MyBECNotes Flashcards

1
Q

Direct cost?

A

DM and DL

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2
Q

Indirect Cost?

A

Indirect M, Indirect L and Factory O/H

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3
Q

prime cost and conversion cost?

A

DM (purchased,freight-in,(returns)) plus DL. DL plus O/H applied (could be used when furnishing material used in manufacturing a product)

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4
Q

When is depreciation, rent, taxes, utilities and insurance part of inventory cost?

A

part of other indirect cost that are related to the factory. may go either way (B/S or G/A)

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5
Q

How many and what are the ERM components?

A

RISK CONTROL. 4 objectives and 8 components(criteria to evaluate effectiveness). internal environment (authority and responsibility)/control activity (policies and procedures)/ info and communication(identification of info)/ monitoring (addresses deficiencies).

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6
Q

Control environment component suggest stronger controls by

A

financial reporting competency retaining qualified personnel to handle financial reporting

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7
Q

Issuer must have a financial expert or if not then

A

disclose the existence of financial expert or reasons why not

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8
Q

To be considered a financial expert must have the following requirements:

A

understand GAAP and FS’s, assess application of principles, experience compared to other similar entities, understand internal controls and audit committee.

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9
Q

Public companies are required to establish an

A

audit committee that addresses problems related to inadequate board oversight

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10
Q

SEC standards for code of ethics includes

A

provisions of internal control and accountability. Not required by SOX

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11
Q

Mgt is not required to disclose

A

Any disagreements b/w mgt and auditor, if any.

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12
Q

SOX focuses more on issues like

A

audit committee competence, ethical behavior and adequacy of internal controls

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13
Q

Communication from external auditor to mgt and BOD regarding achievement of internal control objectives complies w/ principle of

A

external communication

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14
Q

COSO (Treadway) was established by

A

private sponsoring organizations on 1992. issued the integrated framework to help business develop EFFECTIVE INTERNAL CONTROLS

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15
Q

insuring against losses or entering in a joint venture to address risk is known as

A

risk sharing

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16
Q

Method for identifying risks from an event from a specific industry is called

A

event inventory. mgt brainstorm is called a facilitated workshop

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17
Q

Residual risk is

A

the risk that remains after management responds to such risk

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18
Q

control activity is the method used to implement

A

response to risk

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19
Q

Evaluation of EE’s for competence is linked w/

A

HR policies and financial objectives

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20
Q

The BOD has the responsibility to act on behalf and in the best interest of the Co. as a

A

fiduciary in relation to the Co.

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21
Q

Co.’s will not go beyond risk appetite, but it is exceeded if

A

negative events exceeds residual risks(still negative after procedures performed)

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22
Q

Strategic objective refers to

A

broad company-wide, to produce a service in top quartile. related objectives are more specific prepared in support of broader strategic.

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23
Q

Does a Co. director follow info provided by mgt?

A

No. Director may or may not follow info provided by corporation officers(mgt)

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24
Q

If a director has conflict of interest in a certain transaction, then is consider

A

a void transaction unless it can be prove it was fair to the Co.

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25
Q

The business judgment rule refers to

A

principle that protects directors (and not shareholders) for acting in good faith and having such power to take action

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26
Q

Some ERM goals are

A

provide assurance of objectives and that goals are achieved, achieve financial and performance target. considers both negative (risks) and positive (opportunities) events

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27
Q

Change controls considers

A

how mgt monitors and authorizes change in info tech manners

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28
Q

Data integrity requires

A

data to be accurate and complete

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29
Q

Change mgt refers to

A

outside individuals who specialized in providing expertise to Co. undergoing significant changes as new system implementations

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30
Q

ERM is define as a

A

process effected by BOD, mgt and other personnel

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31
Q

Effective internal controls should not fail if

A

design changes as process changes. should adapt to such change

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32
Q

Benchmark is when

A

a Co. compares financial info to the one published

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33
Q

Total Productivity Ratio/ partial productivity ratio considers

A

all inputs and prices of those inputs calculated as qty produced in period divided by cost of inputs/ concerned only w/ qty of single input calculated as output produces divided by qty of single input

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34
Q

Effective performance measures should

A

balance both long and short term issues

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35
Q

performance feat that managers understand and can manage easier than financial performance are

A

nonfinancial measures

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36
Q

Tool used to evaluate error (individual and cumulative) rates and process that combines both histogram and line graph is

A

Pareto diagram

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37
Q

Net sales value at split-off is defined as

A

sales price less the cost to complete(deductible cost). does not equal to joint costs

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38
Q

Changing acct from by-product to joint product affects overall gross margin?

A

Yes. by-product net’s the selling cost to COGS thus causing a lower gross margin. joint product selling expense is subtracted from gross margin after computed thus not affecting the prior formula.

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39
Q

Managerial acct focuses on internal/external users, future or historical costs?

A

internal users (mgt) and future profits. FS and other financial reports, historical cost is focused the financial accounting.

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40
Q

If under applied O/H procedures should be to,

A

closed out to COGS. If consider material then it will be allocated to ending WIP, FG and COGS

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41
Q

What’s costing by activity base costing?

A

collects financing and operating data on nature of cost drivers. uses either job costing or process costing. the production process assumes activity based resources. multiple cause and effect may exist which is not acceptable for external reporting but helpful for internal. emphasizes LT product analysis. normally results in greater unit cost for low volume than traditional and greater cost pool

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42
Q

Would the issue of indirect materials increase O/H control?

A

It would decrease store controls thus increase O/H controls

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43
Q

Non value added cost can be

A

moving, handling and storing a product are considered one of the most significant activities

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44
Q

Joint cost will must likely be allocated based on

A

unit volume, sales at spin off and NRV

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45
Q

Cost driver is defined as

A

casual factor that increases the total cost of a cost objective. causes cost to increase as activities increases

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46
Q

Cost that varies in total but is fixed in unit

A

A variable cost

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47
Q

Spoilage allocation will considered

A

normal spoilage to product cost and abnormal spoilage to I/S

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48
Q

Cost that bears an observable and known relationship to a quantifiable activity base

A

engineered cost

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49
Q

Target cost

A

a predetermined standard cost that should be attained

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50
Q

Process costing

A

method of allocating production costs to products and services, usually accumulated by department rather than job

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51
Q

One purpose of cost allocation is to

A

measure income and assets for external reporting

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52
Q

Departmental rate rather than plant-wide rate would be use if

A

manufactured products differs in resources consumed from departments

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53
Q

Can cost allocation analysis explain why sales increase?

A

No. ex: whether manager deserves bonus, product line discontinued, particular dept expanded

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54
Q

What cost base should be used for more than one product produced and not uniformly consume

A

Activity base costing. Limitation to ABC, expense of obtaining cost data is high

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55
Q

When is absorption costing income greater than variable costing income?

A

When production is greater than sales causing inventory to increase. When production is less than sales, inventory declines causes lower net income. GAAP use for external reporting purposes

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56
Q

Analysis that assumes all variable cost and revenues are constant on a per unit basis and linear over a range.

A

Breakeven analysis. Total fixed cost are assume to be constant

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57
Q

How is fixed manufactured O/H treated under variable cost and under absorption(full cost)?

A

as period cost and expensed and as product cost and inventoried.

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58
Q

Is contribution margin a better measure of profit than gross profit?

A

Yes. gross profit includes COGS but excludes other variable costs

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59
Q

Which costing base produces lower inventory value?

A

variable cost. other cost base includes fixed cost resulting in greater value than variable cost

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60
Q

Cost volume profit assumptions

A

total variable cost are directly proportional to volume over range

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61
Q

Relevant range/ relevant cost

A

range of activity where relationship of fixed cost and variable cost are valid/ expected future cost that vary w/ the action taken

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62
Q

What is opportunity cost?

A

Potential benefit lost by taking an action. Cost that would have been saved or profit earned if another decision had been taken. Financial acct does not incorporates opportunity cost. Ex. implicit cost (not explicit). value of next best use. Not possible if excess capacity is available

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63
Q

What is the lowest unit price that Co. may accept when producing?

A

Total variable cost (DM,DL,VO/H,V/expense)

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64
Q

Coefficient of determination is

A

R-squared, proportion of total variation in dependent variable explained by the independent variable. independent variable not explained by dependent variable. statistical measure use to evaluate results of regression analysis

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65
Q

Statistical model that estimates the dependent variables based on changes in independent variables

A

Regression equation. best that separates costs into fixed and variable

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66
Q

Independent variable is assumed in regression analysis based on

A

activity rather than cost

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67
Q

Point at which independent variable in terms of dependent variable intercepts y axis

A

intercept value

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68
Q

Delphi method

A

forecast method that relies most on judement. use multiple teams in remote locations

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69
Q

Learning curve method

A

increases efficiency by experience gained, typically better for long production runs. as qty doubles avg cost decreases by percentage of previous cost. Continues probability uses trial and error

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70
Q

Positive coefficient of correlation measures

A

Strong relationship were VC increases w/ volume. negative indicates VC decreases as volume increases. 0 indicates no relationship (as expected for FA not VC). Strongest number from 1 to -1

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71
Q

Last budget to produce is

A

Financial budget as cash and pro forma derived from operating budgets which are done first. (selling exp). sales volume is first step in budgeting development.

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72
Q

Static budget

A

Includes budget costs and outputs not adjusted for actual performance

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73
Q

Adjust budget amt for various activity levels

A

Flexible budget

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74
Q

Does inflation rates impact expenses?

A

Yes. except depreciation exp (historical value) and fixed costs

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75
Q

Standards imposed by mgt w/o EE input is called?

A

Authoritative standards

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76
Q

Budget based on sales w/ +/- inventory levels

A

Production budget

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77
Q

Master budget vs flexible budget

A

Master is overall budget based on one specific level of production. Flexible budget based on dif activity within relevant range.

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78
Q

Expected value statistic

A

Most useful when risk is priority since it assigns probabilities to potential outcome and single value outcome

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79
Q

Flexible budget

A

Budget based on dif activity within relevant range. good for any activity w/ variable cost. provides adj for dif levels of activities

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80
Q

Order of budget preparation

A

Sales, production, DM purchase, cash disbursements, I/S and B/S

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81
Q

Manufacturing industries as well as service industries may use what type of cost system

A

Standard cost

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82
Q

Balance scorecards

A

Measurement tool to evaluate multiple view of business outcomes from critical success factors such as HR innovation (learning and growth), business process, customer satisfaction(low values & target mkt) and financial reporting.

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83
Q

Return on investment

A

Evaluates business performance in terms of revenues, expense and investment

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84
Q

Controllable margin

A

Margin net of controllable fixed cost(cost that mgrs impact in less than 1 yr)

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85
Q

What affects a decision process?

A

disposal price, cost of new equip, operating cost of new equip.

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86
Q

Which method considers compounding returns?

A

NPV method. uses cash basis, reinvest positive cashflows measures capital in $ and time value of money. focuses on cashflows

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87
Q

Depreciation tax shield

A

When depreciation protects income from being taxable and may result in after tax inflow

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88
Q

NPV calculation is

A

PV inflow - PV outflow

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89
Q

Payback period calculation

A

Initial investment / annual inflow. relies on future data forecast

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90
Q

Profitability index

A

Use for capital rationing. variation of NPV. ratio to calculate PV of inflows compared to PV of outflows. Requires long term forecasts of project’s

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91
Q

Internal rate of return

A

Uses PV concepts to value investment and CFlow’s. called time adjusted rate of return

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92
Q

How many committees and which are they?

A

4 committees. executive, nominating, compensating, audit (3 which 1 should be consider expert)

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93
Q

Operating leverage

A

When Co uses fixed cost instead of VC to magnify results of dollars in sale

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94
Q

Financial leverage

A

Co uses debt to finance itself

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95
Q

Combined leverage

A

Co uses both fixed operating and fixed financing

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96
Q

Debt financing benefits compared to equity financing

A

int are tax deductible (hipotecas) so high taxes and high int will benefit debt financing. debt commands lower return than equity

97
Q

Cost of debt most frequently used

A

int rate minus tax savings

98
Q

WAC of capital

A

Maximizes the shareholders equity. optimal capitalization is determined by minimizing/lowering total WACC.

99
Q

How capital investment increases value of the firm

A

if rate of return exceeds rate associated w/ Co. beta factor

100
Q

Cost of capital considers all types of funds?

A

Yes. whether long term, short term, new or old.

101
Q

Capital asset pricing model (CAPM)

A

method use to calculate rate of return on R/E’s

102
Q

Disadvantage of ROI vs RI

A

ROI may lead to rejecting projects that return positive CF. No more nor less capable of being manipulated than other performance measures. Mgt should not decide to delay or avoid investing in new PPE. does not balance b/w long term and short term. May focused mgrs. on maximizing short term

103
Q

How does investment of new asset @ yr end affects ROI and RI?

A

It decreases both since investment increases

104
Q

Economic value added

A

Residual income in excess of the cost of capital

105
Q

Technique which delays outflow of cash is called

A

draft. delays cash outflow and increases payable. lock box system accelerates inflow of funds

106
Q

Mkt rate of int on treasury bill is

A

sum of risk free rate and inflation premium

107
Q

If Co becomes conservative w/ capital, which ratio will increase?

A

current assets/ noncurrent assets

108
Q

Average collection measures

A

to evaluate liquidity of the Co. through calculation of cash

109
Q

Material requirement planning (MRP)

A

mgt technique to project and plan inventory level to control usage of RM and WIP in production process

110
Q

Safety stock increases if

A

risk of running out increases

111
Q

Economic order quantity increases if

A

carrying cost decreases or sales increases and cost per order increases. Anticipates order where carrying cost are near restocking cost. demand is known for formula

112
Q

Why would a Co. finance temp assets w/ short term?

A

Matching maturities of assets and liab reduces risk. policy to minimize risk by matching maturity dates b/w assets and liab.

113
Q

Just in time inventory model

A

reduces lag time b/w inv arrival and usage.

114
Q

Kanban inv control model

A

prevents oversupply or interruption of process from lack of material

115
Q

What it means to have a higher current ratio?

A

More liquidity

116
Q

Cash conversion cycle is

A

inventory conversion period plus A/R collections less payable deferral.

117
Q

Disadvantage of symmetric encrypt

A

Both sender and receiver must have private key for encryption to work

118
Q

Asymmetric encryption

A

private key not shared which other half will have to obtain key to encrypt/decrypt. is use as public key to encrypt and private key to decrypt. anyone can encrypt only intended user can decrypt

119
Q

Son, father, grandfather are what type of backups?

A

backups son is called for most recent backup, father second recent and so on. steps are to read previous file, record transactions and create new master file.

120
Q

Public key infrastructure (PKI)

A

represents mechanism use to issue asymmetric keys and digital certificates

121
Q

End user files running separately from mainframe may cause

A

problems w/ undetected errors

122
Q

Program modification control

A

controls over the modification program being used, attempts to prevent changes and track changes for record. includes mgt tool and request tracking tool

123
Q

Supply chain mgt concerned w/ 4 elements:

A

what, when and where of sales/transactions

124
Q

CRM system

A

provide sales automation and services in order to increase customer satisfaction and customer revenue

125
Q

Electronic data interchange (EDI) benefits

A

transmit data using standard controls all the time since its done by the system instead of a person (meaning transaction would need to be complete in order to work). exchange of info b/w two Co. (externally, never internally). requires organizations to enter into a contract and have prior relationship. uses same standard for same industries

126
Q

E-cash (digital cash) benefits

A

web site that maintains financial privacy ex. paypal

127
Q

Enterprise resource planning (ERP)

A

integrates multiple functional areas in business operations. coordinates info to ensure timely responsive reporting data support of decisions. cross functional system that is design to integrate data from all aspects of an organization activities. meant for mgrs not executives

128
Q

Ad hoc report

A

report that does not exist but needs to be created under demand for specific requirements w/o having to get a software involved

129
Q

Distributed processing environment most beneficial when

A

large volumes of data at dif locations and fast access is required

130
Q

Sequence of events in an AIS

A
  1. data from source doc entered into AIS 2. original doc file 3.transactions recorded in appropriate journal 4.tranx posted to GL and subs 5.TB prepared 6. FS reports (best to solve problems to certain and clearly defined reporting requirements). customized to needs of particular Co. set up to handle large volume of tranx
131
Q

Business info system (BIS)

A

general term for info tech that includes hardware, software, network, people and data. allows for data to be: collected, process, store, transform and distribute

132
Q

Individual tranx cycles are for

A

numerous but similar and processed identical

133
Q

Group codes

A

includes intelligence into identification numbers

134
Q

Transaction logs

A

includes all tranx against master files. includes identification of personnel making the tranx. usually for large numbers.

135
Q

Database management system

A

system used by others to store and manage data

136
Q

Relevance

A

defines quality of data and info that has greater impact in mgtm decision making

137
Q

Reasonableness

A

cks and edit for math errors

138
Q

Online analytical system

A

allows users to retrieve data and perform analysis

139
Q

Firewall

A

electronic device that maintains control of two networks. user id and authorization that prevents unauthorized users from gaining access a network. do not protect or prevent against viruses

140
Q

Application control

A

specific to particular process that controls what websites can be viewed

141
Q

System programmers

A

work with operating system and compilers. when developed internally a lot of money will be put on maintenance. maintenance is not simple. should not be combined w/ application programmers

142
Q

Application programmers

A

should not be given full write off access only testing. should not be combined w/ system programmers. apply approved changes

143
Q

Can data admi and network admi be the same person?

A

Yes, although not likely since very specialized skills are required

144
Q

Decision support system (DSS)

A

computer based info system that provides interactive support to managers or others during decision-making

145
Q

Executive information system (EIS)

A

provides strategic info tailored to the needs of top mgmt. designed to obtain data from dif sources, to combine, integrate data. provides immediate access to executives. NOT widely used throughout and organization.

146
Q

MIS Steering committee

A

formed to guide and oversee system development and acquisition

147
Q

Data elements

A

should always be included in system specification document

148
Q

Control Objective for Information Related Technology (COBIT) framework

A

7 info criteria’s: Integrity, Confidentiality, Efficiency, Reliability, Availability, Compliance and Effectiveness.

149
Q

COBIT five focus areas for IT governance

A

value delivery, strategic alignment, resource mgmt, risk mgmt, performance measure

150
Q

System analyst

A

responsible for adapting and integrates new system w/ old system. trains EE to use it.

151
Q

Emphasis on disaster restoration is

A

operating functionality

152
Q

Factors for a disaster plan:

A

Alternate processing site, backup and offsite storage procedures, identification of critical applications, test of plan

153
Q

Business continuity plan compared to disaster recovery plan

A

continuation of all areas of the business not just information system. daily bakups does not ensure a timely recovery.

154
Q

Incremental backups

A

copies only data items that changed since last bakup

155
Q

Off site mirror web servers

A

server that takes over almost immediately over a disaster

156
Q

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)

A

use for disk storage

157
Q

Intranets

A

connects separate LAN’s in dif. locations to and organization. generally use psswd and firewall. same web browser as internet browser

158
Q

Database management System (DMS) advantages

A

data independence, one time entry, reduce data redundancy, ability to expand data fields, accessibility increases timeline/effectiveness/availability.

159
Q

Database management System (DMS) disadvantages

A

more highly tech personnel required, audit trails obscured bz movement of data from one file to the other, breakdown in hardware more severe than having separate files.

160
Q

Virtual memory

A

where portions of a program not being executed are stored but NOT real memory

161
Q

Processing power measured in

A

(MIPS) millions of instructions per second

162
Q

Multiprocessing factor

A

efficiency loss when multiple computers and processes at the same time

163
Q

Ex. of program languages

A

C, C+, Java (can be included in web pages and downloaded in web browser

164
Q

Pattern recognition

A

used to identify data trends and possible useful info

165
Q

Extranet

A

network that links intranet of Co to other Co or individuals. not a software

166
Q

Distributed database

A

database distributed on dif pieces on local or remote

167
Q

Unix

A

runs interactive, time sharing, online applications divided in two pieces (kernel, allocation, security, access and shell, input, runs commands)

168
Q

Concurrent data control

A

control that addresses conflicts when users simultaneously attempt to access data

169
Q

Trough of business cycle

A

economic low point w/ no positive indicators in the future. caused by unused productive capacity and unwillingness to risk new investment

170
Q

Recession can be caused by

A

period of falling GDP and rising unemployment. decrease in demand and in aggregate supply

171
Q

Expansionary fiscal policy

A

increase gvt purchases (investment) or decrease taxes. int rates to decrease, increase inv and increase demand. increase in money supply ex. of monetary policy not fiscal.

172
Q

A tax cut at the peak level will cause

A

price level to rise and inflation

173
Q

An increase in payroll wages will cause

A

price level to increase and real GDP to decrease (shift to the left)

174
Q

At the peak level capacity constraints and labor shortage will cause

A

pressure on overall price level

175
Q

What industry is not affected by business cycles?

A

Healthcare industry. medical service will always be needed.

176
Q

Real GDP per capita

A

standard use to compare economy across countries or time

177
Q

GDP includes

A

total monetary value of all final goods and services produced in 1 yr

178
Q

Cyclical unemployment

A

not consistent when economy is operating at full employment

179
Q

Cost inflation (push)

A

shift left in supply. increase in cost ex. increase oil price

180
Q

Demand inflation (pull)

A

shift right in demand

181
Q

Frictional unemployment

A

can occur during good season. refers to time needed to match qualified job seekers w/ available jobs. moving b/w jobs

182
Q

Structural unemployment

A

mismatch b/w EE skills and available EEment

183
Q

GDP expenditure approach

A

gvt expenditures, capital investment, consumption & net exports

184
Q

Discount rate

A

rate charged by federal reserve for loans to banks

185
Q

How can federal reserve increase money supply?

A

purchasing or selling gvt securities, raising or lowering discount rates, changing reserve ratio

186
Q

What will cause the selling gvt sec on the mkt, increase discount rate and increase reserve ratio?

A

it will decrease the money supply

187
Q

Real interest rate

A

nominal int rate - inflation rate

188
Q

Inflation measures

A

rate at which overall price increases

189
Q

Stagflation

A

combination of rising unemployment and price level

190
Q

Deflation

A

decline in overall price level (inflation rate negative). increase money supply will cause overall price level to rise

191
Q

Consumer price index (CPI)

A

compares relative price change over time. monthly data that measures rate of inflation by cost of mkt of specific goods commonly purchased by consumers. concentrates on past data not future data

192
Q

Disposable income

A

personal income net of personal taxes

193
Q

On a perfectly competitive mkt, consumers

A

have goods and services produce at the lowest cost in the long term

194
Q

Perfect competition assumptions

A

customers can buy from any Co, level of Co output is small related to industry total output, freedom of in and out of the industry. a “price taker” cannot change price.

195
Q

Co’s maximizes its profit by producing at

A

marginal revenue = marginal cost and price exceeds both

196
Q

Natural monopoly

A

when economic and technical conditions permit only one efficient supplier

197
Q

Barrier to entry

A

prevents Co’s from entering the mkt to compete against existing Co.

198
Q

Characteristics of monopolistic competition

A

numerous Co w/ dif products, easy entry- few barriers, Co influence over price and mkt, non-price competition frequent and critical. large sellers dif products. horizontal demand curve

199
Q

Oligopoly

A

few sellers w/ dif products, high barriers to entry, dif products, fixed prices, kinked demand curve

200
Q

Under perfect condition strategic plans focus on

A

maintaining mkt share and being responsive to mkt conditions related to sales price.

201
Q

Under monopoly competition, strategic plans focus on

A

maintaining mkt shares and planning for enhanced product differentiation

202
Q

Under monopoly, strategic plans focus on

A

profitability from product level that maximize profits

203
Q

Under oligopoly, strategic plans focus on

A

production volume and price change

204
Q

Elasticity of demand or supply

A

measure of how sensitive the demand for or supply of product is to change in its price

205
Q

Value chain analysis

A

starts w/ supplier, then Co, then value created by customers and lastly w/ disposal and recycling of material. part of the strategic plan

206
Q

Vertical linkage analysis

A

understanding the activities of suppliers and buyers

207
Q

Competition becomes a stronger force by

A

mkt not growing fast. several equal firms, no brand preferences, cost of exiting exceeds cost of continuing, profits from making moves, dif strategy plans

208
Q

Dif advantage occurs when Co

A

builds mkt share or increases prices

209
Q

SCOR model

A

deliver- managing A/R and collections
plan- ability of supplier to supply resources
make- implements changes in engineering
source- collecting and processing vendor payments

210
Q

What can determine elasticity?

A

number of substitutes for the product

211
Q

Inelastic supply curve

A

vertical representing is insensitive to the change in price

212
Q

SWOT analysis

A

evaluates internal and external factors

213
Q

Theory of Constraints (TOC) analysis

A

evaluates techniques for optimizing throughput time

214
Q

Economies of scale

A

for larger production process, process becomes more efficient causing productivity to increase. diminishing return is the exact opposite

215
Q

Law of diminishing return

A

increase past some point causes less proportionate increase in production (ex. excess of pizza)

216
Q

Microeconomic analysis of supply

A

in the long run all supply inputs are variable

217
Q

Factors that contribute to economies of scale:

A
  1. labor/managerial specialization
  2. utilization of by products
  3. efficient use of capital
  4. volume discount purchasing
218
Q

Michael Porter 5 forces that affects profitability:

A
  1. existence of substitute product
  2. barriers to mkt entry
  3. bairganing power of customers
  4. mkt competitiveness
  5. bargaining power of suppliers
219
Q

Collusive pricing

A

maintains higher prices to external customers than it would be to competitive mkt

220
Q

Game theory

A

study of mathematical models b/w rational decision makers

221
Q

Inter industry competition

A

Co of dif industries competing one another

222
Q

Quality control program includes:

A
  1. prevention (maintenance)
  2. appraisal (product testing)
  3. internal failure (rework)
  4. external failure (product repair-warranty)
223
Q

Just in time purchase systems

A

reduces number of suppliers and very close relationship developed

224
Q

Appraisal cost ex. of quality control

A

product testing, statistical sample, inspection

225
Q

Total quality management (TQM)

A

organizational commitment to customers focused on performance that emphasizes quality and continuous improvement

226
Q

Theory of constraints

A

maximized throughput(units of goods produced and sold) by alleviating constraints

227
Q

Globalization

A

represents increased dispersion and integration of the world economies. growth in world as a % in GDP. increase specialization for individual economies

228
Q

International monetary fund

A

stabilizes exchange rates but does not regulate currency values

229
Q

Sourcing requirements

A

value added limits on the percentage of labor. compliance w/ limits results in tariff reductions

230
Q

Foreign trade zone

A

delays tariff until products leave certain location

231
Q

Unipolar

A

power concentrated in one nation

232
Q

Global sourcing implications

A

use of worldwide supply chain

233
Q

Floating rates

A

maintains constant mkt value

234
Q

Internal auditing define by Institute of Internal Auditors (IIA) as

A

independent objective assurance and consulting activity that adds value and improve Co operations

235
Q

Effective mgmt on internal audits must meet the following:

A

international standards, code of ethic and international professional practice framework,

236
Q

Categories of risk

A
  1. diversifiable
  2. Unsystematic (non-mkt/Co specific)
  3. Nondiversifiable
  4. Systematic (mkt)
237
Q

Call options

A

allows but not requires purchaser of call to acquire the currency at a specified time. 71

238
Q

High low method advantage and disadvantages

A

easy and inexpensive to used but least accurate method