 iU for infants < 6months

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58
Q

cause of common cold, RNA virus

A

Rhinovirus

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59
Q

Viral disease of the CNS transmitted by infected secretions, usually saliva.
Bullet shaped.

A

Rabies virus

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60
Q

2 epidemiologic forms of rabies

A
  1. urban rabies (dogs and cats)

2. sylvatic rabies (bats, skunks, foxes, raccoons mongooses, wolves

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61
Q

inclusion bodies seen on rabies?

A

negri bodies

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62
Q

4 stages of rabies infection

A
  1. non-specific syndrome
  2. acute encephalitis
  3. brainstem dysfunction
  4. death or recovery
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63
Q

Hepatitis infection that is usually asymptomatic

A

Hep A

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64
Q

Hepatitis infection that is bloodborne

A

Hep B

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65
Q

Hepatitis infection that is associated with carcinoma, cirrhosis, and carrier state

A

Hep C

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66
Q

Hepatitis infection that is dependednt on HBV

A

Hep D

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67
Q

Hepatitis infection that is usually enteric, and seen on expectant mothers

A

Hep E

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68
Q

Hepatitis infection that is transmitted by fecal-oral route

A

Hep A and E

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69
Q

Synthesis of dsDNA form RNA

A

reverse transcriptase

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70
Q

HIV screening test

A

ELISA

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71
Q

HIV Confirmatory test

A

western blot

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72
Q

HIV indicator of active viral replication

A

P24 antigen

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73
Q

HIV marker of disease progression

A

HIV viral load

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74
Q

HIV monitoring of immune status

A

CD4 T-cell count

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75
Q

HIV detection of actively dividing virus

A

HIV viral load

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76
Q

HIV useful in determining when to initiate prophylaxis and treatment

A

CD4 T-cell count

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77
Q

most sensitive test for dx of acute HIV before seroconversion

A

HIV viral load

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78
Q

Detects anti gp-120 antibodies on HIV

A

ELISA

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79
Q

Presents before anti gp-120 antibodies on HIV

A

p24 antigen

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80
Q

bacterial opportunistic infections in AIDS

A

TB, M. avium

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81
Q

viral opportunistic infections in AIDS

A

HSV, VZV, CMV, PML(JC virus)

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82
Q

fungal opportunistic infections in AIDS

A

candida albicans, cryptococcal meningititis, Histoplasmosis, Pneumocytstis pneumonia

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83
Q

protozoan opportunistic infections in AIDS

A

toxoplasmosis, cryptosporidiosis

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84
Q

classification of staph and strep

A

3 Cs: catalase, coagulase, gram positive cocci

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85
Q

Group A streptococci, b Hemolytic

A

S. pyogenes

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86
Q

Group B streptococci, b hemolytic
common in babies
vaginal normal flora

A

S. agalactiae

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87
Q

Alpha hemolytic, gram (+) cocci

A

S. pneumonia

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88
Q

Encapsulated organisms:

A

(Strep Klb HaPN Cry)

  1. S. pneumonia
  2. K. pneumoniae
  3. H. influenzae
  4. P. aeruginosa
  5. N. meningitidis
  6. C. neoformans
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89
Q

primarily responsible for the beta hemolysis seen on the surface of a blood agar plate

A

Streptolysin S

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90
Q

S. pyogenes diagnosis by?

recent throat infection, recent skin infection

A

ASO- recent thorat infection

DNAse- recent skin infection

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91
Q

scarlet fever diagnostic test

A

Dick’s test

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92
Q

Fiery-red rash

A

erysipelas

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93
Q

s. pyogenes: abrupt onset of sore throat, fever and tender anterior cervical lymph nodes

A

pharyngitis

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94
Q

s. pyogenes: blanching sandpaper rah, circumoral pallor, strawbery tongue

A

scarlet fever

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95
Q

s. pyogenes: honey crusted lesions

A

impetigo

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96
Q

streptococcoal cause of dental caries

A

Streptococcus Mutans

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97
Q

Strep mutans produces a dextransducrase that forms an insoluble polymer of glucose known as?

A

Glucan

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98
Q

Golden yellow colonies?

this phenomenon is due to presence of what substance?

A

staphylococcus aureus,

staphyloxanthin

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99
Q

staph aureaus component that inhibits complement fixation and phagocytosis

A

Protein A

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100
Q

staph aureus component, superantigens that cause polyclonal t-cell activation

A

TSST-1( Toxic shock syndrome toxin)

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101
Q

staph aureus toxin causing staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

exfoliatin

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102
Q

staph aureus toxin causing food poisoning

A

enterotoxins

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103
Q

pneumatocoeles of s. aureus is due to what substance?

A

Panton Valentin leukocidin

104
Q

most severe form of SSSS

A

Ritter’s Disease

105
Q

cause of osteomyelitis in general population

A

S. aureus

106
Q

cause of osteomyelitis in sexually active

A

n. gonorheae

107
Q

cause of osteomyelitis in drug users

A

p. aeruginosa

108
Q

cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia

A

salmonella sp.

109
Q

endocarditis in IV drug abusers commonly involves the?

A

trucuspid valve

110
Q

Major cause of subacute endocarditis?

A

s. viridans

111
Q

Major cause of acute endocarditis?

A

s, aureus

112
Q

Major cause of endocarditis in drug abusers?

A

s. aureus

113
Q

Major cause of endocarditis in prosthetic valves?

A

s. epidermidis

114
Q

Bordetella pertussis culture medium

A

Bordet-Gengou medium, Regan-Lowe Medium

115
Q

acute tracheobronchitis

A

whooping cough

116
Q

stages of whooping cough

A

Catarrhal(1-2 weeks)
Paroxysmal(2-4 weeks)
Convalescence(>4wks)

117
Q

chineses character appearance on microscopy

A

corynebacterium diphteriae

118
Q

granules produced by corynebacterium?

A

volutin granules,

119
Q

intracellular granules present in many species of bacteria, which possess a strong affinity for nuclear stains

A

babes ernst

120
Q

granular cell inclusion that stains a color different from that of the dye used

A

metachromatic

121
Q

medium/ agar used to culture corynebacterium

A

Loeffler’s coagulated medium

122
Q

presents with sorethorat with pseudomembrane, bullneck, myocarditis, recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, and muscle paralysis

A

Diphtheria

123
Q

2 organisms which inactivates Elongation factor (EF-2) by ADP ribosylation

A

C. diptheriae

P, aeruginosa

124
Q

Round terminal spores which gives cells a “drumstick” or “tennis racket” appearance

A

Clostridium tetani

125
Q

Clostridium tetani blocks the release of these 2 inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

glycine

gamma-amino butyric acid

126
Q

spinal inhibitory motor neuron cell

A

renshaw cell

127
Q

innervation most sensitive to the c. tetani toxin

A

Masseter

128
Q

first manifestation of c. tetani infection

A

trismus

129
Q

manifestation of c. tetani in neonates

A

poor suck

130
Q

ooisoning with this substance also produces Risus Sardonicus

A

strychnine poisoning

131
Q

a grinning expression produced by spasm of the facial muscles; seen in tetanus and certain types of poisoning

A

Risus Sardonicus

132
Q

DOC for tetanus

A

Metronidazole

133
Q

phospholipase produced by Clostridium perfringens

A

Lecithinase

134
Q

toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium perfringens and is responsible for gas gangrene and myonecrosis

A

alpha toxin

135
Q

Presents with skin crepitations with gangrenous wound

A

clostrium perfringens

136
Q

management of c. perfringens

A

hyperbaric oxygen

137
Q

blocks nueromuscular transmission by blocking the release of acetylcholine from motor nerve endings

A

Clostridium Botulinum

138
Q

can contain spores of c. botulinum and should not be fed to babies less than 1 year of age

A

Honey

139
Q

hospital or nursing home acquired clostridium infection

A

clostridium difficile

140
Q

medications associated with clostridium difficile infection

A

clindamycin,
ampicillin,
cephalsporins

141
Q

causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis (PMC)

A

clostridium difficile

142
Q

most common manifestation of c. difficile infection

A

diarrhea

143
Q

DOC for c. difficile infection

A

metronidazole (mild)

vancomycin (mod to severe)

144
Q

responsible for virulence of MTB

A

cord factor-

trehalose dimycolate

145
Q

causes serpentine growth in vitro

A

cord factor- trehalose dimycolate

146
Q

DNA strip test that allows simultaneous molecular identification of TB and resistance to Rifampicin and INH

A

Line Probe Assay

147
Q

responsible for caseous necrosis of MTB

A

Phosphatides

148
Q

MTB in spine/bones on lower thoracic(chidren)/ upper lumbar vertebrae(adult)

A

Pott’s disease

149
Q

provides a definitive diagnosis for active tuberculosis
used to monitor pts on treatment
confirms cure at end of tx

A

Direct sputum smear microscopy

150
Q

“skip lesions”, cobblestone appearance on colon

A

TB of colon

151
Q

Diease that develops in a previously uninfected person

A

primary tuberculosis

152
Q

used ti screen asymptomatic, with TB exposure

A

PPD

153
Q

standard test for diagnosing pulmonary tb in our country

A

sputum AFB

154
Q

most common initial presentation of pulmonary TB

A

weight loss

155
Q

most frequently involved extrapulmonary site of TB

A

lymph nodes

156
Q

best initial test for TB

A

CXR

157
Q

The most specific test for TB

A

sputum culture

158
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity skin test to assay TB, cell mediated immunity to tubercle bacillus

A

Tuberculin skin test,

mantoux test

159
Q

positive skin test for TB has induration greater than?

for immunocompromised patients?

A

> 10mm for immunocompetent,

>5mm for immunocompromised

160
Q

natural resistance assoc macrophage protein(NRAM) Genetic protein for MAI

A

BEG GENE

161
Q

3 main properties of anti TB drugs

A

bactericidal activity
sterilizing activity
prevents resistance

162
Q

first line anti TB drugs

A 
isoniazid(INH)
Rifampicin 
ethambutol
pyrazinamide(PZA)
streptomycin

think (IRES)

163
Q

second line anti TB drugs

A 
(4Cplay Para Ka Of AmE)
Cycloserine
Capreomycin
ciprofloxacin
clofazimine
para-amino salicylic acid
kanamycin
Ofloxacin
amikacin
ethionamide
164
Q

it is recommended to prevent peripheral neuropathies of isoniazid

A

Pyridoxine(vit b6)

165
Q

gold standard diagnosis of PTB

A

Acidfast smear and culture

166
Q

treatment regimen of PTB

A

minimum of 6 months duration

INH EMB and RIF

167
Q

side effect of isoniazid?

A

peripheral neuropathy

168
Q

side effect of rifampicin

A

orange discoloration to body fluids

169
Q

side effect of ethambutol

dose

A

retrobulbar neuritis, red green color blindness

>25mg/kg/d

170
Q

side effect of pyrazinamide

A

hepatotoxicity

171
Q

side effect of streptomycin

A

ototoxicity

172
Q

other name of leprosy

A

Hansen’s disease

173
Q

Only bacterium to invade peripheral nerves

A

mycobacterium leprae

174
Q

where does M. leprae replicate primarily?

A

cool tissues of the skin and extremities

175
Q

at what temperature does M. leprae proliferate best?

A

32°C to 34 °C

176
Q

How is M. Leprae cultured?

A

in the footpads of mice and armadillos

177
Q

M. leprae: cell-mediated immunity is manifested by delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions to dermal injections of a bacterial extract called

A

lepromin

178
Q

response to these cells determines whether an individual has m. leprae is tuberculoid or lepromatous leprosy

A

helper t-lymphocytes

179
Q

AFB: absent or few in number
positive lepromin skin test
CD4+helper t lympocyte predominate

A

tuberculoid leprosy (TT, BT)

180
Q

Midpoint of the spectrum
most unstable form
“punched out” or “swiss cheese” appearance

A

borderline leprosy (BB)

181
Q

AKA anergic leprosy,
AFB: numerous
negative lepromin test
cd8+t lymphocytes predominate

A

Polar lepromatous leprosy

182
Q

facial presentation resulting from progressive bacillary proliferation, thickening of dermis, thrown into fods

A

Leonine facies

183
Q

hairloss on eyebrows from leprosy

A

madarosis

184
Q

mc nerve trunk involvement in type 1 lepra reactions

A

ulnar nerve

185
Q

type 1 lepra reactions

A
  1. inflammation within skin lesions
  2. appearance of new skin lesions
  3. neuritis
  4. fever
186
Q

type 2 lepra reactions

A
  1. crops of painful erythematous papules that resolve spontaneously
  2. malaise
  3. fever
187
Q

aka diffuse lepromatosis

A

Latapi lepromatosis/ Lucio’s phenomenon

188
Q

established treatment of leprosy

A

(CaRD)
Clofazimine
Rifampin
Dapsone

189
Q

AIDS defining Mycobacterium infection

A

Mycobaccterium Avium Intracellulare(MAI)

190
Q

Hallmark of MAI infections in patients with HIV

A

abundant acid-fast bacilli within macrophages

191
Q

number one mycobacterium causing death in HIV

A

m. avium inrtracellulare

192
Q

Causes fish tank granuloma

A

m. marinum

193
Q

soitary cervical lymph nodes in kids

A

m. scrofulaceum

194
Q

fast growing mycobacterium spp

A

m. fortuitum

195
Q

acid fast, photochromogen(little or no pigment when grown in the dark but becomes highly pigmented when grown in light) mycobacterium spp

A

m. marinum

m. kansasii

196
Q

cornerstone diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis

A

Lumbar puncture:
CSF leukocye: up to 1000/uL
CSF glucose <40mg/dL
CSF protein 1-8g/L

197
Q

gold standard diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis

A

culture

198
Q

Major cause of meningitis in newborn

A

s. agalactiae

199
Q

Major cause of meningitis in children

A

h. influenzae

200
Q

Major cause of meningitis in young adults

A

n. meningitidis

201
Q

Major cause of meningitis in elderly

A

s. pneumonia

202
Q

Major cause of meningitis in AIDS patients

A

c. neoformans

203
Q

diseases caused by H. Influenzae

A 
think (haEMOPhilus)
Epiglottitis
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
204
Q

Greenish metallic sheen on culture media

A

H. Influenzae

205
Q

2 growth factors required by H. Influenze

A

X hematin

V- NAD

206
Q

most important virulence factor of H. Influenzae

A

type B capsule

207
Q

a phenomenon in which h. influenzae grows near s. aureus on blood agar

A

satellite phenomenon

208
Q

K antigen

A

capsular antigen

209
Q

O antigen

A

somatic AG

210
Q

H antigen

A

Flagellar antigen

211
Q

virulence factor in neonatal sepsis and meningitis

A

K1 capsule endotoxin

212
Q

most common cause of UTI

A

e. coli

213
Q

causative strain for traveler’s diarrhea

A

ETEC

214
Q

2nd Most common cause of neonatal meningitis

A

E. COLI

215
Q

aka Traveler’s diarrhea

A

Montezuma’s revenge

216
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome causative agent

A

EHEC

217
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome triad

A

think (ART/RAT)
anemia
thrombocytopenia
renal failure

218
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome toxin

A

verotoxin (Shiga-LIKE)

219
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome most common serotype

A

E. COLI 0157:H7

220
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome associated food

A

undercooked beef (hamburger)

221
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome associated plant

A

Spinach

222
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome on spinach serotype

A

E. Coli EHEC 0104:H2

223
Q

special serotype of E. Coli associated with outbreaks of infantile diarrhea among nursery patients

A

enteropathogenic E. Coli (EPEC)

224
Q

Causative agent of honeymoon cystitis

A

E. COLI

225
Q

Motile rods, with peritrichous flagella

A

salmonella

226
Q

s. typhi and s. paratryphi serotypes which use man as hosts

A

serotypes A B C

227
Q

s. typhi reservoir

A

gallbladder

228
Q

typhoid fever is seen on which samples on 1st 2nd and 3rd week

A

1st week:blood
2nd: urine
3rd: stools
think(BUS)

229
Q

typhoid fever diagnostic tests

A

widal test

typhidot

230
Q

typhoid fever physical findings

A 
fever, ab pain
rash(rose spots)
hepatosplenomegally
epistaxis
relative bradycardia at peak of high fever
231
Q

typhoid fever tx

A

choramphenicol

chloromycetin

232
Q

typhoid meningitis tx

A

ceftriaxone 2grams iv q 12 hours

233
Q

gram(-) curved bacilli, oxidase(+), single polar flagella

A

vibrio

234
Q

culture media for vibrios

A

TCBS- Thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose agar

235
Q

rice watery stool

A

vibrio cholerae

236
Q

v. cholera toxin causing pandemic

A

v. cholera 01- el tor

237
Q

vibrio, hemolysin, gastroenteritis, seafoods

A

v. parahemolyticus

238
Q

strain causing vibrio cellulitis

A

vibrio vulnificus

239
Q

proteus antigens that cross-react withvarious strains of rickettsiae

A

OX-19, OX-2, OX-K

240
Q

Proteus spp type of motility

A

swarming motility

241
Q

Proteus spp type of flagella

A

peritrichous

242
Q

Proteus spp pathogenic factor

A

urease production

243
Q

Proteus spp type of renal stone

A

stag horn renal stone

magnesium-ammonium phosphate

244
Q

pseudomonas pigments:

A

pyocyanin(blue-green)

fluorescein(green-yellow, fluorescent)

245
Q

pseudomonas culture media

A

King’s A and B media

246
Q

characteristic smell of pseudomonas culture

A

grape like

247
Q

yellow-gren pigment that fluoresces under UV light, detects early infection in burn patient

A

pyoverdin

248
Q

colors the pus in wound blue, damages cilia and mucosal clls of the respiratory tract

A

pyocyanin

249
Q

pseudomonas type of skin lesion characterized by vesicles or blisters which rapidly evolve into pustules and necrotic ulcers with undermined tender erythematous border.

A

icthyma gangrenosum

250
Q

causative agent: hot tub folliculitis, burn patients, icthyma gangrenosum

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

251
Q

most common causative agent for Otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

252
Q

most common cause of pneumonia in ICU patients, ventilator associated, and cystic fibrosis

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

253
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa DOC

A

Ceftazidime

254
Q

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa coverage PO antibiotic

A

ciprofloxacin

255
Q

Greenish metalic sheen

A

E. Coli

ASS Microbiology (2 decks)

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