MyAUDNotes Flashcards

1
Q

The phrase US GAAP term refers as

A

necessary to define accepted acct. principle at a particular time, since it changes over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Audit evidence should be

A

appropriate to determine reasonable assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Auditor’s Opinion

A

a statement that the FS present fairly, in all material respects, the financial position of the entity as of the balance sheet date and the results of operations and its cash flows for the period then ended, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The PCAOB was established by

A

the Sarbanes Oxley Act in 2002, issuers=public Co.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If PY FS audited by someone else, and current year only showing PY statements and not report of prior auditor, current year auditor should indicate

A
  1. PY FS audited by someone else (without name)
  2. date of PY report
  3. type of report issued
  4. if other than unmodified, substantive reasons for it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if auditor reissues the audit report with no changes, auditor should use

A

the original report date on reissued report. use of subsequent date implies additional work has been done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Uncertainty of FS

A

when auditor cannot express an opinion in any of the statements. if properly disclosed, not need of emphasis paragraph if not disclosed then use emphasis paragraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If cannot express and opinion in a statement bz it may materially affect the FS

A

a disclaimer of opinion for those specific statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dual date is use

A

only when subsequent event occurs after the original date and auditor wants to extend responsibility only for the one event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When reissuing the FS, the PY auditor should obtain a rep letter from

A

management (if any PY reps from management should be modified) and current year auditor (if new FS disclosed any matter affecting PY’s FS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a subsequent material event affects the audit report and the BOD cannot provide the proper AJE, auditor should

A

notify the creditors about subsequent event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If after report auditor finds out of matter that would have affected PY report, auditor should

A
  1. make sure that information is reliable
  2. determine whether other are relying on the FS
  3. perform alternative procedures
  4. request management to disclose such matters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The factor most likely to cause the auditor to apply omitted procedures if

A

omitting impairs the ability to support previous opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A reporting accountant written report on the application of framework should include

A

identification of specific entity, description of nature of engagement, performed in accordance to AICPA, specific transactions, relevant facts, circumstances, assumptions, and source of info, prepares are responsible of FS, separate paragraph restricting use of report and statement indicating if not independence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If material inconsistency from other info w/ FS, auditor should

A
  1. obtain info as to whether FS requires revision,
  2. ask client to remove inconsistency
  3. communicate matter to BOD
    then,
  4. revise the other matter report
  5. withhold use of report
  6. withdraw from engagement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If FS are presented w/ client other matter info., the report

A

may include other matter paragraph but is not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management plans to mitigate the adverse effect of events are

A
  1. postponed expenditures (includes R&D)
  2. dispose assets
  3. borrow money or restructure debt
  4. increase ownership equity (sell stk)
    (things that will improve a weak cashflow)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what can result in b/w adverse or qualified opinion

A

inadequate disclosure of entity to continue as going concern. (scope limitations are either qualified or disclaimer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If substantial doubt of going concern (negative trends) or justified departure from GAAP , the auditor

A

can express unmodified opinion w/ emphasis of matter or disclaimer opinion. in such report should include “substantial doubt and going concern” but not include the time period in emphasis of matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If unable to form opinion on opening balances, audit should

A

issue opinion in closing B/S only and disclaim (do not express) and opinion in all other statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If uncertainty is properly disclose, auditor opinion should be

A

unmodified opinion since properly disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If PY going concern has been removed in CY, CY report should

A

not include reasons for removal nor entity recovery plan and not repeat emphasis paragraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Under US GAAP, if group partner is satisfied as to independence and professional reputation of component, auditor may

A

take full responsibility of the component work by not mentioning them in such report

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When auditor mentions component auditor in his report, it will include such reference

A

it will modify his report but not add emphasis of matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When change in principle materially affects comparability, auditor should present such matter

A

in emphasis of matter but could be unmodified if meets GAAS requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When management does not provides justification for change in principle the auditor should

A

express a qualified opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If likely that an entity operations will be discontinued, it should be disclosed in the FS, if not auditor should express

A

a qualified opinion since failure to disclose is a departure from GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A report of a public Co. (issuer) should refer to engagement being performed in accordance to

A

PCAOB in scope paragraph and GAAP in the opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

going concern period by GAAS and IAS covers

A

GAAS is no more than 1 yr, IAS at least 1 yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The introductory paragraph indicates

A

nature of engagement, FS covered, name of entity and dates covered by audit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If unaudited FS are presented w/ audited FS, auditor should

A

either reissued unaudited FS or include separate paragraph indicating responsibility assumed for unaudited FS (for public, should mark “unaudited” but not referred to)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For compiled FS that omits PY disclosures by GAAP are

A

not comparable to FS that includes disclosures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If comparative FS and PY opinion was qualified, CY separate paragraph should include

A

reasons for PY qualified opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

letters for underwriters

A

provides negative assurance on unaudited interim FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Comfort letter

A

letter from independent AUDITOR to underwriter of securities. expresses an opinion w/ pertinent requirements/compliance w/ the SEC. Contains negative assurance(not provided in compilations) from CPA to underwriter before the registration of securities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

If auditor disclaims an opinion on FS as a whole, auditor may express an opinion of

A

other reports that’s presented separately of the disclaimer of opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Single FS (B/S only) can be performed under GAAS

A

it involves special considerations of in the application of GAAS, materiality should be determine for single FS as separate engagement or w/ audit of complete FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are piecemeal opinion appropriate?

A

No. bz they may overshadow the disclaimer. it should be a separate element.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If FS are not appropriately titled requires to express a

A

qualified opinion w/ basis for modification paragraph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

An OCBOA reports should include

A

emphasis of matter w/ basis, footnote that describes it and indicating is not GAAP. provides positive assurance (negative assurance on reports on compliance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Restrictions as to use of the FS (only for BOD/others) will apply to

A

compliance report w/ regulatory requirement assuming is prepared based on audited FS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Statement of standard review (SSARS) applies to

A

nonissuers (private Co.). for public Co. PCAOB applies for reviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A review of interim FS does not provides info about

A

entity’s ability on going concern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The objective for review of interim FS are

A

to provide basis to whether material changes should be made to conform w/ GAAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If report on review of interim FS, auditor is

A

responsible to update events after date of report

46
Q

If quarterly data is not presented as required

A

auditor report must state company has not presented data

47
Q

When are modifications made for a review report

A

only when there is a departure from GAAP

48
Q

Are auditors reports required by SSARS (nonpublic/nonissuers) for compiled FS?

A

Yes. it is required by SSARS for compiled FS to include auditors report. if lacks independence it should be disclosed

49
Q

An accountant w/ a direct interest

A

is not independent and should not issue a report. It may only issue a compilation report if complies w/ such standards

50
Q

SSARS (statement on standard acct & review) is

A

for services for private Co. (nonisuer) not seeking audited statements and is not required to file FS w/ regulatory agencies. does not applies to personal plans/tax authorities/litigation service/valuation services

51
Q

knowledge of industry is required to perform special compilation or review before signing engagement?

A

No but in order to perform such engagement it does

52
Q

When auditor performs more than one level of service for a private Co. the report should be on the

A

highest level of service

53
Q

SSAE (statement of standard for attestation engagements) is

A

the guidance that provides w/ respect to compilation of financial projection. may result in reports related w/ laws and regulations

54
Q

WebTrust engagement is

A

attest designed to measure transaction integrity, info proctection, and disclosure of business practices for e-commerce

55
Q

EDIFACT refers to

A

standards developed electronic data interchange, commerce and transport in order to facilitate info flow among partners in dif industries

56
Q

Examination of financial forecast involves

A
  1. evaluating the preparation of future FS
  2. evaluating the underlying assumptions
  3. evaluating the presentation of future FS in conformity w/ AICPA
  4. issuing examination report
    also, states no responsibility on subsequent events and forecast and actual reports may differ
57
Q

partial presentations are

A

presentations of future FS that omits one or more essential elements

58
Q

When engaged in future FS the auditor must

A

inquire about principle used in future FS

59
Q

What are the general purpose framework and the special purpose?

A

GAAP & IFRS are general and any other is special

60
Q

A private Co. auditor should design test of details in order to ensure sufficient audit evidence to support

A

the planned level of assurance at the relevant assertion level

61
Q

Test of control would support

A

the planned level of control risk and evaluate mgmt. assertion of effective controls

62
Q

AICPA accounting trends and techniques is

A

annual survey of acct practices

63
Q

Auditor of a private Co. may refer to specialist used in report if

A

the results of specialist causes auditor to modify its opinion

64
Q

Does the auditor shares FS responsibility w/ internal auditor and/or specialist?

A

No. only responsible for the FS is the external auditor

65
Q

Total misstatements includes

A

factual, judgmental, projected misstatements. equals control risk and inherent risk which affects detection risk

66
Q

Opinion express by the auditor depends on

A

auditor estimate and unknown misstatements not by CAJE’s

67
Q

SEC assertions are

A
  1. existence
  2. completeness
  3. rights and obligations
  4. valuation, allocations and accuracy
  5. understandability and classification
  6. cutoff
68
Q

materiality

A

smallest aggregate level of misstatement that could be material to any one FS. uses both quantitative and qualitative factors. info that changes view of users

69
Q

Objectivity of internal auditor is

A

reflected by the organizational level to which the internal auditor reports

70
Q

Competence of internal auditor is reflected by

A

certifications, consistency of work performed, appropriate conclusions

71
Q

detection risk

A

risk audit procedures wont detect misstatement. opposite effect from substantive test and audit risk (material mistatement) that can be change to auditors discretion.

72
Q

Audit risk

A

risk of auditor failure to express free of material misstatement (control risk and inherent risk) opinion

73
Q

control risk

A

risk that entity’s controls wont detect errors in time. exist independently of FS audit. affect detection risk but not inherent risk

74
Q

When acquiring a new client, the written report should state that

A

any changes from the info provided may cause the report to change

75
Q

What reflects the attitude, awareness and actions of the BOD on the entity’s internal controls that includes management operating style, organizational structure, participation of BOD, assigning authority and HR policies and practices?

A

Control environment, consider the foundation of other controls

76
Q

Elements of internal controls

A

control environment, monitoring, info and communication sys, risk assessment and control activities

77
Q

Service organization of entity info system affects:

A

initiation, processing and reporting of entity’s transactions

78
Q

If controls are good but management can override is an example of

A

inherent risk limitations. includes collusion, human error and management override

79
Q

Reliance of data is affected by the

A

internal controls established. does not matter if e-file or manual files as long as good controls are in place

80
Q

Relevance of audit evidence depends on

A

timing of procedure, whether design to test for under/over statements and directly to test assertion

81
Q

Assertions to be tested for understatement of sales and for overstatement of sales

A

completeness for under and existence for over

82
Q

segregation of duties tested by

A

auditor personal knowledge by inquiries and observation procedures

83
Q

What statement is more predictable?

A

I/S is more predictable than B/S accounts

84
Q

understatement and overstatement assertions

A

understatement test completeness and overstatement test existence

85
Q

if engage in derivatives should examine

A

risk exposure and possible losses

86
Q

management opposing to confirmations auditor should

A

qualify the opinion as its a departure

87
Q

related party transactions

A

important on disclosures. ex. executives are always related party

88
Q

auditing accounting estimate, consider 4 elements:

A
  1. understanding estimate 2.review process for mgmt. estimate 3. develop expectation 4. subsequent events
89
Q

Should auditor communicate disagreements w/ BOD?

A

Yes. whether resolved or not

90
Q

What should be included in the rep letter that doesn’t includes materiality?

A
  1. mgmt responsibility of FS
  2. available evidence and complete minutes
  3. knowledge of mgmt. fraud
91
Q

significant deficiency

A

likelihood & magnitude of potential misstatement whether material or not should be communicated to both mgmt and BOD during or after audit

92
Q

significant and material deficiencies are reported to

A

mgtm and BOD. deficiencies are communicated to mgtm

93
Q

internal control scope limitation, material weakness and significant deficiency are given which opinion

A

limitation- disclaim or withdraw, material weak- adverse, significant- communicate w/ mgmt and BOD

94
Q

Does # of items on population affects sample size?

A

No, dollar amt on population has an effect

95
Q

understanding the client generally includes who’s responsibility?

A

auditors responsibility

96
Q

audit documentation indicates

A

work performed, who performed it and evidence obtained

97
Q

documentation completion dates

A

GAAS, 60 days after release/5 yrs retention

PCAOB, 45 days after release/7 yrs retention

98
Q

elements of quality control

A

1) performance 2)HR 3)client acceptance 4)responsibility 5)monitoring 6)ethical requirements

99
Q

embedded modules are

A

program that collects data & requires auditor to be involve in the design

100
Q

test data contains

A

invalid info. (tested by “dry run” client system in client computer under auditor control)

101
Q

parallel simulation is

A

when auditor reprocess the client data on his program and compares it w/ client

102
Q

what are audit sensitive positions that could affect independence?

A

cashier, internal auditor, supervisor, purchasing agent,

103
Q

lead partners must rotate after

A

5yrs and other partners after 7yrs (lead needs 5yr time out b4 getting back and others 2yrs. also, one year cool off before being hired at an important position by client

104
Q

tax services permitted if preapproved are

A

tax compliance, tax planning, tax advice (under IFAC internal audit service may be provided but not under US)

105
Q

member class that impairs independence

A

spouse, children, relative

106
Q

does consulting services and compilation need to be independent?

A

No.

107
Q

For IFAC must be independent for which periods?

A

period of FS being covered and time of engagement

108
Q

single audits

A

use risk base approach, materiality determine for each separate major fund

109
Q

if single audit material noncompliance is identified

A

express qualified or adverse opinion (like a departure)

110
Q

GAGAS (gvt standards)

A

responsibilities are expanded for 3 engagements:

  1. financial audit
  2. attestation
  3. performance audit