My shit

Question 1

It is the policy of this department that officers hold the highest regard for the _______ and ______of all persons and place minimal reliance upon the use of force.

Answer 1

dignity and liberty

Question 2

The department respects the sanctity of every human life, and the application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances where ______ means of force have failed or could not be reasonably considered.

Answer 2

lesser

Question 3

The Las Vegas Metropolitan Police Department is committed to protecting ______, their ______, and ______ while providing the best in public safety and service.

Answer 3

people, their property and rights

Question 4

The proper use of force is essential for ensuring ______ policing and for building trust in the community.

Answer 4

impartial

Question 5

Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the community and that ______ force degrades the legitimacy of that authority.

Answer 5

unreasonable

Question 6

______ ______, the appropriate exercise of discretion, and the adherence to department policy will always be the foundation of officer decision-making in the broad range of possible use of force situations

Answer 6

Sound judgment

Question 7

An officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize, and resolve an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources, and transitioning through force options.

Answer 7

de-escalation

Question 8

The movement, progression, or reduction from the application of one force type to another.

Answer 8

force transitions

Question 9

Broad categories of force options in escalating stages of intensity that are identified as low-level force, intermediate force, and deadly force.

Answer 9

levels of control

Question 10

An impending violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.

Answer 10

imminent threat

Question 11

An objective standard of force viewed from the perspective of a reasonable officer, without the benefit of 20/20 hindsight, and based on the totality of the circumstances presented at the moment the force is used.

Answer 11

objectively reasonable

Question 12

The placement of a subject’s body in a manner that does not restrict breathing
or obstruct the airway, i.e., on their side or upright.

Answer 12

recovery position

Question 13

An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part.

Answer 13

substantial bodily injury

Question 14

Officers may use force to protect themselves or others, overcome resistance, to effect a lawful detention, a lawful arrest, or to conduct a lawful ______. Officers should, if reasonable, make clear their intent to detain, arrest, or search the subject.

Answer 14

search

Question 15

The standard that courts use to examine whether a use of force is constitutional was first set forth in Graham v. Connor and expanded by subsequent court cases. The reasonableness of a
particular use of force must be judged from the perspective of a judicious officer on the scene, rather than with 20/20 vision of hindsight. The consideration must account for the fact that officers are often forced to make split-second judgments in circumstances that are ______, ______, and ______ ______.

Answer 15

tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving.

Question 16

Officers should start to develop a _____ ______ prior to arriving at the scene and, when applicable, utilize intervention techniques by coordinating approaches to persons who are in crisis, are believed to be mentally ill, or have developmental disabilities

Answer 16

tactical plan

Question 17

Clearly, not every potential violent confrontation can be de-escalated, but officers do have the ability to impact the direction and the outcome of many situations based on their ______-______ and the ______ they choose to employ.

Answer 17

decision-making and the tactics

Question 18

Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when officer use of reportable force is ______.

Answer 18

probable

Question 19

Supervisors Tactics for Armed Subject Response - STAR: Supervisors will also manage the deployment of resources and equipment. In dynamic and highly charged incidents, supervisors will provide clear direction and communication to officers regarding their ______ and ______.

Answer 19

positioning and roles

Question 20

At times, de-escalation may mean the timely and appropriate use of a lower force option to mitigate a later need to use greater force. Officers will make efforts to control a confrontation and not allow it to ______.

Answer 20

escalate

Question 21

Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Compliant -

Answer 21

Compliant – a person contacted by an officer who acknowledges direction or lawful orders given
and offers no resistance.

Question 22

Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Assaultive -

Answer 22

Assaultive – the subject demonstrates the intent to harm the officer, others or themselves.
Examples include:
a. A subject taking a fighting stance, punching, kicking, striking, or attacking with weapons
b. Other actions which present an imminent threat of physical harm
c. A subject fleeing while in control of weapon (e.g., firearm in a waistband)

Question 23

Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Obstructive -

Answer 23

Obstructive – the subject is uncooperative, not complying with an officer’s commands, or their physical actions are intended to prevent an officer from placing the subject in custody or under control; the subject’s actions are not directed at harming the officer or others.

Examples include:
a. Standing stationary and not moving upon lawful direction
b. Becoming “dead weight”
c. Holding onto a fixed object (e.g., utility pole or steering wheel) or locking arms with another during a protest
d. Walking or running away
e. Breaking the officer’s grip

Question 24

Levels of resistance are general categories of behavior or actions exhibited by a subject at the time of a police encounter:
Life-Threatening -

Answer 24

Life-Threatening – the subject’s actions are likely to result in death or substantial bodily injury to
the officer or others.

Examples include:
a. The imminent use of a firearm, blunt, or bladed weapon
b. Extreme physical force

Question 25

When subjects are at extremes of age (______ ______), physically frail, visibly or known to be pregnant, or disabled, officers will carefully weigh these factors and utilize de-escalation techniques, crisis intervention, or other alternatives to force when reasonable.

Answer 25

under 13 over 70

Question 26

Levels of Control are:

Answer 26

Low Level force Intermediate Force Deadly force

Question 27

Officers will not use an ECD or projectile weapon when the subject is in an elevated position where a fall is likely to result in substantial bodily injury or death unless the subject displays ______-______ resistance. This is particularly important when utilizing the ECD.

Answer 27

life-threatening

Question 28

Levels of control are broad categories of ______ and force in escalating stages of intensity.

Answer 28

influence

Question 29

To effectively de-escalate situations, officers will use advisements, warnings, and ______ ______.

Answer 29

verbal persuasion

Question 30

When possible, officers should attempt to develop a ______ and ______ ______ ; however, there are times where an officer will need to announce clear, assertive, and professional commands to control the situation

Answer 30

rapport and convey concern

Question 31

______ are not permitted. Officers will not use an arm bar across the throat or any technique that encircles the neck, including the Lateral Vascular Neck Restraint®(LVNR®). Any action that is likely to restrict the flow of air into a person’s lungs or blood into a person’s brain is prohibited (see NRS 289.810 and 193 Sections 4 and 5).

Answer 31

Chokeholds

Question 32

The use of instruments as a tool for the purpose of striking or jabbing (e.g., flashlights or radio) other than a department-authorized baton, is ______ ______.

Answer 32

strongly discouraged

Question 33

The ECD will not be used:

Answer 33

1) On a handcuffed person. 2) When the officer knows a subject has come in contact with flammable liquids or substances. 3) On a fleeing subject (without other known factors). Mere flight from an officer cannot be the sole justification for use of the ECD. 4) On persons with known heart conditions.

Question 34

When deploying an ECD, officers will: 1) Use the standard ECD five second cycle, and then evaluate the need to apply another five second cycle after providing the subject with an opportunity to comply. Each subsequent five second cycle requires additional justification. Once the subject has been exposed to ______ ______, the ECD will be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstances exist

Answer 34

three cycles

Question 35

If feasible, before the use of any approved weapon, the officer will communicate with other officers in the area and issue a warning to the subject. Officers will give the subject a reasonable opportunity to comply. This is particularly important in preventing ______ ______ when utilizing projectile weapons or the ECD.

Answer 35

sympathetic fire

Question 36

When deploying an ECD, officers will begin ______ ______, including cuffing under power, as soon as reasonably safe to minimize the total duration of ECD exposures.

Answer 36

restraint procedures

Question 37

An injury that creates a substantial risk of death, causes serious permanent disfigurement, or results in a prolonged loss or impairment of the functioning of any body part

Answer 37

substantial bodily injury

Question 38

The positioning of a police vehicle in the path of an occupied subject vehicle where contact between the vehicles is anticipated to be minimal, and the potential for injuries is low. The intent of blocking is to prevent an avenue of escape by the safe placement of a police vehicle.

Answer 38

blocking

Question 39

A specific manner of intentional contact using a police vehicle against a fleeing vehicle during a pursuit to cause the fleeing vehicle to come to an abrupt stop, rendering it immobile.

Answer 39

Precision Intervention Technique (PIT)

Question 40

The utilization of a police vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle.

Answer 40

Ramming

Question 41

A preplanned containment tactic restricted for use only by specialized units (not approved for Patrol Division). It employs extremely low-speed and intentional vehicle contact with a subject’s vehicle. The purpose is to prevent a vehicle pursuit and render a vehicle immobile.

Answer 41

stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching)

Question 42

What level of force is the use of a Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance of seven yards or greater and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance of five yards or greater.

Answer 42

Intermediate Force –

Question 43

What level of force is the use of a Low Lethality Shotgun when fired at a distance less than seven yards and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon when fired at a distance less than five yards.

Answer 43

Deadly Force

Question 44

Low Lethality Shotgun and 40mm Specialty Impact Weapon: How often will an officer ensure the projectile weapon is only loaded with department-issued low lethality munitions?

Answer 44

Prior to each shift

Question 45

Empty chamber, bolt forward, magazine inserted, and the safety on.

Answer 45

cruiser ready condition

Question 46

SPR officers assigned in an over-watch capacity at special events whose primary function is observation and ______ ______.

Answer 46

intelligence gathering

Question 47

When multiple officers have deployed rifles, the supervisor will designate one deploying officer to complete the Rifle Deployment Report, listing all officers who deployed a rifle.

Answer 47

The report will detail the following: 1) Details of the incident. 2) Nature of the threat resulting in the decision to deploy a rifle. 3) Number and locations of all rifle-deployed officers in the incident.

Question 48

The ______ is a multiagency coordination entity that provides support and coordination to the on-scene responders.

Answer 48

Emergency Operations Center (EOC)

Question 49

ICS - Weaknesses in incident management were often due to one or more of five conditions:

Answer 49

1) Lack of accountability, including unclear chains of command and supervision. 2) Poor communication due to both inefficient uses of available communications systems and conflicting codes and terminology. 3) Lack of an orderly, systematic planning process. 4) No common, flexible, predesigned management structure that enables commanders to delegate responsibilities and manage workloads efficiently. 5) No predefined methods to integrate interagency requirements into the management structure and planning process effectively.

Question 50

Watch Commander Rotation:

Answer 50

Watch Commander will be staffed by area command lieutenants on all three shifts. CCAC lieutenants will not be primary Watch Commander.

Question 51

WC Manual - The WC may field questions from:

Answer 51

1) the media 2) Executive Staff 3) other supervisors in need of advice 4) another law enforcement agency

Question 52

Watch Commander 2 Rotation Days and Swings:

Answer 52

* Watch Commander 2 is staffed by non-patrol lieutenants Monday through Friday. * Saturday and Sunday WC2 is staffed by area command lieutenants.

Question 53

Watch Commander 2 Rotation Graves:

Answer 53

* Graveyard WC2 will be by area command lieutenants. CCAC (either Graves or Stars) covers Saturday and Sunday (Friday and Saturday night).

Question 54

Daily Schedule The WC and WC2 will be staffed daily by three lieutenants to allow 24-hour coverage.

Answer 54

Day shift: 0700 to 1500 Swing shift: 1500 to 2300 Grave shift: 2300 to 0700 Change of command will occur prior to or at the start time of each shift above.

Question 55

WC Manual - A controlled redeployment of on-duty field resources using designated in-the box squads at the direction of the Watch Commander intended to mitigate a volatile situation or to gain control of an incident or series of incidents when the need for manpower temporarily exceeds on-duty, available resources in a given area command.

Answer 55

Surge Response

Question 56

False report(s) of an emergency or threat of violence intended to prompt an immediate tactical law enforcement response.

Answer 56

Swatting call

Question 57

ICS - You may be deployed to an Emergency Operations Center (EOC) rather than serve as an

Answer 57

on-scene responder.

Question 58

ICS - The EOC is a ______ coordination entity that provides support and coordination to the on-scene responders.

Answer 58

multiagency

Question 59

ICS - An incident is an occurrence, either caused by humans or natural phenomena, that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and/or ______ ________.

Answer 59

the environment

Question 60

ICS - Partnerships are often required among ______, ______, ______, and ______ ______. These partners must work together in a smooth, coordinated effort under the same management system.

Answer 60

Local State Tribal Federal agencies.

Question 61

ICS is a proven management system based on ______ ______ ______.

Answer 61

successful business practices

Question 62

ICS - Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5 (HSPD-5) called for a National Incident Management System (NIMS) and identified steps for improved coordination of ______, ______, ______, and ______ ______ response to incidents and described the way these agencies will prepare for such a response.

Answer 62

Federal, State, local, and private industry

Question 63

ICS is: 1) A proven management system based on successful business practices. 2) The result of ______ of lessons learned in the organization and management of emergency incidents.

Answer 63

decades

Question 64

ICS - It represents organizational "______ ______," and as a component of NIMS has become the standard for emergency management across the country.

Answer 64

best practices

Question 65

ICS - NIMS requires the use of ICS for all domestic responses. NIMS also requires that all levels of government, including Territories and Tribal Organizations, adopt ICS as a condition of receiving ______ ______ ______.

Answer 65

Federal preparedness funding

Question 66

ICS consists of procedures for controlling ______, ______, ______, and _______. It is a system designed to be used or applied from the time an incident occurs until the requirement for management and operations no longer exists.

Answer 66

personnel facilities equipment communications

Question 67

ICS is based on proven ______ ______, which contribute to the strength and efficiency of the overall system.

Answer 67

management principles

Question 68

ICS principles are implemented through a wide range of management features including the use of common terminology and clear text, and a ______ ______ ______.

Answer 68

modular organizational structure

Question 69

ICS emphasizes effective planning, including ______ by ______ and reliance on an Incident Action Plan.

Answer 69

management by objectives

Question 70

ICS helps ensure full utilization of all incident resources by: 1) Maintaining a manageable span of control. 2) Establishing predesignated incident locations and facilities. 3) Implementing resource management practices. 4)______ ______ ______.

Answer 70

Ensuring integrated communications

Question 71

ICS - ______ of ______ means that there is an orderly line of authority within the ranks of the organization, with lower levels subordinate to, and connected to, higher levels.

Answer 71

Chain of Command

Question 72

ICS - ______ ______ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of an incident.

Answer 72

Unity of Command

Question 73

ICS - The command function may be carried out as a ______ ______ in which responding agencies and/or jurisdictions with responsibility for the incident share incident management.

Answer 73

Unified Command

Question 74

ICS - Formal ______ of ______ occurs whenever leadership changes.

Answer 74

Transfer of Command

Question 75

ICS supports responders and decisionmakers by providing the data they need through effective information and ______ ______.

Answer 75

Intelligence management

Question 76

ICS - The ICS organizational structure develops in a ______, modular fashion that is based on the size and complexity of the incident, as well as the specifics of the hazard environment created by the incident.

Answer 76

top-down

Question 77

ICS - As the ICS organizational structure expands, the number of ______ ______ also expands to adequately address the requirements of the incident.

Answer 77

management positions

Question 78

In ICS, considerable emphasis is placed on developing effective ______ ______ ______.

Answer 78

Incident Action Plans

Question 79

ICS - Incident Action Plans include the measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an ______ ______.

Answer 79

Operational Period

Question 80

ICS - At the simplest level, all Incident Action Plans (oral or written) must have four elements: 1) What do we want to do? 2) Who is responsible for doing it? 3) How do we communicate with each other? 4)

Answer 80

What is the procedure if someone is injured?

Question 81

ICS - ______ of ______ pertains to the number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during emergency response incidents or special events.

Answer 81

Span of Control

Question 82

ICS -______ of ______ is the key to effective and efficient incident management. The type of incident, nature of the task, hazards and safety factors, and distances between personnel and resources all influence span of control considerations.

Answer 82

Span of control

Question 83

ICS - Effective span of control on incidents may vary from:

Answer 83

three (3) to seven (7), and a ratio of one (1) supervisor to five (5) reporting elements is recommended.

Question 84

ICS - If the number of reporting elements falls outside of these ranges, expansion or consolidation of the organization may be necessary. There may be exceptions, usually in ______ assignments or where resources work in close proximity to each other.

Answer 84

lower-risk

Question 85

ICS - ______ ______ are temporary locations at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments.

Answer 85

Staging Areas

Question 86

ICS - Personnel and major items of equipment that are available or potentially available to the Operations function on assignment to incidents are called ______ ______.

Answer 86

tactical resources

Question 87

ICS - All other resources required to support the incident. Food, communications equipment, tents, supplies, and fleet vehicles are examples of ______ ______.

Answer 87

support resources

Question 88

ICS -Tactical resources are always classified as one of the following:

Answer 88

Assigned Available Out-of-Service

Question 89

ICS - Maintaining an accurate and up-to-date picture of ______ ______ is a critical component of resource management.

Answer 89

resource utilization

Question 90

ICS -Under a Unified Command, a single, coordinated Incident Action Plan will direct all activities. The Incident Commanders will supervise a single Command and General Staff organization and speak with ______ ______.

Answer 90

one voice

Question 91

ICS - At any incident or event, the situation must be assessed and response planned. Resources must be organized, assigned and directed to accomplish the incident objectives. As they work, resources must be managed to adjust to ______ ______.

Answer 91

changing conditions

Question 92

ICS - If you are expected to be a supervisor: 1) You must maintain a daily Unit Log (ICS-214), indicating the names of personnel assigned and a listing of the major activities that occurred during the operational periods to which you were assigned. 2) You are expected to give briefings to your ______, ______ ______, and ______ ______.

Answer 92

subordinates adjacent forces and replacement personnel

Question 93

ICS - The Incident Commander has overall responsibility for managing the incident by objectives, planning strategies, and ______ ______.

Answer 93

implementing tactics

Question 94

ICS - In addition to having overall responsibility for managing the entire incident, the Incident Commander is specifically responsible for: 1) ______ ______ ______. 2) Providing information services to internal and external stakeholders. 3) Establishing and maintaining liaison with other agencies participating in the incident.

Answer 94

Ensuring incident safety

Question 95

ICS - The Incident Commander may establish a General Staff. These are:

Answer 95

Operations Section Planning Section Logistics Section Finance/Administration Section

Question 96

ICS - The Incident Commander may establish a Command Staff. These are:

Answer 96

Public Information Officer Safety Officer Liaison Officer

Question 97

ICS - General Staff Section's are led by:

Answer 97

Chief and Deputy Chief

Question 98

ICS - Command Staff's are led by:

Answer 98

Officer and Assistant

Question 99

ICS - Branch's are led by:

Answer 99

Director and Deputy

Question 100

ICS - Divisions and Groups are led by:

Answer 100

Supervisor (no 2nd)

Question 101

ICS - Unit's are led by:

Answer 101

Leader and Manager

Question 102

ICS - Strike Teams and Task Force(s) are led by:

Answer 102

Leader and Single Resource Boss

Question 103

ICS - ______ are used to divide an incident geographically.

Answer 103

Divisions

Question 104

ICS - ______ are used when the number of Divisions or Groups exceeds the span of control and can be either geographical or functional.

Answer 104

Branches

Question 105

ICS - ______ are used to describe functional areas of operation. The person in charge of each Group is designated as a Supervisor.

Answer 105

Groups

Question 106

ICS - The ______ ______ usually develops from the bottom up. The organization will expand to include needed levels of supervision as more and more resources are deployed.

Answer 106

Operations Section

Question 107

ICS - ______ ______ are a combination of mixed resources with common communications operating under the direct supervision of a Leader.

Answer 107

Task Forces

Question 108

ICS - At some point, the Operations Section and the rest of the ICS organization will contract. The decision to contract will be based on the achievement of ______ ______. Demobilization planning begins upon activation of the first personnel and continues until the ICS organization ceases operation.

Answer 108

tactical objectives

Question 109

Annual Pursuit Report - What is the Department Vision?:

Answer 109

To be the safest community in America

Question 110

Annual Pursuit Report - What are the Department Values?:

Answer 110

"I CARE" Integrity Courage Accountability Respect Excellence

Question 111

Annual Pursuit Report - What is the Department's Mission?:

Answer 111

Provide exceptional police services in partnership with the community

Question 112

Annual Pursuit Report - What are the Department's Goals?:

Answer 112

"SAFE" Strategic Appreciate Foster Excel

Question 113

Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the 'S'?

Answer 113

'Strategic' prevention and reduction of crime

Question 114

Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the 'A'?

Answer 114

'Appreciate' our employees and those we serve

Question 115

Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the 'F'?

Answer 115

'Foster' leadership, accountability and reform

Question 116

Annual Pursuit Report - The Department Goals acronym is S.A.F.E. What is the 'E'?

Answer 116

'Excel' in communication innovation and technology

Question 117

IOCP - List the three sections of the Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing (IOCP) Bureau:

Answer 117

Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) Force Investigation Team (FIT) Office of Internal Oversight (OIO)

Question 118

The mission of the 3 IOCP sections aligns with LVMPD’s mission of providing exceptional police services in partnership with the community by doing:

Answer 118

CIRT-Conducting thorough reviews of use of force and other high-risk incidents. OIO-Providing essential and timely feedback to identify training needs. FIT-Providing accurate and unbiased criminal investigations related to a department member’s use of deadly force.

Question 119

IOCP - The force investigation model used by LVMPD is one of continuous, critical self-analysis that results in adjustments to ______, training, and policy within the department.

Answer 119

tactics

Question 120

IOCP - The application of deadly force is a measure to be employed in the most extreme circumstances where ______ ______ of force have failed or could not be reasonably considered.

Answer 120

lesser means

Question 121

IOCP - Officers must remain mindful that they derive their authority from the community and that ______ force degrades the legitimacy of that authority.

Answer 121

unreasonable

Question 122

IOCP - The prospect of a favorable outcome is often enhanced when supervisors become involved in the management of the overall response to a potentially violent encounter by coordinating officers’ ______ ______.

Answer 122

tactical actions

Question 123

IOCP - Supervisors will acknowledge and respond to incidents in a timely manner when an officer’s use of reportable force is probable. Supervisors will also manage the deployment of resources and ______.

Answer 123

equipment

Question 124

In 2022, subjects were armed with a knife or sharp object in ______% of OIS incidents, which is an increase of 1 percentage point compared to the rate of subjects armed with a knife or sharp object in 2021. On average, over the 5-year period, subjects were armed with a knife or sharp object in 17% of incidents.

Answer 124

21%

Question 125

IOCP -LVMPD policy defines de-escalation as an officer’s actions to slow down, stabilize and ______ an incident as safely as possible by reducing danger through the use of verbal persuasion, tactics, resources and transitioning through force options.

Answer 125

resolve

Question 126

IOCP - Officers will modify their level of control in relation to the amount of resistance offered by a subject. The intent is to gain control of a subject and then transition into a custody phase where an officer is able to focus on the subject’s ______.

Answer 126

welfare

Question 127

OICP - A Use of Force Report is required by each officer who uses reportable force in an incident. Reportable force is any use of force which results in injury or complaint of injury, complaint of continuing pain or any use of force greater than ______.

Answer 127

low-level force

Question 128

IOCP - As an agency that places the highest value in human life, LVMPD is committed to providing accountability and ______.

Answer 128

transparency

Question 129

OICP - In 2022, the average department rate for BWC activation was ______%.

Answer 129

91%

Question 130

IOCP- It is the policy of this department to provide both LVMPD and the community with a thorough review of incidents wherein deadly force was used by department members. The CIRP includes the participation of citizen board members who reside within LVMPD jurisdiction, who are not personally affiliated with the department, who are not related to any of its members and who have not had prior law enforcement experience. The citizen board members are notified ______ (give a timeframe) a use of deadly force administrative investigation begins.

Answer 130

the same day

Question 131

OICP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT. #1 is Administrative Approval. This is:

Answer 131

1) Administrative Approval: Objectively reasonable force was used under the circumstances based on the information available to the officer at the time. This finding acknowledges that the use of force was justified and within department policy.

Question 132

IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT. #2 is Tactics/Decision-Making. This is:

Answer 132

2) Tactics/Decision-Making: This finding considers under the circumstances, objectively reasonable force was used based on the information available to the department member at the time. However, it acknowledges even though the use of deadly force was within policy, the actions of the department member worked to limit alternatives that may have otherwise been available to the department member. A different approach or overall response by a department member may have lessened the need for the department member to employ deadly force and potentially changed the outcome of the incident.

Question 133

IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT. #3 is Policy/Training Failure. This is:

Answer 133

3) Policy/Training Failure: A deadly force outcome was undesirable but did not stem from a violation of policy or failure to follow current training protocols. A department policy and/or specific training protocol is inadequate, ineffective or deficient; the department member followed existing policy and/or training or there is no existing policy and/or training protocol that addresses the action taken or performance demonstrated (e.g., global policy or training deficiencies).

Question 134

IOCP - The UFRB may choose from 1 of 4 findings after hearing the presentation of facts from CIRT. #4 is Administrative Disapproval. This is:

Answer 134

4) Administrative Disapproval: The UFRB has concluded through this finding that the force used was a violation of department policy. This outcome is reserved for the most serious failures in adherence to policy, decision-making and performance (i.e., a violation of the Use of Force policy).

Question 135

IOCP -The Critical Incident Review Panel (CIRP) is comprised of 2 related boards, the ______ and the ______. The sole purpose of the CIRP is to conduct a comprehensive administrative review of the tactics utilized by all involved department members, as well as decision-making, department policy and procedure compliance, training, supervision and the use of deadly force in these incidents.

Answer 135

Use of Force Review Board Tactical Review Board

Question 136

IOCP recommendations from the review of a critical incident are made to identify and address issues and concerns that would improve the individual employee and the department. The recommendations are categorized into 4 overall areas where growth and development can be made:

Answer 136

1) Equipment 2) Technology 3) Policy & Procedure 4) Training

Question 137

IOCP - Employee-Specific recommendations that can be created throughout an administrative OIO investigation. An employee can be considered for:

Answer 137

1) a commendation 2) be provided additional training 3) receive a Statement of Complaint 4) Supervisory Intervention - Contact Report due to a violation of standardized LVMPD tactics, training or policy.

Question 138

IOCP - What is MMAC?

Answer 138

Metro’s Multi-Cultural Advisory Council (MMAC). The group meets monthly.

Question 139

IOCP - Closing-the-Loop: At the end of each year, Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing Bureau (IOCP), Organizational Development Bureau (ODB), Internal Affairs Bureau and LVMPD’s General Counsel convene for a “Closing-the-Loop” meeting. The topics discussed include use of force and vehicle pursuit trends identified during IOCP’s administrative investigations and reviews. The information shared assists ______ in the development of training scenarios for the upcoming year.

Answer 139

Organization Development Bureau (ODB)

Question 140

IOCP - Awareness Reports are disseminated department wide to educate about a critical incident or identify emerging trends. They provide opportunities to maximize officer safety and performance while supporting IOCP’s goals based on 7 fundamentals of Policy, Training, Tactics, Leadership, Investigations, Accountability and ______ ______.

Answer 140

Community Inclusion

Question 141

Bubble Tactic: A non-code tactic that is utilized when attempting to contain a suspect in a vehicle. The tactic utilizes available police units to create a ______ ______ or “bubble.” “Bubbling” officers will monitor via radio the fleeing vehicle, out of view of the suspect, and move into positions surrounding the suspect while obeying all traffic laws. “Bubbling” officers will not engage nor re-engage the suspect in a vehicle pursuit without supervisor approval.

Answer 141

mobile perimeter

Question 142

If an officer is involved in a motor vehicle collision during an emergency response or a pursuit, the officer will immediately discontinue involvement and take proper action as is required by the NRS Transportation Code and all other departmental orders and directives unless:

Answer 142

1. No unit is available to assume the pursuit or respond to the unit involved. 2. Damage to the unit is minor, and it can still be operated without danger. 3. There are no apparent injuries as a result of the accident.

Question 143

During a pursuit, the area lieutenant (or watch commander in area lieutenant’s absence) will: 1) Monitor the pursuit and is responsible for ensuring that the pursuit is conducted according to department policies and procedures. 2) Allow the area field supervisor to remain in control of the pursuit, and limit radio traffic that may cause confusion regarding supervision of the pursuit. The lieutenant should refrain from radio communication unless they are going to countermand the supervisor in control of the pursuit. 3) Order discontinuance of the pursuit when the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to apprehend the suspect. 4) ________

Answer 143

4) Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made.

Question 144

If a vehicle belonging to an uninvolved citizen is damaged by the deployment of a tire deflation device (Stop Sticks) or a PIT, the watch commander will respond to: a) Offer the citizen alternative transportation, if available and necessary. b) Offer to tow the damaged vehicle at department expense using the duty service to an LVMPD contract repair facility, or if the citizen insists, to a facility of the citizen’s choice, or repair/replace at the earliest opportunity. c) Inform the Risk Manager, via Communications, of the damage and location where the vehicle will be towed. The Risk Manager will determine if a response is necessary. d) ...and

Answer 144

d) Instruct the citizen to contact the Risk Manager the next business day to arrange reimbursement.

Question 145

Post-Pursuit Requirements, a shift lieutenant will: 1) Review the Pursuit Report, pursuit audio, CAD printout, and any other evidence to determine if pursuit procedures were followed. 2) Attach the ______ ______, CAD printout, and any other applicable evidence to the Blue Team Pursuit Report. 3) Ensure the Blue Team Pursuit Report accurately documents if the pursuit was justified and within policy before submitting to the bureau/area commander. 4) Ensure any necessary corrective actions are initiated and documented in the Blue Team follow-up. 5) Forward the report to the bureau/area commander for review.

Answer 145

pursuit audio

Question 146

A supervisor will make reasonable efforts to ascertain information, direct responding resources, and take command of the foot pursuit. The supervisor’s physical presence is not required to exercise control over the foot pursuit and the supporting resources. Recognizing that foot pursuits are dynamic and dangerous for both the public and involved officers, supervisors will make every effort to respond and will continuously assess the situation to ensure the foot pursuit is conducted within established department guidelines. A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when the following occur: 1. Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect; 2. _________ 3. Any reportable force; or 4. Any other unusual occurrence that warrants supervisory oversight.

Answer 146

Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if it is occupied or not;

Question 147

Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly ___________________ and direct post-pursuit activity. Supervisors should conduct an after-action review with the officer(s) involved.

Answer 147

respond to the termination point

Question 148

For purposes of the STAR Protocol policy, “armed” will mean the suspect has a firearm or other dangerous weapon and is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. “______ ______” will mean an instrument capable of inflicting death or serious bodily injury.

Answer 148

Dangerous weapon

Question 149

“For police, the role of the first-line supervisor is critically important. The sooner that supervisors arrive at the scene, the more likely they can contain it, ‘slow it down,’ and avoid the temptation to feel that ______ ______ is always required”

Answer 149

immediate action

Question 150

Any person who has a mental illness and/or whose capacity to exercise self-control, judgement, and discretion in the conduct of a person’s affairs and social relations, or to care for their personal needs is diminished as a result of the mental illness, to the extent that the person presents a substantial likelihood of serious harm to self or others. This does not include any person in whom that capacity is diminished by epilepsy, intellectual disability, dementia, delirium, brief periods of intoxication caused by alcohol or drugs, or dependence upon or addiction to alcohol or drugs, unless a mental illness that can be diagnosed is also present which contributes to the diminished capacity of the person.

Answer 150

criteria for mental crisis

Question 151

Autism, cerebral palsy, epilepsy, or any other neurological condition diagnosed by a qualified professional that: 1. Is manifested before the person affected attains the age of 22; 2. Is likely to continue indefinitely; 3. Results in substantial functional limitations, as measured by a qualified professional, in three or more of the following major life activities: a. Taking care of oneself b. Understanding and use of language c. Learning d. Mobility e. Self-direction f. Capacity for independent living; and 4. Results in the person affected requiring a combination of individually planned and coordinated services, support, or other assistance that is lifelong or has an extended duration.

Answer 151

developmental disability

Question 152

A state of extreme excitation usually associated with illicit or prescription drug use and manifested by behavioral and physical changes that may result in sudden and unexplained death. Signs of this condition typically include elevated body temperature, profuse sweating, dilated pupils, uncontrollable shaking, talking incoherently, yelling, paranoia, extreme aggression toward objects, violent resistance/struggling, inappropriate shedding of clothing, or self-inflicted injuries.

Answer 152

excited delirium

Question 153

The Behavioral Health Unit (BHU) encompasses the Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) coordinators, the ____________ diversion program, and the Homeless Outreach Team (HOT) to include the Homeless Liaison Coordinator.

Answer 153

Law Enforcement Intervention for Mental Health and Addiction (LIMA)

Question 154

LIMA coordinators facilitate the diversion program within BHU in instances when low-level, non-violent criminal offenses can be diverted from the criminal justice system and the offense was driven by ______ ______. LIMA referrals can be initiated by any law enforcement officer or a community partner.

Answer 154

substance abuse

Question 155

CIT Patrol Response to Persons in Behavioral Crisis or with Special Needs, The field supervisor will: 1) Acknowledge notification over the radio, monitor the event, and ensure a CIT officer is en route. 2) Respond to the scene and assume command and control of tactics, if: a. Events involving persons threatening suicide under ______ circumstances b. Persons who are experiencing symptoms of excited delirium and/or medical emergency. c. Any event where circumstances indicate the situation may become volatile. 3) Ensure SWAT/Crisis Negotiators are requested when required 4) Approve the completed CIT After Action Report (LVMPD 367) by end of shift and place it in the station basket to be scanned into OnBase. Do not email or fax it to the CIT Detail.

Answer 155

volatile (ie..individual is holding a weapon or threatening to jump)

Question 156

When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE. CIT1 –

Answer 156

Previous legal 2000

Question 157

When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE. CIT2 –

Answer 157

Previous violence toward officers and/or others

Question 158

When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE. CIT3 –

Answer 158

Weapon impounded from or taken off subject

Question 159

When a Legal 2000 has been completed, the BHU CIT coordinator will update Legal 2000 information in SCOPE. CIT4 –

Answer 159

Self- or doctor-diagnosed mental disorder

Question 160

MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - A structured protocol is required to manage the number of responding units, control safe _____________, and ensure supervisory command and control of resources.

Answer 160

ingress and egress routes

Question 161

In the aftermath of a large-scale event where a joint investigation is conducted with federal partners, LVMPD personnel, as designated by the Undersheriff, will integrate with the appropriate federal agencies, allowing for shared information and ______.

Answer 161

resources

Question 162

NIMS was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together to react better to natural disasters and emergencies, including acts of terrorism. Benefits include a ______ ______ to incident management; standard command and management structures; and emphasis on preparedness, mutual aid, and resource management.

Answer 162

unified approach

Question 163

______ is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, planned events, or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease.

Answer 163

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 164

MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - A team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident.

Answer 164

Unified Command

Question 165

____________ is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally. The Emergency Management Section, in conjunction with the Advanced Training Program, is responsible for annual training, including exercise components (e.g., tabletop, drill, or full-scale).

Answer 165

The Emergency Management Section

Question 166

Determine if command needs to be transferred from the officer in the position of IC to the sergeant. This will be based on the size, type, and ______ of the incident.

Answer 166

complexity

Question 167

In barricaded subject situations, it is the policy of this department to consider the safety of civilians and officers, and to enhance the prospect of peacefully resolving the incident through ______ tactics.

Answer 167

de-escalation

Question 168

Barricaded subject/incident: A subject who is believed to have been involved in a criminal act or is a significant threat to themselves or safety of others; refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed; is in a position of advantage, affording cover and concealment; or is contained in an open area, and the presence or approach of police officers could precipitate an ______ ______ by the subject.

Answer 168

adverse reaction

Question 169

A suicidal person who is threatening to take their own life: This may involve a suicidal person, armed with a deadly weapon, capable of causing injury to others, who is a demonstrated threat to others, barricaded in a structure or in an open area; therefore, an incident involving an armed suicidal subject is a ______ ______.

Answer 169

barricade incident

Question 170

HOSTAGE PLAN - In hostage situations, it is the policy of this department to prioritize life safety through de-escalation tactics or ______ ______ and to make every reasonable effort to affect the safe release of the hostages should communications fail.

Answer 170

alternative approaches

Question 171

A secured, centralized location where SWAT Team supervisors, Crisis Negotiation Team, patrol liaison, and an Investigative Services Division (ISD) representative control tactical operations and coordinate negotiations.

Answer 171

Tactical Operations Center (TOC)

Question 172

Bomb Threats - All actions and decisions made by LVMPD employees should take into consideration that the intention of the department is to conduct the investigation in a ______ ______.

Answer 172

low-profile manner

Question 173

Explosive devices: For a post-blast crime scene, a _______ perimeter will be established around any evidence.

Answer 173

300 feet

Question 174

Civil Protests: A safety zone maintained by officers which creates distance and space between opposing groups.

Answer 174

Buffer zone

Question 175

Civil Protests: An unanticipated or unannounced public gathering where the department did not receive prior notice or have time to preplan a response to address public safety concerns.

Answer 175

unplanned or spontaneous event

Question 176

Civil Protests: A verbal announcement given to the crowd to inform them of the law they are violating and the consequences of such violation.

Answer 176

dispersal order

Question 177

Civil Protests: Three factors will be considered in determining the department’s response to a protest.

Answer 177

Crowd size Time of day Location

Question 178

Civil Protests: When it is necessary to implement crowd management measures or take enforcement action, it should be an organized and well-communicated effort involving multiple officers and ______ ______.

Answer 178

supervisory oversight

Question 179

Civil Protests: ______ will be implemented in LVMPD’s response to protests.

Answer 179

Incident Command System (ICS)

Question 180

Office of Internal Oversight (OIO): In 2021, LVMPD introduced the COPS-on-Patrol training module focusing on the COPS acronym:

Answer 180

Communicate Options [Less Lethal, Distance, Cover/Concealment] Pre-plan Slow the Momentum

Question 181

ICS - The department utilizes the Incident Command Structure (ICS) as a standard tool for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, ______ ______, or emergencies.

Answer 181

planned events

Question 182

Orders to Disperse - When confronting a dangerous crowd or a situation where public safety has been compromised, the department will declare it an unlawful assembly and attempt to provide orders to disperse at least ______ time(s), giving demonstrators ample time to leave the area. Unless there is an immediate risk to public safety or significant property damage is occurring, reasonable time will be allowed for a crowd to comply with commands before enforcement action is taken.

Answer 182

three

Question 183

Orders to Disperse - If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, then ______ order(s) to disperse must be provided. The determination to give the order to disperse is the responsibility of the IC upon consultation with the on-scene lieutenant.

Answer 183

one

Question 184

When will a dispersal order be issued?

Answer 184

An order to disperse will only be given if illegal activity is occurring in the protest.

Question 185

Protest AAR - Skirmish lines, when used appropriately, are an effective crowd control tactic. However, they may become a point of conflict. In planning for crowd management, the Department will use skirmish lines primarily to protect ______ and ______.

Answer 185

lives and property

Question 186

MACTAC - An acronym used in response to ongoing dynamic incident(s) involving simultaneous deadly force events or a terrorist attack involving explosives, high-powered weapons, or a hostage siege where subjects have used, or are preparing to use, deadly, physical force.

Answer 186

Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC)

Question 187

MACTAC - A Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) response is used when incidents occur simultaneously and exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources. This includes incidents involving ______, ______, ______, ______, and other potential threats.

Answer 187

shootings, stabbings, rammings, improvised explosive devices (IEDs)

Question 188

MACTAC - MACTAC provides officers tactical knowledge, skills, and abilities to respond to incidents that require:

Answer 188

immediate police intervention

Question 189

MACTAC - STAR de-escalation protocol and the barricaded subject plan emphasize slowed momentum to gather resources, whereas the MACTAC response requires: ______ ______.

Answer 189

immediate intervention

Question 190

MACTAC - One or more persons who are randomly or systematically involved in the act of using deadly force on others, and the suspects will not stop their aggressive, hostile actions without immediate and direct law enforcement intervention. The overriding object of the assailant(s) appears to be committing mass murder or terrorism rather than other criminal conduct.

Answer 190

active assailant

Question 191

MACTAC - A location established at the scene of the incident where injured victims will be taken prior to a formal triage, treatment, and transport (TTT) area by medical personnel: Who directs this?

Answer 191

casualty collection point (CCP) This is directed by the fire branch of the unified command.

Question 192

MACTAC - This team aims to isolate, contain, or neutralize the threat and create a warm zone.

Answer 192

assault team

Question 193

MACTAC - Any area with dedicated law enforcement protecting a defined geographic area(s) that has been cleared and secured. To establish a ______ ______, arriving officers and personnel clear and secure all perimeters. The command post, triage, treatment, and transport area(s) and staging area are examples of areas inside the ______ ______.

Answer 193

cold zone

Question 194

MACTAC - Assigned to prevent a threat from expanding or retreating from an area of the initial threat or contained area. These teams should be no smaller than a buddy team (two officers).

Answer 194

containment teams

Question 195

MACTAC - Protective details for the incident command post, staging area(s), fire and medical response teams or for additional protection as dictated by the incident commander (IC).

Answer 195

force protection

Question 196

MACTAC - A pre-designated patrol squad at each area command that can respond to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, seven days per week.

Answer 196

In-the-Box squad

Question 197

MACTAC - A geographic area with a known threat. Only law enforcement or armed personnel attempting to isolate, contain, or neutralize hostile threat(s) are allowed in this area.

Answer 197

hot zone

Question 198

MACTAC - The use of a ______ ______ ______ – one, two, or three officers – to respond to an active-assailant event when the need to interrupt outweighs the time to wait for the fourth or fifth officer to form the traditional active-assailant elements.

Answer 198

limited resource response

Question 199

MACTAC - A MACTAC incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.

Answer 199

MACTAC activation

Question 200

MACTAC - A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to activated units.

Answer 200

MACTAC alert

Question 201

MACTAC - An extraordinary incident, even by law enforcement standards, and/or an unusual occurrence that exceeds conventional law enforcement tactics and resources.

Answer 201

MACTAC incident

Question 202

MACTAC - A general notification for area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should orient themselves if they are placed on alert. In any confirmed MACTAC incident, the Communications Bureau should broadcast a valley-wide ______ ______.

Answer 202

MACTAC notification

Question 203

MACTAC - A controlled, aggressive employment of law enforcement resources to an in-progress, life-threatening situation where any delay will clearly result in death or serious bodily harm to innocent persons.

Answer 203

MACTAC response

Question 204

MACTAC - Officers assigned to a ______ ______ ______ should be capable of rapidly responding to a developing situation. These teams should have necessary equipment on hand and be staged away from affected areas but close enough to respond quickly to mitigate the threat.

Answer 204

Quick Reaction Force

Question 205

MACTAC - Such teams obtain information about the activities and resources of a potential suspect (e.g., moving a two-officer team to a location where they can monitor security cameras or oversee an area of operation or incident command area).

Answer 205

reconnaissance teams

Question 206

MACTAC - A Mission assignment that consists of four law enforcement personnel and four fire department/medical personnel who will enter the warm zone of a hostile mass casualty incident to begin medical intervention and sifting/sorting of patients. Southern Nevada Fire Operations Hostile Event Policy states a minimum of two law enforcement officers are required to enter a warm zone. LVMPD MACTAC encourages a minimum of four officers.

Answer 206

Rescue Task Force (RTF) This is managed by the fire branch of the unified command.

Question 207

MACTAC - Officers assigned to these teams can perform officer- or citizen-down rescue techniques per MACTAC protocols (may consider Tactical Emergency Casualty Care if/when appropriate).

Answer 207

rescue team

Question 208

MACTAC - Compliant with the National Incident Management System (NIMS), a resource team is composed of four to five officers brought together as a tactical response team. The team is given a call sign based on a mission objective.

Answer 208

resource team (formerly strike team)

Question 209

MACTAC - Non-In-the-Box patrol squads assigned to area command priorities, critical infrastructure protection, and/or multiple incident/attack response incidents.

Answer 209

Stay at Home squad

Question 210

MACTAC - Surprise attack involving the deliberate use of violence against civilians in the hope of attaining political or religious aims. This can include the use of IEDs, small arms, vehicles, fire, or any means that can cause mass casualties or fear.

Answer 210

terrorist attack

Question 211

MACTAC - An area designated as a delineation between the clean (unaffected) and dirty (affected) areas of an event. This area should have officers present to sweep everyone for weapons. The injured will be swept and moved to the formal triage, treatment, and transport area(s), while uninjured/witnesses will be swept and moved to a refuge area.

Answer 211

transition area

Question 212

MACTAC - An area where law enforcement has passed through and swept for immediate hostile threats and where a threat is not expected but cannot be ruled out completely.

Answer 212

warm zone

Question 213

MACTAC - First arriving units will ensure officer and public safety by utilizing the 4 A’s concept:

Answer 213

Assess Announce Assemble Act

Question 214

MACTAC - If the first arriving supervisor on-scene, make entry with the initial officer(s), providing direction and overall command and control. Utilize the 4 C’s concept:

Answer 214

Contain Control Communicate Coordinate

Question 215

MACTAC - Upon additional supervisor response, establish a formal Incident Command Post. Consider utilizing ______ ______ channels for the establishment of unified command.

Answer 215

NCORE TAC

Question 216

MACTAC - If one of the first arriving officers has taken IC, determine if a transfer of command needs to occur from the officer to the sergeant. This will be based on the ______, ______, ______ of the incident.

Answer 216

size, type, and complexity

Question 217

MACTAC - Ensure that all requests for regional, state, or federal resources are made through the :

Answer 217

Emergency Management Section

Question 218

MACTAC - Watch commander or WC2 should designate a ______ ______ ______ for the arrival of off-duty, plainclothes personnel and provide this location to the Communications supervisor for dissemination to on- and off-duty supervisors.

Answer 218

secondary staging area

Question 219

MACTAC - Off-duty personnel at or near the incident should make every effort to ______ ______.

Answer 219

assist victims

Question 220

Arrest Procedures - In the absence of the officer’s immediate supervisor, the officer will have the AR Package reviewed by ______ ______.

Answer 220

the shift lieutenant

Question 221

Arrest Procedures - An arrestee may choose to release their personal property to an on-scene third party before being transported to jail. If so, officers are not permitted to routinely search the released property unless they obtain the arrestee’s consent or there is an articulated and compelling need to do so. Examples of compelling needs include situations when releasing personal property may allow the third party to become armed and dangerous; police are unable to identify the arrestee and the property may contain their identification; or the property contains needed ______.

Answer 221

medication(s)

Question 222

Arrest Procedures - The officer will request the presence of a supervisor when: 1. The release of currency to a third party is over ______. 2. The release of non-currency items to a third party appears to be valued over ______.

Answer 222

$100 $250

Question 223

Domestic violence is a crime that adversely affects the lives of all exposed to it. Due to the serious nature, broad scope, and cycle of violence inherent in these crimes, the response of law enforcement must reflect an appropriate ______ ______ ______. It is the policy of this department to thoroughly investigate acts constituting domestic violence to prevent further violence.

Answer 223

sense of urgency

Question 224

Orders for Protection - This order is granted to victims requesting relief regardless of the nature of their relationship with the suspect. The victim must file a crime report demonstrating a series of events. These orders are issued by Justice Court. Applications must be completed by the victim, in person, at the Regional Justice Center, 200 South Lewis Avenue. There is a fee associated with this order. Initially, a temporary order will be issued for up to thirty days. The violation of a Temporary Stalking/Harassment Order is a gross misdemeanor. Once the order has been extended for up to one year, the charge for any violation is a felony. The adverse party must be served with this order for the order to be enforceable.

Answer 224

Stalking/Harassment Order (SHO)

Question 225

Orders for Protection - If the weapon(s) and/or ammunition is not in plain view and the subject refuses to surrender their firearm(s) the officer will ______ ______ ______ ______ advising of the refusal and forward the report to the appropriate area command’s Patrol Investigations Detail. The Patrol Investigations Detail will conduct follow up based on the officer’s report.

Answer 225

dictate a priority officer’s report

Question 226

Driving - Officer(s) dispatched to an emergency call, or specifically authorized to respond to an emergency call by the Communications Bureau or a supervisor.

Answer 226

primary response units

Question 227

Driving - Department members, citizens, and arrestees occupying department vehicles will wear seat belts while the vehicle is in motion. The only exemption to this is when the vehicle is traveling less than ______ miles per hour and the driver or passenger(s) is expecting to exit the vehicle to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.

Answer 227

15 mph

Question 228

Driving - Members using cellphones while operating a department vehicle must use good judgment and discretion, keeping in mind officer and ______ ______ at all times.

Answer 228

public safety

Question 229

Driving - A collision is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of ______.

Answer 229

$750 or more

Question 230

Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in may have been preventable, but that the collision was unavoidable or excusable, considering all the circumstances.

Answer 230

excusable

Question 231

Driving - A separate category from a collision, is an occurrence in which a vehicle collides with another vehicle, pedestrian, animal, bicycle, road debris, or stationary object such as a tree, pole, or building not resulting in bodily injury, a complaint of bodily injury, death of a person, or results in the total damage to any vehicle or item of property to an apparent extent of less than $750.

Answer 231

an incident

Question 232

Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in was performed in accordance with department policies, procedures, training standards, and traffic laws.

Answer 232

non-preventable

Question 233

Driving - A finding that a collision a department member was involved in violated department policies, procedures, training standards, or traffic laws.

Answer 233

preventable

Question 234

Driving - All department members involved in a vehicle collision who are equipped with a body worn camera (BWC) will, unless incapacitated, immediately activate the BWC (see LVMPD 7.136, Body Worn Cameras). All commissioned members responding to investigate a vehicle collision involving another member will also activate the BWC until completion of the investigation. Once the investigation is complete, all members with BWC video will manually label and categorize the video as "______ ______." This category designation will retain the video footage for five years.

Answer 234

Pending Review

Question 235

Driving - Request a crime scene analyst (CSA) for photographs of collisions resulting in serious injury or ______ ______ ______.

Answer 235

major property damage

Question 236

Driving - Provide any citizen that is involved in a department vehicle collision with a copy of the Driver’s Exchange card (LVMPD 83) and advise them to contact the ______ ______ when the potential for department liability exists.

Answer 236

Litigation Section

Question 237

Driving - ______ ______ ______ collision reports are completed for non-injury, moderate to major damage collisions that do not involve motorists, unsolved hit and runs, commercial vehicles, school buses, and trailers.

Answer 237

Property Damage Only (PDO)

Question 238

A claim of discrimination based on allegations of ______ ______ must initially establish 1) the complainant is a member of a protected class and 2) the complainant was treated differently from individuals who are similarly situated.

Answer 238

disparate treatment

Question 239

The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures defines ______ ______ as: “A substantial different rate of selection in hiring, promotion, or other employment decision which works to the disadvantage of members of a race, sex, or ethnic group.”

Answer 239

adverse impact

Question 240

______ is any conduct based on that employee’s membership in one or more of the protected classes that has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile or offensive work environment.

Answer 240

Harassment

Question 241

______ is the best tool to eliminate sexual harassment in the workplace. Supervisors are encouraged to take steps necessary to prevent sexual harassment from occurring. They should clearly communicate to employees sexual harassment will not be tolerated. They can do so by taking immediate and appropriate action when an employee complains.

Answer 241

Prevention

Question 242

Supervisors must stop offensive conduct before it becomes ______ ______ ______, as defined by law and department policy, regardless of the subordinates’ chain of command.

Answer 242

pervasive or severe

Question 243

All complaints of harassment and/or discrimination will be reviewed by the Director of EDS and will be taken seriously regardless if they are from your subordinates or those of other supervisors. Never assume that the problem will work itself out or go away. Supervisors Shall:

Answer 243

- ACT IMMEDIATELY on all complaints, even those that are minimized by the complainant - ENSURE the employee understands the complaint policy - CONTACT the Employment Diversity Section for assistance in documenting and following-up on complaints - ASSIST the employee with documenting and filing a written complaint

Question 244

Complaints of harassment and/or discrimination will be investigated as outlined in Department Policy 5/101.24. Complaints may be resolved by a formal investigation into the issues identified or through alternate forms of resolution, including mediation. Supervisors may be asked to assist in the investigation of complaints made against their subordinates by working with investigators from EDS. Regardless of how the complaint is investigated, all investigations should be completed within ______ days from receipt when possible.

Answer 244

90 days

Question 245

Supervisors will not use retaliation as a means to discourage others from complaining. Intimidation tactics, or any significant change in how performance is documented or discipline handled after a complaint is made, can be ______ ______ ______ of adverse employment action.

Answer 245

prima facie evidence

Question 246

The Fourth Amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both:

Answer 246

(1) reasonable and (2) legitimate.

Question 247

An investigative detention based on reasonable suspicion is strictly limited to 60 minutes, NRS 171.123(4). Any detention beyond 60 minutes is a ______ ______ and requires probable cause to justify.

Answer 247

de facto arrest

Question 248

Objective words or actions that clearly show a person has disclaimed ownership, dominion, and control over real or personal property.

Answer 248

abandonment

Question 249

These are “policy justified” searches that do not require reasonable suspicion or probable cause; however, the intrusion in such cases must be brief and slight, and the determination of who to stop must be made according to some articulable, non-arbitrary standard and comply with NRS 484B.570.

Answer 249

administrative checkpoint

Question 250

A warrant issued by a judge on the application of an administrative agency. Administrative agencies with enforcement powers seek administrative warrants to search for contraband or other evidence of noncompliance with the law

Answer 250

administrative search warrant

Question 251

An arrest is the taking of a person into custody in a manner allowed by law. An arrest may be made by a peace officer or by a private person (see NRS 171.104). It is a show of authority by an officer, in words or actions or both, which would cause a reasonable person to think they were being deprived of their liberty more than temporarily (i.e., more than an investigative detention), and involves either:

Answer 251

1. Submission by the subject to the officer’s show of authority -OR- 2. An actual physical touching that places the subject under the control of the officer.

Question 252

The collection of a blood sample to determine the presence of drugs or alcohol when submitted for laboratory analysis. This sample may be obtained with consent, a search warrant or, on rare occasions, without a search warrant if exigent circumstances exist.

Answer 252

blood draw

Question 253

Any search involving the internal physical examination of the body. The search must be performed with a search warrant and by a physician or, other medically trained personnel. NRS 179.063 defines a body cavity search as a touching or probing of the rectum or vagina of a female person, or the rectum of a male person, regardless of whether there is actual penetration. LVMPD further defines a body cavity as any internal organ.

Answer 253

body cavity search

Question 254

An exception to the Fourth Amendment’s warrant requirement based on the public’s expectation that law enforcement may take action to save life or render aid.

Answer 254

community caretaking doctrine

Question 255

A non-criminal encounter with a citizen or vehicle that is intended for law enforcement to investigate a serious medical concern or other life safety issues (i.e., Legal 2000).

Answer 255

community caretaking search

Question 256

A completely voluntary police interaction with members of the public, requiring no legal justification for the interaction, where a reasonable person would feel free to disregard the police and go about their business.

Answer 256

consensual encounter

Question 257

A consensual entry is an entry by invitation by a person ______ ______.

Answer 257

with standing

Question 258

Agreement, approval, or permission to act. A person giving consent must do so freely and voluntarily. A person consenting must:

Answer 258

(1) be informed (tell the subject what is being searched for) (2) not be coerced (3) have actual authority or apparent authority (“standing”) (4) have the ability to revoke consent at any time during the search.

Question 259

The legal protection associated with curtilage is always determined in favor of the property owner, not law enforcement. Curtilage is an area(s) near a residence where the residents have a reasonable expectation of privacy. Considerations in determining whether an area is curtilage and subject to the protections of the Fourth Amendment are:

Answer 259

(1) proximity of the area to the home (2) whether the area is included in an enclosure which surrounds a home (3) nature of uses to which an area is put (4) steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by

Question 260

An order used in conjunction with a Telephonic Search Warrant Application and Affidavit directing officers to search particular places and/or seize persons or things.

Answer 260

duplicate original search warrant

Question 261

A method for obtaining a search warrant that uses the internet to send and receive a Search Warrant Application and Affidavit to/from a judge. For security purposes, only an LVMPD-approved method of transmission is permitted.

Answer 261

electronic search warrant

Question 262

A warrantless entry into a home when an emergency exists and there is a need to render aid or to protect an individual from immediate harm from themselves or others.

Answer 262

emergency aid exception

Question 263

A sample of blood that is obtained to determine the presence of drugs, or alcohol, to obtain DNA, or conduct communicable disease testing. This sample may be obtained with consent or a search warrant, or when the officer can articulate exigent circumstances.

Answer 263

evidentiary blood sample

Question 264

A time-critical exception to the search warrant requirement for the purpose of acting on an investigative emergency, based on probable cause for a criminal investigation. Police cannot create the exigent circumstance or use a ruse to affect a warrantless search.

Answer 264

exigent circumstance

Question 265

Entry into a structure or vehicle that requires a tool or use of force to gain entry and may cause damage to the structure or vehicle. A “tool” includes, but is not limited to, a ram, Halligan tool, etc.

Answer 265

forced entry

Question 266

A forced evidentiary blood sample of blood that is obtained using reasonable force and is used to determine the presence of ______ ______ ______ ______. This type of blood draw will occur only with a search warrant and after a person has refused to provide samples in compliance with a search warrant and has been informed the search warrant authorizes the use of reasonable force to collect the blood sample.

Answer 266

1. drugs 2. alcohol 3. obtain DNA 4. conduct communicable disease testing.

Question 267

Occurs when there is probable cause that a person, who is wanted for a serious felony, is inside a home or other private place and is about to flee. (Not to be confused with hot pursuit.)

Answer 267

fresh pursuit

Question 268

A sub-category of “exigent circumstances” allowing entry into a structure when there is probable cause to believe a dangerous person has committed a serious felony. The suspect is fleeing from law enforcement and the officer has direct knowledge of the suspect’s location. (Not to be confused with fresh pursuit.)

Answer 268

hot pursuit

Question 269

Reasonable suspicion stop, also known as a “Terry stop,” is a seizure of a person for no more than 60 minutes, with the limited scope and purpose of conducting an investigation and for which a police officer must have reasonable suspicion that a person is committing, has committed, or is about to commit a crime (NRS 171.123).

Answer 269

investigative detention

Question 270

An investigative emergency search is a warrantless search which requires probable cause to:

Answer 270

(1) prevent the destruction of evidence of a serious felony offense or (2) effect a warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect who officers have probable cause to believe committed a serious felony or violent offense and may escape if not immediately apprehended or (3) hot or fresh pursuit.

Question 271

Any vehicle operating or capable of operating on public streets or highways, including automobiles, trucks, trailers, recreational vehicles, mobile homes, motor homes, motorcycles, and any other type of vehicle, whether self-propelled or towed.

Answer 271

motor vehicle

Question 272

A search warrant that authorizes a peace officer to enter a premises without first: (1) knocking on the door or ringing the doorbell and identifying the presence of the peace officer; or (2) identifying the presence of the peace officer and stating the intended purpose of the peace officer for entering the premises.

Answer 272

no-knock search warrant

Question 273

What a person knowingly exposes to the public is not protected by the Fourth Amendment no matter where the exposure takes place. It does not justify a warrantless seizure. (Not to be confused with plain view.)

Answer 273

open view

Question 274

An open hand contact of a subject’s outer clothing to detect weapons on a person or contained within items “immediately associated with a person” (e.g., purse, backpack, etc.). The “pat down” is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that the person may be armed with a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer.

Answer 274

pat down

Question 275

A search conducted of items that are transported to a detention facility as personal property. An inventory is not a search for evidence of crime but is justified to protect an owner’s property while it is in custody of the police to ensure against claims of lost or stolen property, and to protect the police and the community from danger. Inventories must be done to standardized criteria which limits officer discretion and ensures that it is not a guise for a general exploratory search.

Answer 275

personal property inventory

Question 276

If during a pat down the officer feels an item that is not suspected to be a weapon but is immediately apparent without manipulation from the mass and shape that the item is probably contraband, the officer can legally seize the item.

Answer 276

plain feel

Question 277

An exception to the search warrant requirement that must satisfy these conditions (1) the officer must be in a position where there is a legal right to be; (2) the items must be immediately recognizable as contraband or evidence; and (3) the seizure must be made without substantial addition intrusion. (Not to be confused with open view.)

Answer 277

plain view

Question 278

A probable cause search means there is a ______ ______ that the items sought to be seized will be contained in the premises sought to be searched.

Answer 278

fair probability

Question 279

A quick and limited search of premises conducted for the safety of officers and others. It must be narrowly confined to a cursory visual inspection of those places in which a person might be hiding. This is known as a______ ______.

Answer 279

protective sweep

Question 280

Specific and articulable facts or circumstances that would lead a reasonable person to believe a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed.

Answer 280

reasonable suspicion

Question 281

A court order issued upon a showing of “good cause” to protect the contents of an application and affidavit for a search warrant until a criminal complaint or indictment is filed or a court otherwise orders the application and affidavit for a search warrant unsealed.

Answer 281

sealing order

Question 282

A police intrusion on a reasonable and legitimate expectation of privacy. This is a ______.

Answer 282

search

Question 283

A complete search of the arrestee. The search of the arrestee must be conducted at the time of arrest or immediately thereafter when the officer deems it safe to do so. The search should be more thorough than a pat down and will consist of removing all items from the arrestee’s pockets, shoes, socks, etc.

Answer 283

search incident to arrest of a person

Question 284

An order used in conjunction with a written application and affidavit directing officers to search particular places and/or seize persons or things.

Answer 284

search warrant

Question 285

A search warrant return of service is an inventory of items seized pursuant to the execution of a search warrant and returned to the court within ______ calendar days of the court’s authorization.

Answer 285

10 days

Question 286

A Search Warrant Return of Service – DNA is an inventory of a biological specimen containing DNA seized from a person pursuant to the execution of a search warrant. Must be returned to the court within ______ ______ of the court’s authorization.

Answer 286

6 months

Question 287

A police interference with an individual’s freedom of movement by means of physical force or show of authority or meaningful interference with an individual’s possessory interests in property.

Answer 287

seizure

Question 288

Authority, apparent authority, dominion, control and access to the place or items searched.

Answer 288

standing

Question 289

A search warrant supported by a verbal statement via telephone, given under oath.

Answer 289

telephonic search warrant

Question 290

A search by a government agent, without justification, that constitutes an unreasonable intrusion into an area protected by the Fourth Amendment including a person’s residence, curtilage, vehicle, papers, or effects.

Answer 290

trespass by government agents

Question 291

An order obtained in conjunction with a search warrant that authorizes an affiant to “turn over” property seized during service of a search warrant to another jurisdiction (e.g., task force partner or law enforcement officers from outside Clark County).

Answer 291

Turnover Order

Question 292

No person is reasonably believed to be present when officers enter the structure. The affiant will be prepared to articulate what investigative means were utilized to determine the structure was reasonably believed to be unoccupied.

Answer 292

unoccupied structure

Question 293

The frisk of a vehicle is based on reasonable suspicion or articulable facts that a person may have immediate access to a dangerous weapon and is a threat to the safety of the officer. The frisk must be confined to the areas of the vehicle where the person has access, and the officer may only enter unlocked compartments or areas where a weapon may be present.

Answer 293

vehicle frisk

Question 294

An examination of all or a portion of a vehicle with either an investigatory motive (e.g., for the purpose of discovering fruits, instrumentalities, evidence of a crime, contraband, or to enter the vehicle to examine the vehicle identification number or determine ownership of the vehicle) or without an investigatory motive as in inventories of personal property conducted in conjunction with an impoundment of the vehicle.

Answer 294

vehicle search

Question 295

Searches without a warrant are ______, ______; however, given the criminal and non-criminal investigative missions of a police officer, there are exceptions to the application of the Fourth Amendment.

Answer 295

unlawful, per se

Question 296

An exception related to non-criminal investigations where the Fourth Amendment does not apply is ______ ______ searches for weapons at airports, in secured areas.

Answer 296

special needs/administrative

Question 297

Exceptions related to criminal investigations where the Fourth Amendment does not apply are:

Answer 297

1. Open view 2. Person has no standing to assert a legal right (property right or constitutional right) 3. Trash searches outside the curtilage 4. Detention facilities 5. Abandoned property 6. Searches by a private citizen not acting as an agent of the government

Question 298

Warrantless entries into a residence are not permitted under the Community Caretaking Doctrine. Instead, officers need to articulate the need for an ______ ______ ______.

Answer 298

emergency aid exception

Question 299

Courts recognize “check the welfare” situations as a distinct non-criminal investigative function of law enforcement. LVMPD values the sanctity of life and expects its officers to conduct thorough welfare checks to determine if there is a need for life-saving assistance. These interactions are justified under the ______ ______ ______ and are totally divorced from the detection, investigation, or acquisition of evidence relating to the violation of a criminal statute.

Answer 299

Community Caretaking Doctrine

Question 300

The department will limit interactions under the Community Caretaking Doctrine to welfare checks on individuals who are ______ of a ______ and during certain traffic stops (e.g., vehicle stop is being conducted because there is a medical need).

Answer 300

outside of a residence

Question 301

1. According to policy 3.110 Use of Force, Officers will be mindful that persons who are in a prolonged physical encounter with officers may be at an increased risk of medical distress. Incidents involving these persons should be considered _______________.

Answer 301

Medical Emergencies

Question 302

2. According to policy 3.110.3 Post Use of Force Investigations, A Use of Force Report is required by each officer who uses reportable force in an incident. A civilian employee who also uses force (empty hand, OC spray, or firearm) is required to complete a Use of Force Report. Use of Force Reports will be completed by end of shift and reviewed through the chain of command within ___ days.

Answer 302

30 days

Question 303

3. You are the incident commander on the scene of an OIS. The scene is stable and static. The chain of command and FIT/CIRT are all enroute. As IC it is your responsibility to determine a location for the briefing. According to policy 3.110.3 Post Use of Force Investigations, the location for the initial briefing needs to be a place that is _________ and will not ____________.

Answer 303

Operationally secure and does not Compromise the integrity of the crime scene.

Question 304

4. A pursuit will be conducted only for a violent felony or if the suspect presents a ________________ danger to the public. A pursuit will not be engaged for a property crime, minor traffic infraction or an occupied stolen vehicle unless the suspect presents the aforementioned _________________ danger to the public. NOTE: ______________ danger to the public will not be based solely on a subject’s reaction to the officer’s initial attempt to stop the subject’s vehicle. (policy 3.210.4)

Answer 304

Clear and immediate

Question 305

5. You are an area Lieutenant, and a pursuit has started in your area. Having just studied all the material related to policy 3.210.6 Vehicular Pursuits, you are quickly going through the mental checklist of things a Lieutenant does during vehicle pursuits. Starting with: Monitor the pursuit and be responsible for ensuring the pursuit is conducted according to department policies and procedures? Check. Allow the area field supervisor to remain in control of the pursuit, and limit radio traffic that may cause confusion regarding supervision of the pursuit. Check. Refrain from radio communication unless I’m going to countermand the supervisor in control of the pursuit. Check. Order discontinuance of the pursuit when the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to apprehend the suspect. Check. But there was one more you were forgetting. Which one is it?

Answer 305

Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made.

Question 306

6. You have received the pursuit report in Blue Team and have reviewed it, listened to the audio, read the CAD print out and ensured it was all attached to the report. You also ensured the report accurately documents if the pursuit was justified and within policy and ensured any corrective actions have been initiated. Your next step in the process will be to (policy 3.210.9 Vehicular Pursuits):

Answer 306

Forward the report to the bureau/area commander for review.

Question 307

7. According to policy 3.220.2 Foot Pursuits, _________________________________shall be the primary consideration when determining whether a foot pursuit will be initiated or continued. Officers deciding whether to initiate a foot pursuit or implement containment procedures will act reasonably and must take into consideration the reason for the foot pursuit as well as the severity of the crime.

Answer 307

The safety of department personnel and the public

Question 308

8. True or False, according to policy 3.220.7 Foot Pursuits, the supervisor’s physical presence is not required to exercise control over the foot pursuit and the supporting resources.

Answer 308

True

Question 309

9. True or False, according to policy 3.300 Supervisors Tactic for Armed Subject Response (STAR) De-Escalation Protocol, the sooner that supervisors arrive at the scene, the more likely they can contain it, ‘slow it down,’ and avoid the temptation to feel that immediate action is always required.

Answer 309

True

Question 310

10. You are monitoring your area as a newly promoted graveyard Lieutenant when you hear a broadcast of a 413 call with subject who was in possession of a firearm and walking into a grocery store. The brand-new dispatcher broadcast this call as a STAR de-escalation protocol. Your brand-new Sergeant responds accordingly. You recognized there are no other PRs, nor is there any information regarding any threats made. The PR verified the firearm was holstered on the subject’s hip, indicating he is an open carry individual. Per policy 3.300 Supervisors Tactic for Armed Subject Response (STAR) De-Escalation Protocol, you get on the radio and say:

Answer 310

This is not a STAR protocol.

Question 311

11. According to policy 3.300 Supervisors Tactic for Armed Subject Response (STAR) De-Escalation Protocol, Criteria for a supervisor’s response to the call are:

Answer 311

a. There is credible information the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon (not simulated or unseen) and is using it in a manner that can cause death or serious bodily injury. b. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon. c. This will not include open-carry subjects or pocketknives, when carrying the weapon(s) is the sole justification for the call.

Question 312

12. According to policy 3.300 Supervisors Tactic for Armed Subject Response (STAR) De-Escalation Protocol, when a sergeant and/or officers (3) are not available to respond to an incident, officers assigned to ________________ are exempt from the STAR protocol response.

Answer 312

the Resident Section

Question 313

13. According to policy 3.400.1 Responding to Persons in Behavioral Crisis or With Special Needs, persons with a mental illness should only be taken into custody when there is ___________________________________________________________ based on the totality of the circumstances, or they present a clear danger to themselves or others.

Answer 313

Probable cause or reasonable suspicion to believe they have committed an arrestable offense and arrest is the best choice.

Question 314

14. According to policy 3.400.2 Responding to Persons in Behavioral Crisis or With Special Needs, the units that encompass the Behavioral Health Unit (BHU) are:

Answer 314

a. Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) b. Law Enforcement for Mental Health and Addiction (LIMA) diversion program c. Homeless Outreach Team (HOT) to include the Homeless Liaison Coordinator

Question 315

15. According to policy 3.400.2 Responding to Persons in Behavioral Crisis or With Special Needs, Officers with Crisis Intervention Team (CIT) training will be dispatched to provide direction and guidance to events involving persons who are in crisis, showing signs and symptoms of excited delirium, or who are believed to have a mental illness or _______________________.

Answer 315

developmental disability

Question 316

16. You are on the scene of a semi-truck roll over that had a fuel tank break open and now there is a fuel spill in the middle of the intersection and lake of gasoline that spans for almost an entire block. There are also downed live power lines. FD and NV Energy are also on scene, and you all are working from a Command post. This sort of team effort that allows agencies with jurisdictional responsibility, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident is referred to as: (policy 3.500.1 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan)

Answer 316

Unified Command

Question 317

17. Which section is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally. This section, in conjunction with the Advanced Training Program, is responsible for annual training, including Exercise components (e.g., tabletop, drill, or full-scale) according to policy 3.500.2 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan?

Answer 317

Emergency Management Section

Question 318

18. True or False, according to policy 3.500.3 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan, Command and control within ICS starts from the top down and is based on the needs of the incident. The ICS structure is expanded or reduced as needed. Command is established by the most qualified officer, regardless of rank, who is physically on scene.

Answer 318

True

Question 319

19. You are the Watch Commander for the night. You are arriving on a call that appears to be turning into a barricade incident. There are two Sergeants already on scene with one on the inner perimeter / immediate action team, and the other on the outer perimeter who has already established a command post, established ICS and seems to have the incident well under control. The Sergeant asks you if you are going to be the Incident Commander (IC). Based on policy 3.500.3 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan, your answer is:

Answer 319

As WC I should not assume the position unless necessary to allow for continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction.

Question 320

20. Based on policy 3.500.3 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan, regardless of size or type of incident, the top three (3) priorities for establishing incident objectives are:

Answer 320

a. Life safety b. Incident stabilization c. Property preservation

Question 321

21. You are the area Lieutenant, and you are arriving on a call that appears to be turning into a barricade incident. There are two Sergeants already on scene with one on the inner perimeter / immediate action team, and the other on the outer perimeter who has already established a command post, established ICS and seemed to have the incident well under control. The Sergeant asks you if you are going to be the Incident Commander (IC). Based on policy 3.500.4 Major Incident and All Hazard Plan, your answer is:

Answer 321

I will leave you in command and mentor you

Question 322

22. You are the area Lieutenant, and you are arriving on a call that appears to be turning into a barricade incident. There are two Sergeants already on scene with one on the inner perimeter / immediate action team, and the other on the outer perimeter. Based on policy 3.505.3 Barricaded Subject Plan, you need to establish an ICP that:

Answer 322

a. Is secured and is in close proximity to the scene, but is not in the line of sight of the suspect; b. Has an area for responding units to stage

Question 323

23. On this same barricade event, you have established the ICP, made yourself IC and now it is time to call the SWAT Commander. Among other things, one of the factors you will discuss with him regarding their response to the incident, based on policy 3.505.3 Barricaded Subject Plan, will be:

Answer 323

The necessity for a large-scale tactical response and neighborhood evacuations versus surveillance and other means to de-escalate the situation and prevent a use of deadly force.

Question 324

Investigative detentions, also known as a reasonable suspicion stops or Terry stops allow an officer to stop a person to ascertain their:

Answer 324

a. Identity b. Purpose

Question 325

24. True or False, based on policy 3.510 Hostage Plan, nothing in this plan will preclude the use of necessary force by officers in protecting themselves and others from death and substantial bodily harm (see LVMPD 3.110, Use of Force).

Answer 325

True

Question 326

25. According to policy 3.510 Hostage Plan, Once the SWAT team deploys and takes command of the inner perimeter, or if the hostage taker becomes mobile, the deployment of tactical assets, apprehension of the hostage taker, and rescue of the hostages is maintained by the ______________________ until the situation is resolved.

Answer 326

SWAT Commander

Question 327

1. You are on the scene of a bomb threat at the Orleans. The suspect called in stating he will detonate a device in one hour if one hundred million dollars is not sent to an account he provided. You meet with the brand-new director of security, and he asks you if the casino should just go ahead and pay it to avoid a detonation. Your response based on policy 3.520.2 Bomb Threats – Located Explosive Devices – Detonations will be:

Answer 327

All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by the representative of the establishment.

Question 328

2. You are the watch commander, and someone has called in a bomb threat to HQ. You were advised Bolden units along with HQ security and K9 are sweeping the campus. No evacuations have been made and everything is business as normal since there is nothing suspicious being located yet. You call the sergeant in charge of HQ security and ensure everything is being handled in accordance with policy. Nothing is located, nothing detonated, it appears to be a hoax. You then send an email with the details to the Deputy Chiefs of the Community Policing Division, Homeland Security Division, Support Division Director, ARMOR section supervisor, Bureau Commanders of SNCTC, Communications and the Office of the Sheriff executive lieutenant. The next thing you do is ensure: (policy 3.520.5 Bomb Threats – Located Explosive Devices – Detonations)

Answer 328

Watch Commander log entry is not made.

Question 329

3. You are the watch commander and on the scene of a located explosive device. The media are blowing up your phone asking you a bunch of questions as usual. One media person got info from a viewer that a suspicious device was located. So, they are asking questions on the type of explosive, components, packaging, method used to detonate, opinions as to why the device did or did not detonate and investigative techniques used to mitigate the threat. According to policy 3.520.9, Bomb Threats – Located Explosive Devices-Detonations, your response, after conferring with the ARMOR supervisor, SNCTC Bureau Commander or Lieutenant, Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI), and/or the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) and you are told specific information is not to be released, is:

Answer 329

Law enforcement personnel responded and mitigated the threat.

Question 330

4. According to policy 3.535.3 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots, Communication between the department and protest leaders helps to clarify expectations of both demonstrators and police, and thereby increases the likelihood that a demonstration will remain a peaceful and lawful gathering. Who has the responsibility for attempting communication with protest organizers or leaders?

Answer 330

Department Supervisors

Question 331

5. You are arriving on a large gathering which officers describe as growing volatile. You observe approximately 150 subjects running into and out of the street and more people showing up. They seem to be gathered in response to a recent controversial event involving police. You make yourself the IC and in accordance with policy 3.535.5 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots, you evaluate the current and evolving conditions and assess many factors including:

Answer 331

a. Any evolving threat to public safety. b. Protection and preservation of citizens’ civil rights. c. Unlawful actions or violations of laws ordinances, if any, of protesters. d. Movement of vehicular traffic and pedestrian safety concerns.

Question 332

6. Continued from question 5. The crowd is growing, and the situation is devolving out of control with subjects throwing bottles and rocks at officers and breaking store windows and tipping over parked vehicles. You cannot identify nor contact any organizers without compromising the safety of your officers and yourself. You have gathered resources and created skirmish lines. You have announced via Public Address system that the gathering is unlawful. Your intent is to give orders to disperse at least three times, giving them ample time to leave the area. The only conditions under which the order does not need to be given three times is: (policy 3.535.7 Protests: Peaceful Demonstrations, Civil Disobedience, and Riots)

Answer 332

a. If there is an immediate threat of harm to property, then only one order to disperse must be provided. b. If there is an immediate threat of physical harm or death to a person, then no order to disperse must be provided.

Question 333

7. According to policy 3.540 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) Response Policy, A Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) response is used when incidents occur simultaneously and ______________________________________.

Answer 333

exceed conventional law enforcement tactics and resources.

Question 334

8. True or False – According to policy 3.540.2 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) Response Policy, Non-uniformed officers near the incident may respond to the staging area or as directed by the IC. However, careful consideration will be given to the assistance they can provide in relationship to that of a marked patrol unit with a uniformed officer. Non-uniformed officers should be readily identifiable as law enforcement to mitigate blue-on-blue incidents.

Answer 334

True

Question 335

9. Policy 3.540.2 Multi-Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities (MACTAC) Response Policy: You are IC on an active assailant. You have ICS established, all responsibilities have been handled, a unified command has been set up and additional resources are pouring in. You have set up an alternate staging area for off-duty personnel who have responded to the event. You have an on-duty sergeant in charge of that staging area. You want him to ensure that all off-duty officers at that staging area, before they are assigned any tasks are:

Answer 335

a. Readily identifiable wearing an LVMPD uniform or identifiable police insignias. b. Have necessary equipment readily available (e.g., radio, handcuffs, and less lethal option) on their person.

Question 336

10. According to policy 4.100 Arrest Procedures and Declaration of Arrest, ____________ are responsible for ensuring the reports are completed and the quality of the report is acceptable.

Answer 336

Shift Supervisors

Question 337

11. According to policy 4.100.2 Arrest Procedures and Declaration of Arrest, Officers may, after notification and approval of a _________________, exercise discretion regarding continuing with the booking process if it has been determined that the arrestee needs medical assistance.

Answer 337

c. Watch Commander

Question 338

12. You are the watch commander, and you receive a call from an officer regarding the release of a suspect from custody for medical reasons. You start asking the officer what the charges are. He asks, “why do you want to know?” You explain to him that according to policy 4.100.2 Arrest Procedures and Declaration of Arrest, we cannot release a suspect if he is in custody for crimes against an officer, DV, DWI or any other mandated arrest, any violent crime against a person with significant injury, and what else?

Answer 338

a. Any violent crime involving the use of a deadly weapon. b. Sexual Assault c. Kidnapping

Question 339

13. A show of authority by an officer, in words or actions or both, that would cause a reasonable person to think they were being deprived of their liberty more than temporarily (i.e., more than an investigative detention) and involves either: 1. Submission by the subject to the officer’s show of authority, or 2. An actual physical touching that places the subject under the control of the officer. This is the definition of: (policy 4.102.2 Arrests without Warrants)

Answer 339

an arrest

Question 340

14. A juvenile should be advised of the potential to be charged in ____________ when applicable. Examples of potential crimes include murder, attempt murder, and sexual assault. (Policy 4.102.2 Arrests without Warrants)

Answer 340

Adult court

Question 341

15. According to policy 4.102.7 Arrests without Warrants, an officer will immediately release from custody any person they arrested without a warrant if the officer becomes aware that there is insufficient probable cause for proceeding with an arrest against the person. A released person will be deemed not to have been arrested but only ____________.

Answer 341

Detained

Question 342

16. You are an area lieutenant on duty when your sergeant calls and complains that FJC is not responding to a call that his officers are on. You ask him what happened, and he informs you that the suspect battered his pregnant wife. You ask what else the suspect did, and he informs you that is all. You then proceed to tell him that according to policy 4.104.7 Domestic Violence Investigations, the FJC serves as the investigative component for felony domestic violence cases excluding domestic violence where the enhancement is based solely on the victim being pregnant. What other exclusions are there?

Answer 342

a. DV where the offense of coercion is the only felony crime. b. Misdemeanor domestic violence that is coupled with non-domestic violence felony crime such as burglary or grand larceny. c. For the charge of domestic violence with a prior felony conviction, the prior felony conviction must be a domestic violence offense.

Question 343

17. You are the watch commander and are informed that there was a domestic battery by a department employee on his spouse. You are told that officers are at the residence now and a sergeant is there. There is PC for the employee. They can’t remember who handles this call since policy changes so much. You explain that according to policy 4.104.6 Domestic Violence Investigations, (which can be easily accessed from their tablet or cell phone through PowerDMS) the unit to call out is:

Answer 343

Criminal Investigations

Question 344

18. You are the on-duty area Lieutenant when you receive a call from your sergeant. She informs you that an officer is making a DV arrest however, there is a previous conviction for domestic violence, verified through records, and the suspect had a firearm on him when he was arrested. She knows there is something that needs to be sent to the feds, but she cannot remember which alphabet agency. You inform her that a Firearms Notification (LVMPD 181) needs to be faxed to the local office of the _________ and _______ (Policy 4.104.5 Domestic Violence Investigations)

Answer 344

Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) and LVMPD CCW Dispositions Detail

Question 345

19. You are the dayshift Lieutenant when you are approached by a LEST. She informs you that there is a subject in the front lobby who shows as having a Stalking/Harassment Order against him which has not been served. She tells you the sergeant refuses to bring an officer in from the field to serve it. You ask, “I don’t understand, how can I help?” She says reminds you of policy 4.106.4 Orders for Protection (Restraining Orders) and says:

Answer 345

Stalking Harassment Orders must be served (or adverse party notified) by a commissioned officer.

Question 346

20. According to policy 4.108 Transporting Arrestees, in the event of an arrestee escape, the transporting officer will notify the Communications Bureau and __________________.

Answer 346

c. Attempt to recapture the arrestee.

Question 347

21. True or False – According to policy 4.116.1 Driving/Vehicle Procedures, provisions of NRS do not relieve the driver from the duty to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons and do not protect the driver from consequences of the driver’s reckless disregard for the safety of others.

Answer 347

True

Question 348

22. True or False – Sergeants and Lieutenants are required to recertify at EVOC every 5 years according to policy 4.116.2 Driving/Vehicle Procedures?

Answer 348

True

Question 349

23. You are the area Lieutenant and are informed by your sergeant that one of his officers had struck a pole backing out of a parking spot. The officer is fine, no injuries. He asks if he should request traffic to respond. You ask him how bad the damage is, and he tells you it’s just a minor scratch and dent, barely $200 dollars’ worth of damage. According to policy 4.116.3 Driving/Vehicle Procedures, your response is:

Answer 349

Complete a Supervisor’s Report of Department Vehicle Incident (LVMPD 393) and forward it to the chain.

Question 350

25. According to policy 4.196 Community Responder Outreach, the location of the primary RECAP activation will be the:

Answer 350

Probable retaliation location Any place deemed appropriate or necessary to the circumstances.

Question 351

The officer’s intent and motivation must be to ______ ______. The facts and circumstances must objectively support the officer’s belief that someone is in distress. If the investigation reveals facts to indicate a crime has been committed, the officer may transition to a criminal investigation. If the investigation reveals that no life-saving assistance is needed, then the Community Caretaking Doctrine is not applicable.

Answer 351

save life or render aid

Question 352

24. You are the area Lieutenant when a shooting happens in a problem neighborhood. You are on scene and are informed that trouble has been brewing there for weeks now. The suspect is still outstanding, and family and friends of the victim are in a rage. You notify the captain and the watch commander that the likelihood for retaliation is high. According to policy 4.196 Community Responder Outreach, this would most likely be a qualifying event for:

Answer 352

Rebuilding Every City Around Peace (RECAP) response

Question 353

The emergency aid exception is a recognized exception to a warrant requirement and allows officers to make a warrantless entry in order to ______ OR to protect an occupant from ______.

Answer 353

summon emergency medical assistance OR imminent bodily harm

Question 354

Officers must consider the ______ of ______ and be able to articulate an objectively reasonable basis for believing there is an immediate need for medical assistance or for protection from imminent bodily harm. The scope and manner of entry must be reasonably adapted to meet those needs.

Answer 354

totality of circumstances

Question 355

If during a traffic stop a driver becomes non-compliant when asked to provide identification and/or other requested documentation with no other actions, the driver will be considered an ______ ______. A supervisor will be notified and respond to determine how to proceed.

Answer 355

obstructive subject

Question 356

Officers can ask for ______ to search a person. Consent must be freely and voluntarily given. The consenting person must know what the officer is searching for and have the ability to revoke consent at any time.

Answer 356

consent

Question 357

UOF - There are circumstances where individuals will not comply with the law unless ______ or ______ by police officers through the use of force.

Answer 357

compelled or controlled

Question 358

UOF - The department seeks to ______ use of force beyond the Graham v. Connor (1989) standard and its minimum requirements by establishing further parameters for the application of force and to offer explicit direction to officers.

Answer 358

manage

Question 359

UOF - Officers will only use a level of force that is ______ ______ to bring an incident or persons under control and to safely accomplish a lawful purpose.

Answer 359

objectively reasonable

Question 360

UOF - An officer’s use of force must balance against the level of ______ exhibited by the subject.

Answer 360

resistance

Question 361

UOF - The level of force administered by an officer must be carefully controlled and should not be more than objectively reasonable to overcome the ______ ______ threatened. As stated in NRS 171.1455, officers will only use the amount of reasonable force necessary to effect an arrest.

Answer 361

physical harm

Question 362

UOF -In a confrontation, an officer will continuously reassess their response and adjust any use of force accordingly based upon the level of ______ ______.

Answer 362

resistance encountered

Question 363

UOF - The intent is to gain control of a subject and then transition into a ______ ______ where an officer is able to focus on the subject’s welfare.

Answer 363

custody phase

Question 364

UOF - In choosing a force option, the ______ and ______ of the crime underlying the police and citizen interaction must be considered.

Answer 364

nature and severity

Question 365

Objective factors that affect the reasonableness of the force include: 1. The severity of the crime 2. Whether the subject poses an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others 3. Whether the subject is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight ..and

Answer 365

4. The influence of drugs/alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject 5. The time available to an officer to make a decision 6. The availability of officers or resources (including the number of officers present at the time) to de-escalate the situation 7. The proximity or access of weapons to the subject 8. The environmental factors and/or other exigent circumstances

Question 366

UOF - When reasonable, officers should gather information about the incident, assess the risks, ______ ______ and equipment, attempt to slow momentum, and communicate and coordinate a response.

Answer 366

assemble resources

Question 367

UOF - Officers should start to develop a tactical plan prior to arriving at the scene and, when applicable, utilize ______ ______ by coordinating approaches to persons who are in crisis, are believed to be mentally ill, or have developmental disabilities

Answer 367

intervention techniques

Question 368

UOF - Where potential confrontations are anticipated, the deployment and use of ______ ______ ______ should be evaluated.

Answer 368

low lethality options

Question 369

UOF - In responding as a team, officers should manage the ______ or ______ of the subject.

Answer 369

containment or isolation

Question 370

UOF - The use of cover, building more distance, or withdrawal to a more tactically secure position should be considered as options to help create ______ to diffuse a situation.

Answer 370

time

Question 371

UOF - Officers will perform their work in a manner that avoids ______ ______ their safety or the safety of others through poor tactical decisions.

Answer 371

unduly jeopardizing

Question 372

UOF - Upon observing substandard officer approaches or flaws in tactical decisions, the supervisor will promptly act to ______ ______ ______.

Answer 372

correct any deficiencies

Question 373

UOF - At times, de-escalation may mean the ______ and ______ use of a lower force option to mitigate a later need to use greater force. Officers will make efforts to control a confrontation and not allow it to escalate.

Answer 373

timely and appropriate

Question 374

UOF: Duty to Intervene - Reporting officer will document in writing no later than 10 days after the occurrence:

Answer 374

1. Date, time, and location of the incident 2. Identity, if known, and description of the participants 3. Description of the actions taken as a result of the observation

Question 375

UOF -Whenever an officer applies a use of force option upon a subject that results in either observable signs or complaints of injury or ______ ______ ______, the officer will continuously monitor the subject and immediately summon medical attention.

Answer 375

difficulty in breathing

Question 376

UOF: Medical Attention - Officers will monitor for signs of life (e.g., pulse, respiration, and chest movement) and update responding medical personnel via Dispatch with:

Answer 376

any changes in the subject’s condition.

Question 377

UOF - Officers will modify their level of control in relation to the amount of ______ offered by a subject.

Answer 377

resistance

Question 378

UOF - Officers must bear in mind that there are many reasons a subject may be non-compliant, resisting arrest, or unresponsive. The person in question may not be capable of understanding the gravity of the situation. A subject may be non-compliant due to a medical condition; mental, physical, or hearing impairment; language barrier; drug interaction; emotional crisis; and have no criminal intent. These circumstances may not make the subject any less dangerous but may require a ______ ______ ______ to effectively address or de-escalate the situation while maintaining officer safety.

Answer 378

change in tactics

Question 379

UOF - Officers will not use a baton, ECD, or projectile weapon on a woman who is believed to be pregnant unless the subject displays ______ ______.

Answer 379

life-threatening resistance

Question 380

UOF - Officers are to exercise care and caution in handling department-approved weapons. Officers will refrain from the unnecessary drawing, handling, or exhibiting of a weapon while in public; the purpose of drawing and manipulating a department-approved tool is to address a potential ______ or tactical situation at hand.

Answer 380

conflict

Question 381

UOF: Use of Force with a Vehicle - Officers will consider the safety of the public and subjects before utilizing PIT, the stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching), or ramming. a. Environmental factors include: 1) Areas with pedestrians 2) Other vehicle traffic 3) Parked vehicles 4) Telephone/utility poles 5) Bridges/overpasses 6) Areas adjacent to paved roads with a significant elevation change 7) and.....

Answer 381

7) Significant curves in the roadway

Question 382

UOF: Use of Force with a Vehicle - Officers will consider the safety of the public and subjects before utilizing PIT, the stationary vehicle immobilization technique (pinching), or ramming. b. Subject factors: 8) Severity of the crime 9) Number of subjects 10) Subjects known to have access to firearms 11) Potential of the subject to use the vehicle as a weapon 12) Potential of creating a crossfire situation 13) and.....

Answer 382

13) Size/weight of the subject’s vehicle compared to the police vehicle

Question 383

UOF: Rifle Deployment Reporting Requirements - Supervisor of the deploying officer will: 1) Conduct a review of the deployment and make appropriate comments in the deployment report, including any supervisory decisions modifying original deployment. 2) Forward the report to the supervising lieutenant for review. - Lieutenant reviewing will: 1) 2) Forward the deployment report to the bureau/area commander

Answer 383

Conduct a review of the deployment report and make appropriate comments.

Question 384

UOF: Reportable Force - The department investigates and reviews all reportable use of force incidents to determine the appropriateness of the application of force and to address any performance or ______ ______.

Answer 384

misconduct issues

Question 385

UOF: Investigative Responsibilities - It is the policy of this department to conduct a fair, impartial, and thorough investigation of all uses of deadly force (or force resulting in death or substantial bodily injury) for the interest of ______, ______, and ______.

Answer 385

the officer, the department, and the community alike

Question 386

UOF: Investigative Responsibilities - The first-arriving supervisor will: a. Act as incident commander (per LVMPD 3.500, Major Incident and All Hazard Plan) until relieved and will: 1) Ensure medical attention is provided for those in need. 2) Ensure the crime scene is safe and secure, preventing the possibility of contamination or alteration. a) This responsibility includes the removal of unauthorized persons, including officers from the inner perimeter of the crime scene. A degree of ______ and ______ ______must be exercised to avoid alienating potential witnesses who may possess information of value.

Answer 386

tact and good judgment

Question 387

UOF: Investigative Responsibilities - The first-arriving supervisor will: Ensure witness officers and subject officers are separated and placed in a secure environment with a monitor officer. The monitor officer will: a) Not talk to the officer about the facts and circumstances of the incident. b) Ensure that under no circumstance any representative be allowed to speak to or move the location of any subject or witness officer prior to a ______ ______ approval. c) Ensure that subject officers and witness officers do not discuss the incident being investigated. d) Remain with the officer until the firearms countdown is completed or dismissed by a ______ ______.

Answer 387

FIT supervisor('s)

Question 388

UOF - The Use of Force Policy Committee will review the Use of Force Policy and other policies pertaining to the use of force on an ______ basis as designated by the Sheriff.

Answer 388

annual

Question 389

When possible, officers will open a locked container, trunk, or glove compartment with a key rather than by force. Locked containers may only be forced open with the consent of the owner or if the officer has a reasonable and articulable belief that the item contains weapons, explosives, hazardous materials, or ______.

Answer 389

contraband

Question 390

Regardless of whether evidence is located within, the reasonable and articulable belief to open a locked container without consent must be documented either in

Answer 390

PremierOne (P1) (no arrest/no evidence located) and/or the DOAR or an Officer’s Report

Question 391

The department places rules and parameters in governing the use of the Special Weapons and Tactics (SWAT) unit as a tool. The desired outcome requires that potential threats involved in the service of the warrant be met only with reasonable and appropriate tactics by police. The use of SWAT is limited and is reserved as a controlled option to defuse a dangerous situation. If it is determined that the use of SWAT is not appropriate, other tactics should be considered (list examples).

Answer 391

surveillance, take-aways, ruse, etc.

Question 392

445 Stand-off - Pipe Bomb

Answer 392

70 feet with a preferred distance of 1200'

Question 393

445 Stand-off - Suicide Bomber

Answer 393

110 feet with a preferred distance of 1700'

Question 394

445 Stand-off - Briefcase/Suitcase

Answer 394

150 feet with a preferred distance of 1850'

Question 395

445 Stand-off - Car

Answer 395

320 feet with a preferred distance of 1900'

Question 396

445 Stand-off - SUV/Van

Answer 396

400 feet with a preferred distance of 2400'

Question 397

445 Stand-off - Small Delivery Truck

Answer 397

640 feet with a preferred distance of 3800'

Question 398

445 Stand-off - Container/Water Truck

Answer 398

860 feet with a preferred distance of 5100'

Question 399

445 Stand-off - Semi-Trailer

Answer 399

1570 feet with a preferred distance of 9300'

Question 400

445 Stand-off - A shelter-in-place zone is delineated as:

Answer 400

The space between the Mandatory Evacuation Distance and Preferred Evacuation Distance

Question 401

A Low-Risk/Non-SWAT Search Warrant is reserved for: 1. A dwelling reasonably believed to be unoccupied 2. OR Occupants of the dwelling, other than the primary suspect, are believed to be cooperative 3. AND the risk to officers is minimal 4. AND...

Answer 401

Forced entry, if necessary, can be reasonably accomplished with tools available to patrol.

Question 402

A Low-Risk/Non-SWAT Search Warrant must have an IAP approved by:

Answer 402

the section lieutenant

Question 403

Search Warrant Service: The section lieutenant, or lieutenant designee of equal rank, will: a. Review the application, affidavit, and the Search Warrant IAP: Low-Risk/Non-SWAT Service Request form for accuracy and completeness. b. Review the planned service of a search warrant to ensure de-escalation and to minimize risk to officers and the community. c. Approve and sign the low-risk/non-SWAT IAP. d. AND.....

Answer 403

Ensure the bureau commander has been notified of the low-risk/non-SWAT service.

Question 404

The section lieutenant, or lieutenant designee of equal rank (no acting lieutenants), will: a. Ensure that the high-risk/SWAT IAP is complete and accurate. b. Approve and sign the high-risk/SWAT IAP, indicating the need for SWAT service. c. Inform the bureau commander when SWAT will serve the search warrant and coordinate the review and approval of the high-risk/SWAT IAP. d. AND....

Answer 404

Coordinate a Tier I response of the Tiered Response Incident Protocol (TRIP) with the respective area command no later than 24 hours after the warrant is served.

Question 405

The Search and Seizure Committee, chaired by the Internal Oversight and Constitutional Policing (IOCP) bureau commander, will convene ______ to review, and discuss search and seizure policy and training.

Answer 405

quarterly

Question 406

Unlike traditional search warrants, the paperwork is not left behind at the place of search or with a responsible party. g. All other policies and procedures pertaining to obtaining traditional search warrants will be adhered to excluding the following: 1) No IAP is required for the installation or removal of a GPS tracker. 2) No after-service Officer’s Report is required for the service of a GPS tracker warrant. 3) AND...

Answer 406

A sergeant does not need to be present for the actual installation or removal (service) of the tracker.

Question 407

Lieutenants approving a search warrant application, affidavit, and IAP will have attended/completed:

Answer 407

a. Search Warrant Preparation & Execution class b. Informant Management class (only required for warrants involving CIs)

Question 408

Required Certification for Service of Low-Risk/Non-SWAT Warrants 1. Sergeants and lieutenants will complete:

Answer 408

The Low-Risk Warrant Service class

Question 409

______ ______ ______ of a pursuit is the cornerstone of the department's pursuit philosophy

Answer 409

immediate supervisory control

Question 410

Officers will not use spike strips to slow or stop any of the following vehicles, unless the use of deadly force would be justified: a) Motorcycle, moped, or any other two- or three-wheeled vehicle. b) All-terrain vehicle (ATV). c) OR...

Answer 410

Any truck transporting explosives or other hazardous materials.

Question 411

3.500 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - It is the policy of this department to provide for the deployment of personnel and equipment when it is determined that a life-safety threat exists that will require a major commitment of department, city, county, state, and/or federal resources for an extended time. Examples include: 1____ 2____ 3____

Answer 411

1) natural or man-made disasters 2) civil disturbances 3) any other complex incident or emergency

Question 412

3.500 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - Such incidents may require additional response by units from neighboring area commands and other jurisdictions. A structured protocol is required to manage 1______ 2______ 3______.

Answer 412

1) the number of responding units 2) control safe ingress and egress routes 3) ensure supervisory command and control of resources.

Question 413

3.500 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN - The purpose of this procedure is to establish the ICS requirements relative to all 1______ 2______ ______ 3______ 4______. Specific tactical procedures are detailed throughout the department manual for designated incidents (e.g., bomb threats, hostage situations, and aircraft accidents) and must be utilized in conjunction with this procedure when dealing with those specific tactical situations.

Answer 413

1) hazards 2) complex incidents 3) [special] events 4) emergencies.

Question 414

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Whenever command is transferred, it must be __________________________.

Answer 414

communicated to Dispatch over the radio

Question 415

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Keeping with ICS best practices, command will be established using the below guidelines. ______ is a primary concept of ICS, and the IC should delegate tasks to personnel qualified to perform them to avoid being overwhelmed during the incident.

Answer 415

Delegation

Question 416

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Not all guidelines below are applicable in every situation; they identify the objectives and outline the major steps to be taken in managing all-hazard incidents:

Answer 416

1. Ensure officer and public safety. 2. Conduct a situation assessment and update Dispatch. 3. Assume on-scene command by implementing ICS, designating a command post, and naming it. 4. Determine communication channels. 5. Designate staging area(s) (police, fire, medical, and media). 6. Establish a perimeter control plan (inner/outer). 7. Consider the need for additional resources (and notification of public safety departments). 8. Determine and maintain ingress/egress routes for first responders. 9. Assist in an evacuation/shelter in place and determine evacuation transportation and destination. 10. Request a Public Information Officer (PIO). 11. Preserve the scene for evidentiary purposes. 12. Maintain an operations log. 13. Develop an incident action plan (formal or informal). 14. Ensure the mental and physical well-being of department employees.

Question 417

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Area command personnel can then be assigned as ______ or ______ ______ to fulfill a specific need.

Answer 417

groups or strike teams

Question 418

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - As the first arriving supervisor on a major incident, ______ must be established, based on priority, and clearly communicated to subsequent arriving supervisor(s).

Answer 418

objectives

Question 419

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - The first arriving supervisor must exercise command and control, and direct additional supervisors to other tasks. Subsequent arriving supervisors have a responsibility to ______ ______ with the first arriving supervisor to support their needs.

Answer 419

establish communication

Question 420

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Area lieutenant will: 15. Verify command has been established (see Establishing Command). If command has already been established, the lieutenant will determine if command needs to be transferred to the lieutenant position. This will be based on the size, type, and complexity of the incident. On less complex incidents, the lieutenant may choose to leave the sergeant or officer in command and mentor the sergeant or officer. The lieutenant will ensure that the decisions made by the sergeant or officer in the position of IC are sound and within the guidelines of department policy, AND, Determine the need for additional ICS command and general staff positions. 16. Ensure the watch commander has been notified. 17. Ensure that all requests for regional, state, or federal resources are made through the ______ ______ ______, thereby permitting the Emergency Management Section oversight of these requests.

Answer 420

DOC- Department Operations Center

Question 421

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command - Watch commander will: 18. Respond to verify command has been established. 19. Assume command if necessary; however, the watch commander’s primary responsibility is for the continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction. 20. AND.....

Answer 421

Assist with the response by additional resources from other area commands and/or agencies.

Question 422

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Supervisors/officers subsequently arriving will: 21. Respond to the staging area, or other location, as directed by the IC or the Communications Bureau. a. Plainclothes officers in proximity to the incident may, after logging on, respond to the staging area or as directed by the IC; however, careful consideration will be given to their roles or assistance. Plainclothes officers will be readily identifiable as police officers. 22. Contact the staging mgr for__________________________. 23. Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel, and activate “arrive” button on the mobile data terminal (MDT). 24. Remain on post until relieved or released.

Answer 422

Contact the staging area manager for deployment orders.

Question 423

3.500.3 MAJOR INCIDENT AND ALL HAZARD PLAN, Establishing command (ICS) - Any supervisor will: 43. Upon becoming aware that trauma exposure during a major incident is having a detrimental effect on an employee’s overall well-being, see Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP) for reporting procedures to ensure ______ and ______ are made available.

Answer 423

support and resources

Question 424

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - The area ______ ______ will be in command of police operations in a barricade situation.

Answer 424

patrol supervisor

Question 425

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - After SWAT arrives, the patrol supervisor will retain command of the ICP, staging area, ______ ______, and other police operations.

Answer 425

secondary perimeter

Question 426

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - Subjects who are suicidal and pose an immediate or demonstrated threat to the public will be handled as ______ ______.

Answer 426

barricaded subjects

Question 427

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - Tactical options that include use of ______ ______ tools may be considered based on the level of danger the subject poses to the general public.

Answer 427

low lethality

Question 428

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - Patrol lieutenant, incident commander, or watch commander will: 20. Ensure officers and patrol supervisor are addressing the situation to a standard and make adjustments as needed. 21. Discuss the incident with the SWAT or tactical commander, including:

Answer 428

a. The available intelligence on the subject’s background and motivation. b. The nature and severity of the crime (determine the threat to the public). c. The necessity for a large-scale tactical response and neighborhood evacuations versus surveillance and other means to de-escalate the situation and prevent a use of deadly force.

Question 429

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - Patrol lieutenant, incident commander, or watch commander will: 22. Designate a location for evacuated citizens to gather that is safe and has facilities (e.g., schools or shopping centers). 23. Establish an ICP that:

Answer 429

a. Is secured and is in close proximity to the scene, but is not in the line of sight of the suspect; b. Has an area for responding units to stage; and c. Has unobstructed radio and telephonic communications.

Question 430

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - Patrol lieutenant, incident commander, or watch commander will: 24. Establish ingress/egress routes. 25. Request fire and medical support to the command post. 26. Assign an officer to function as recorder to maintain a chronological log of events. 27. Advise Communications of the command post phone number. 28. Assign a patrol supervisor or designee to the TOC, if necessary. 29. Request the Traffic Section supervisor to take control of the outer perimeter and any travel routes, thereby relieving patrol personnel. 30. Maintain control over the relief and deployment of patrol officers. 31. Function as or designate a media liaison, unless the Public Information Office (PIO) is present. 32. AND...

Answer 430

Notify Emergency Management coordinator when appropriate.

Question 431

3.510 HOSTAGE PLAN - In hostage situations, it is the policy of this department to prioritize life safety through de-escalation tactics or alternative approaches and to make every reasonable effort to affect the safe release of the hostages should ______ ______.

Answer 431

communications fail

Question 432

3.510 HOSTAGE PLAN - Patrol lieutenant will ensure officers and patrol supervisor are addressing the situation to a standard and make adjustments as needed. 21. Designate a location for evacuated citizens to gather that is safe and has facilities. 22. Establish an ICP that: a. Is secured and is close in proximity to the scene, but is not in the line of sight of the suspect; b. Has an area for responding units to stage; and c. Has unobstructed radio and telephonic communications. 23. Establish ingress/egress routes. 24. Request fire and medical support to the command post. 25. Assign an officer to function as recorder to maintain a chronological log of events. 26. Advise Communications of the command post phone number. 27. Assign a patrol supervisor or designee to the Tactical Operations Center (TOC), if necessary. 28. Request the ______ ______ supervisor to take control the outer perimeter and any travel routes, thereby relieving patrol personnel. 29. Maintain control over the relief and deployment of patrol officers. 30. Function as or designate a media liaison, unless the Public Information Office (PIO) sergeant is present. 31. Plan for the availability/use of pursuit/surveillance vehicles and control of travel routes, if appropriate. 32. Notify the Emergency Management coordinator when appropriate.

Answer 432

Traffic Section

Question 433

3.510 HOSTAGE PLAN - Upon conclusion of an event, unit supervisors will: Ensure all reports are completed and copies sent to the SWAT Section for completion of the ______.

Answer 433

after-action report.

Question 434

Any item (package, luggage, vehicle, etc.) identified as potentially containing chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive material that requires specialized equipment and training to further evaluate. Suspicious indicators are based upon the prevailing and/or communicated threat, placement and proximity of the item(s) to people and valuable assets, and more tangible aspects including but not limited to; unexplainable wires or electronics, other visible IED components; unusual sounds, vapors, mists, powders, liquids, odors, etc. Summary: Any package/bag/item that, due to a proper threat assessment, is a possible danger to the people or property in the area.

Answer 434

suspicious item

Question 435

Any item (package, luggage, vehicle) that does not outwardly present itself as suspicious or threatening in nature; cannot be associated with a communicated threat; is not positioned to avoid observation and/or detection where people congregate; and critical assets are present. The owner may not be readily determined or located; however, there is usually a plausible explanation as to why the item was left unattended (e.g., a toy where children may have recently played, a briefcase or small backpack in a toilet facility or, a piece of luggage at a transportation venue in a non-high traffic pedestrian area).

Answer 435

unattended item

Question 436

With any 445 threat at HQ, the watch commander will: 6. Ensure that the threat is handled in accordance with policy. 7. Send an email detailing the incident to (8 recipients) 8. Ensure an entry is not made in the Watch Commander Log.

Answer 436

the Community Policing Division deputy CHIEFS the Homeland Security Division deputy chief the division director of the Support Division the ARMOR Section supervisor the SNCTC bureau commander the Communications bureau commander and the Office of the Sheriff executive lieutenant.

Question 437

4.196 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH - The Rebuilding Every City Around Peace (RECAP) and Critical Crash Response Outreach (CCRO) partnerships are open to ______ volunteers.

Answer 437

faith-based

Question 438

4.196.1 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH, Definitions - A violent crime (i.e., shooting, stabbing, aggravated assault, etc.) has been committed and, upon review of the circumstances, officers in charge of the scene determine that there is a high likelihood of retaliation by subjects associated with the victim. It can also include a fatal or critical-injury crash.

Answer 438

activation event

Question 439

4.196.1 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH, Definitions - An active, approved member who is part of RECAP/CCRO, has participated in and completed the Violence Responder RECAP/CCRO workshop, and meets conditions set forth in this policy.

Answer 439

activation responder

Question 440

4.196.1 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH, Definitions - A faith-based/community response initiated by the department when a preliminary investigation of a violent event indicates the strong probability of retaliation, a violent event that involves youth crews, gangs, or racial tension; an event so egregious that it affects the safety and security of the affected community, despite the fact that there is little or no likelihood of retaliation; or circumstances prior to and/or after civil unrest incident(s) (will not be activated until the scene is stable and deemed safe, which can be up to 48 hours after initial incident). A CCRO responder’s initial outreach and connection with family of decedent or critically injured person as the result of a crash.

Answer 440

primary activation (Phase 1)

Question 441

4.196.1 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH, Definitions - A faith-based/community event initiated by the department to build trust, promote peace and strengthen rapport in areas of the community with potential for violent crime, tension with law enforcement, accident prevention and traffic safety education, or any other community need that can be alleviated by such an event.

Answer 441

proactive activation

Question 442

4.196.1 COMMUNITY RESPONDER OUTREACH, Definitions - A follow-up event, within 72 hours, to a primary activation held on behalf of, and in, the affected community, conducted in collaboration with community and faith-based partners to promote peace in the aftermath of the violent event. The purpose of such events is to send the message of non-violence; to convey to the community that violent crime in not an acceptable social norm; to create a bridge between citizens and law enforcement; to increase the opportunity for citizens to report criminal activity and increase the department’s ability to solve violent crime; and whenever possible to introduce resources to communities in need by canvassing residents and identifying service gaps. Follow-up outreach by CCRO within 12-24 hours of a fatal or critical-injury crash that assists with the support and needs of the family.

Answer 442

secondary activation (Phase 2)

Question 443

4.196.4 Rebuilding Every City Around Peace (RECAP) - The board will meet ______ to set goals, foster open dialogue, ensure collaboration on relevant community policing initiatives, and review and monitor activation activity.

Answer 443

semiannually (at a minimum)

Question 444

4.196.4 Rebuilding Every City Around Peace (RECAP) - On-scene supervisor will: 1. Coordinate with investigators to determine if the event is a qualifying activation event. 2. If so, notify the bureau commander or designee and the watch commander. 3. Notify OCE via email at OOCE@lvmpd.com. 4. Notify an activation responder from the RECAP list on OCE’s SharePoint site or via Communications and provide the responder with the on-scene law enforcement contact information, including the reporting site and any other pertinent information.

Answer 444

Primary/Phase 1 Activation

Question 445

4.196.5 Critical Crash Response Outreach (CCRO) - Primary/Phase 1 Activation on-scene supervisor will: 1. Coordinate with Traffic Bureau to determine if the crash is a qualifying activation event. 2. If so, ____________________.

Answer 445

notify the bureau commander or designee and the watch commander

Question 446

6.360.1 CRIME SCENE INVESTIGATIONS AND INVESTIGATIVE PERSONNEL NOTIFICATIONS, Preliminary Investigations - The responsibility of conducting the preliminary investigation normally lies with the patrol officer. Since a patrol officer is typically the first to arrive on the scene of nearly all crimes, it is their responsibility to 1_____2_____3_____4_____ as outlined in LVMPD 6.300, Protecting Crime Scenes and Rendering Aid.

Answer 446

1) evaluate the circumstances 2) take immediate and decisive action 3) render aid to injured persons 4) protect the crime scene

Question 447

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - When the crime involves a dignitary or politician, the ______ ______ ______ lieutenant or designee will be notified.

Answer 447

Criminal Intelligence Section (CIS)

Question 448

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Patrol Investigations will be notified on all crimes involving: 1. PROPERTY-RELATED crimes at a felony level to include: a. Auto thefts requiring immediate follow up b. Residential/commercial burglaries over $_____ c. Grand larceny over $_____ d. Residential/commercial/vehicle burglaries as part of an identified series e. Firearm-related crimes to include: 1) Prohibited person in possession of a firearm 2) Possession of a stolen firearm or obliterated serial number

Answer 448

Burglaries over $50,000 Grand larceny over $75,000

Question 449

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Patrol Investigations will be notified on all crimes involving: 2. PERSON-RELATED crimes at a felony level to include: a. Assault, battery, mayhem, attempted murder, robberies, and larceny from persons b. Domestic-related crimes at a felony level to include: 1) Assault 2) Battery 3) Strangulation 4) Harassment 5) Stalking 6) AND.....

Answer 449

Violation of protective orders

Question 450

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Suspicious deaths: a. If the Crime Scene Investigations (CSI) Section, the coroner's investigator, or Patrol has assessed the scene and observed something suspicious, the ______ Section lieutenant will be notified.

Answer 450

Homicide

Question 451

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - The TCB Organized Retail Crime (ORC) Section will be notified, and will take primary investigative responsibility for crimes when the theft is over $______ in value of a retail product(s).

Answer 451

$250,000

Question 452

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Homicide Section will be notified on all: 1_____2_____3_____

Answer 452

1. Homicides 2. Fire deaths 3. Suspicious deaths after crime scene analysts (CSAs) have responded to and assessed the scene

Question 453

6.360.1 Preliminary Investigations - Abuse/Neglect Detail will be notified on all: 1_____2_____3_____

Answer 453

1. Children or elders with substantial injuries caused by abuse or neglect 2. All child deaths, including suicides 3. Deaths of elders (60 years of age or older) caused by abuse or neglect

Question 454

6.360.2 Crime Scene Investigation Control - The area sergeant or lieutenant will respond to all major incidents/scenes and assume command from the patrol officer at the scene. It will be the responsibility of the area sergeant, lieutenant, or incident commander to evaluate the circumstances and determine the need for CSI. The ______ ______ will provide the details of all major incidents/scenes to the watch commander.

Answer 454

area sergeant

Question 455

6.360.2 Crime Scene Investigation Control - The area sergeant, lieutenant, or incident commander will assist in coordinating available patrol personnel to maintain the integrity of the crime scene until the investigation is complete or they are relieved by investigative personnel. Detectives will keep only the essential number of patrol personnel needed to __________ during the completion of the investigation.

Answer 455

maintain crime scene integrity

Question 456

6.360.3 Crime Scene Documentation and Reporting - Accurate documentation of a crime scene is vital to identifying and prosecuting suspects who commit crimes. The ______ ______ ______ should be completed by the patrol officer on all scenes where an investigative unit will be responding or conducting a follow-up investigation.

Answer 456

Major Incident Log

Question 457

All pursuits will be thoroughly investigated for adherence to ______ and ______. The results of these investigations, as well as other related analyses, will be the foundation for updating procedures and training.

Answer 457

procedures and tactics

Question 458

True or False: A unit will be considered primary if, at any point during the pursuit, the unit is directly behind the suspect vehicle.

Answer 458

True

Question 459

A vehicular pursuit may be initiated based on a pursuing officer’s conclusion that the pursuit is the ______ ______ ______ at the time.

Answer 459

best available option

Question 460

If an officer articulates that a subject presents a clear and immediate danger to the public, the monitoring sergeant, area lieutenant, or watch commander must verbally approve the pursuit over the radio and can direct officers to continue in the pursuit. In addition, officers who initiate vehicle pursuits, and field supervisors who allow pursuits to continue, must consider the following initiation and evaluation factors:

Answer 460

1. Whether the need for immediate apprehension of the suspect(s) outweighs the dangers created by the pursuit itself. 2. Whether the suspect is known to officers and/or can be apprehended at a later time. 3. Vehicular and pedestrian traffic and road conditions. 4. Nature of the area of the pursuit: residential, commercial, or rural. 5. Weather conditions (e.g., rain, fog, or snow) time of day, and visibility which creates an unreasonable risk of injury to the public or the pursuing officers. 6. Alternatives to pursuit, including the availability of the air unit, the use of the precision intervention technique (PIT), stop sticks, or arrest at a later time.

Question 461

All decisions by officers and supervisors to conduct vehicle pursuits will be made with the primary goal of assuring the safety of 1______ 2______ 3______

Answer 461

1) innocent citizens 2) officers 3) and whenever possible, those attempting to flee.

Question 462

Before conducting a felony car stop for a stolen vehicle, officers will:

Answer 462

request the air unit and allow it adequate time to arrive on scene before activating emergency lights and siren.

Question 463

3.210 Control of Pursuits - The field supervisor will: Immediately acknowledge notification and authorize the continuation of the pursuit via the radio, “I am supervising this pursuit,” and assume responsibility for controlling pursuit tactics and continuing the pursuit. 1______ 2______ 3______ 4______

Answer 463

1. Order discontinuation of the pursuit via the radio when the necessity for apprehension is outweighed by the dangers of the pursuit. 2. Consider use of PIT and/or stop sticks. 3. Respond to the termination point of the pursuit, and ensure the appropriate notifications are made. 4. Ensure all required post-pursuit procedures are completed.

Question 464

Jurisdictional Pursuits Initiated by the LVMPD 1. Pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark County unless the decision to continue is approved by the LVMPD on-duty watch commander or field lieutenant. 2. When a pursuit leaves Clark County, officers and supervisors will re-evaluate the pursuit to include consideration of the following factors: a. b. c. d. 3. The pursuing officer or a supervisor may request assistance from another agency. If such a request is made, officers or the supervisors will not request an officer from another agency to actively join in the pursuit; however, other appropriate forms of assistance may be requested.

Answer 464

a. How long the pursuit has lasted b. Whether assistance is needed from another agency c. Whether communication can be maintained d. All the factors set forth in the policy as to whether the pursuit can be conducted in reasonable safety and in compliance with state law and policy.

Question 465

3.210.7 Rules Governing Inter-Inter-Jurisdictional Pursuits Initiated by Outside Agencies 1. Officers are prohibited from entering into pursuits that were initiated by another jurisdiction or law enforcement agency unless assigned to the pursuit by a supervisor. A supervisor will not assign officers to participate in such pursuits unless assistance is requested by the initiating agency, and they provide sufficient information including the crime the suspects are believed to have committed so that a supervisor can determine if the pursuit is in compliance with the provisions of this policy. If insufficient information is received and/or if the outside agency-initiated pursuit is not in compliance with this policy, the pursuit will not be joined by LVMPD police officers. However, a supervisor may authorize officer(s) to drive in routine operation toward the area of the pursuit to be in a relatively good position to render back up and other aid once the pursuit vehicle is stopped. 2. Authorized officers operating as secondary units in pursuits involving a lone primary unit from another agency will be subject to all department procedures governing primary pursuit units, including as a priority, the responsibility to discontinue the LVMPD role in the pursuit immediately whenever: a______ b______ c______ d______ 3. LVMPD field supervisors will monitor and control the department’s role in such pursuits exactly as they would any other pursuit.

Answer 465

a. An additional unit from the originating agency joins the pursuit and can take over the secondary unit responsibilities. b. The pursuit is not conducted to the standards of the LVMPD as outlined in this procedure. c. Information is made available which indicates the dangers of the pursuit outweigh the need to apprehend the suspect. d. An LVMPD supervisor orders the LVMPD role in the pursuit discontinued.

Question 466

3.210.8 Additional Pursuit Prevention/Termination Techniques - When properly utilized, tire deflation devices may bring about the safe resolution of police pursuits under controlled conditions. A tire deflation device causes the ______ ______ of air from the tires of the target vehicle, thus permitting the driver to remain in control and to bring the vehicle to a stop. Only those trained in the proper deployment of the tire deflation device are authorized users.

Answer 466

controlled release

Question 467

3.210.8 Additional Pursuit Prevention/Termination Techniques - The use of tire deflation devices (stop sticks) as a pre-pursuit deployment tactic should only be utilized under extenuating circumstances where the vehicle meets the parameters of an approved pursuit should the vehicle become occupied. If utilizing stop sticks as a pre-pursuit deployment tactic, the following tactical considerations must be adhered to: a______ b______ c______ d______

Answer 467

a. Approval from a field supervisor prior to deployment. b. Will not be pre-deployed by a single officer. c. Have a tactical plan (e.g., ballistic shield, immediate action, or lethal/low lethal coverage) in place should the vehicle not be immobilized. d. Be in a position which does not over expose the deployment team to the suspect.

Question 468

3.210.8 Additional Pursuit Prevention/Termination Techniques - Circumstances warranting the use of the PIT as deadly force are as follows: 1) Continued movement of the pursued vehicle would place others in danger of bodily harm or death; and/or 2) Apparent risk of harm, to other than the occupants of the pursued vehicle, is so great as to outweigh the risk of harm in making the forcible stop; and 3) AND.....

Answer 468

Other means of apprehension have been considered and rejected as impractical (e.g., continue to follow, stop sticks, and/or call for the air unit).

Question 469

The Pursuit Review Committee, chaired by IOCP, will review the Vehicle Pursuit Reports quarterly and prepare an annual analysis report and, when appropriate, make recommendations for policy changes or modifications in the training curriculum. The ______ ______ ______ is the repository for the original forms and CAD event recall and tapes.

Answer 469

Internal Affairs Bureau

Question 470

6.360.8 Force Investigation Team (FIT) and Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) Notifications - FIT and CIRT respond and conduct appropriate investigations related to 1______ 2______ 3______. FIT will respond to cases where there is death or critical bodily harm to a subject and there is police involvement. CIRT will be notified of these incidents by FIT on a case-by-case basis as needed for an administrative review.

Answer 470

1) critical events 2) in-custody deaths 3) incidents where LVMPD members are the victims of violent crime while performing their official duties

Question 471

6.360.8 Force Investigation Team (FIT) and Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) Notifications - FIT will be notified on all: 1. Officer-involved shootings (OISs) 2. In-custody deaths, death, or critical bodily harm where there is police involvement 3. Use of deadly force incidents 4. Incidents where the force used by officers lead to critical injury to the subject whom the force was applied 5. Any incident where…..

Answer 471

the department member, during the course of official duties, is the victim of a violent felony crime and sustains critical injury

Question 472

6.360.8 Force Investigation Team (FIT) and Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) Notifications - CIRT will be notified on all: 1. OISs 2. In-custody deaths 3. Attempted suicides at Detention Services Division (DSD) “Gestures” are actions by inmates that may appear to be suicide attempts. These gestures are not made by inmates with the intent to actually harm themselves, but rather gain the attention of corrections personnel. When it is clear that an inmate's intent was not to commit suicide, and there are insignificant injuries to the inmate as a result of the gesture, then corrections personnel will assume investigative responsibility. The results of these investigations will be forwarded to the CIRT lieutenant. 4. Use of deadly force incidents (including intentional animal shootings) 5. Incidents where the force used by officers lead to critical injury to the subject whom the force was applied 6. Any incident where…

Answer 472

the department member, during the course of official duties, is the victim of a violent felony crime and sustains critical injury

Question 473

It is the responsibility of ______________________ (depending on the incident location) to respond to the above incidents and ensure the on-call FIT/CIRT lieutenant is notified by the Communications supervisor.

Answer 473

the on-duty DSD or patrol watch commander

Question 474

The Gang/Vice/Special Investigations Section (SIS) Bureau Gangs Section will be immediately notified when the following crimes are determined to be gang involved (see LVMPD 6.255, Department Response to Criminal Street Gangs) and will respond to the scene to ______ the respective investigative unit with intelligence gathering and dissemination for: 1. Homicide 2. Attempted murder 3. Any incident where Gang Section detectives can provide or gain actionable intelligence to or from any department member

Answer 474

assist

Question 475

The Gangs Section will be immediately notified when the following crimes are determined to be gang-involved and will respond to the scene to assume the role of ______ investigative unit: 1. Firing a gun into an occupied structure 2. Firing a gun from a moving vehicle 3. Violent felony crimes (e.g., BWDW, AWDW, or BWSBH) 4. When the facts known to the primary investigative unit of a homicide, robbery, kidnapping, or sexual assault are reviewed and, in accordance with this policy, it is determined that the crime is gang involved and that members of a gang, as defined in department policy, may take retaliatory action.

Answer 475

primary

Question 476

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - In barricaded subject situations, it is the policy of this department to consider the safety of civilians and officers, and to enhance the prospect of peacefully resolving the incident through ______ tactics.

Answer 476

de-escalation

Question 477

3.505 BARRICADED SUBJECT PLAN - A secured, centralized location where SWAT Team supervisors, Crisis Negotiation Team, patrol liaison, and an Investigative Services Division (ISD) representative control tactical operations and coordinate negotiations.

Answer 477

Tactical Operations Center (TOC)

Question 478

Annual Pursuit Report - 2022 saw 75 Felony Related Pursuit Incidents. A ______% increase compared to 2021.

Answer 478

42%

Question 479

Annual Pursuit Report - Misdemeanor-related Pursuit Incidents _______. This is no change from 2021.

Answer 479

2

Question 480

Annual Pursuit Report - In 2022 there were _____ traffic-related pursuit incidents. A 67% increase compared to 2021

Answer 480

5

Question 481

Annual UOF Report - OISs occurred in ______% of the events generated. Non-Deadly Use of Force occurred in 0.0611% of the events generated.

Answer 481

0.0009%

Question 482

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - Body worn cameras (BWC) are a valuable tool for promoting professionalism, public trust, and ______ in policing by recording citizen contacts with officers.

Answer 482

transparency

Question 483

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - BWCs are also effective in capturing video and audio evidence for use in criminal prosecutions and ______ ______.

Answer 483

internal investigations

Question 484

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - In its utilization of BWCs, the department respects the legitimate ______ ______ of citizens.

Answer 484

privacy interests

Question 485

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - Officers and supervisors assigned a BWC will wear the device while in uniform. a. The BWCs will be worn on the collar, epaulette, eyewear, or head mount as instructed during BWC training. b. ______________________ c. If the BWC shifts and is no longer recording an unobstructed view, officers will reposition the BWC, once aware, and it is safe to do so to maintain an optimum field of vision.

Answer 485

b. Officers will wear their BWC on the non-weapon bearing shoulder to allow for firing a long gun (shotgun or rifle). This will ensure, under most circumstances, the BWC has an optimum or unobstructed forward view.

Question 486

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - Officers must notify ______ ______ when they become aware there is a malfunction or damage to the BWC, document the malfunction/damage in an email, and submit to Systems Administration Unit (SAU).

Answer 486

a supervisor

Question 487

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - BWC activation includes: Any involvement that meets the criteria of a pursuit in policy, or any attempts to contain or locate a subject who has fled from officers whether on foot or in a vehicle (including primary, secondary, or any additional officer who is responding to, or participating in, the pursuit. This also includes ______ or ______ tactics).

Answer 487

“bubbling” or “paralleling”

Question 488

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - Officers will not record 1______2______3______.

Answer 488

1) briefings with investigative units 2) any discussions about charges against a subject 3) activities at command posts

Question 489

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - At the direction of an incident commander, BWCs will be utilized to 1) document police actions 2) scenes of major crowd-control events 3______ ______ 4______.

Answer 489

3) mass demonstrations 4) riots

Question 490

7.136.2 Supervisor Responsibilities: 1. Ensure officers utilize the BWC in accordance with this policy. 2. Ensure officers wear their BWC in a manner to capture the optimum view of their surroundings. 3. When advised of a BWC malfunction: a. Direct the officer to remove the camera from service and place it on the dock for upload. b. Issue a new BWC kit (camera, wire, and battery/controller) from the station spares in accordance with check-out procedures. c. ?? d. Notify the Systems Administration Unit regarding malfunctions to discuss the remedy. 4. Retrieve an officer’s BWC and upload it by the end of the shift if that officer is unable to do so.

Answer 490

c. Assign the new BWC to the officer in Evidence.com.

Question 491

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - Supervisors will only access the BWC video for investigative purposes outlined in policy (e.g., complaints, uses of force, vehicle pursuits, etc.) or ______ ______. In each case, the supervisor, or person accessing the video, will document in the notes section of the specific video reviewed and the reason of the inspection.

Answer 491

an allegation of misconduct

Question 492

7.136 BODY WORN CAMERAS - LVMPD has established a minimum activation compliance rate. A percent of assigned time recorded compliance rate threshold will be established each month based on the top ______% rates of users listed on the BWC APR report for each month. When an officer falls below this rate, a mandatory compliance audit will be triggered, and the officer’s chain must complete a compliance audit of the officer’s BWC usage.

Answer 492

90%

Question 493

3.535.4 PROTESTS: Anticipated Event - The ______ and ______ are responsible for acting as the liaisons with LVMPD and event organizers who are planning a protest.

Answer 493

affected Patrol Bureau captain and the Support Operations Bureau captain

Question 494

3.535.4 PROTESTS: Anticipated Event - The Dept. representatives will: 1. Make every effort to contact the organizer(s) prior to a protest or an anticipated event to ascertain the particulars regarding the protest (e.g., permits, location, time, duration, scope, languages spoken and type of planned activities). ______ ______ and inform organizer(s) on permissible and restricted actions during the event. Provide a handout, outlining unlawful acts or other public safety concerns.

Answer 494

Communicate expectations

Question 495

3.535.4 PROTESTS: Unplanned or Spontaneous Event - When an event requires continuous oversight or monitoring by a supervisor, the supervisor will assign themselves as the incident commander (IC). Upon responding to a protest, the supervisor or IC will evaluate the current and evolving conditions. In addition to the conditions noted by the first-responding officer(s), the supervisor or IC will assess: 1. Any evolving threat to public safety 2. Protection and preservation of citizens’ civil rights 3. Unlawful actions or violations of laws or ordinances, if any, of protesters 4. Movement of vehicular traffic and pedestrian safety concerns 5. Impact of protest on business and commerce 6. Level of communication and cooperation with event organizers, legal observers, and professional members of the media 7. Anticipated duration of the event 8. Positioning of officers and crowd management tactics, including the need to designate units for over-watch 9. Need for the authorization of police protective gear 10. Need for additional units or resources (e.g., in-the-box squads, Traffic, Emergency Management, SWAT) 11. Need for a scribe to record operational decisions and actions (including logging use of force by officers) 12. Need to video record protest activities (either by BWCs or handheld recorder) 13. Necessity for medical assistance to be staged nearby 14. AND......

Answer 495

Environmental factors (e.g., weather and street conditions)

Question 496

3.535.4 PROTESTS: Unplanned or Spontaneous Event - At minimum, the ______ ______ ______ will be made aware of the protest that requires continuous oversight. Dispatch will make appropriate notifications and requests for additional resources relayed by the IC. As circumstances warrant, the IC will provide periodic updates through the chain of command, relaying information to senior command staff regarding the event.

Answer 496

area command captain

Question 497

7.260 NOTIFICATION MATRIX FOR WATCH COMMANDERS/AREA LIEUTENANTS - It is the policy of this department to ensure that the watch commander’s information flow is managed and contains critical, important events that may require ______ ______ ______.

Answer 497

command level review

Question 498

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - It is the policy of this department to identify and respond to department members who display signs of a decline in work performance or other problematic behavior. The Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP) is LVMPD’s ______-______ approach to addressing employee work performance and well-being. EIIP is separate from processes performed in the Internal Affairs Bureau (IAB), the department’s administrative investigative systems, and employee disciplinary action conducted by the Office of Labor Relations.

Answer 498

non-disciplinary

Question 499

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - Information collected from incidents documented in IAPro such as statements of complaint (SOCs), primary indicators (PIs), use of force (UOF) incidents, citizen contacts (CCs), citizen review board (CRB) complaints, canine incidents, vehicle accidents and pursuits, firearm discharges, rifle deployments, alerts, and significant event reports (SERs).

Answer 499

IAPro data

Question 500

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - Conduct also defined as bias indicators as outlined in Nevada Revised Statutes (NRS) 289.823, and include CCs, UOF incidents, motor vehicle accidents, and incidents involving arrests made for resisting an officer and for improper searches/detentions. Additional behavioral indicators include the abuse of sick leave, negative attitude toward community outreach programs or negative interactions with the public, and other behaviors that could signify a decline in work performance.

Answer 500

problematic behavior

Question 501

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - Any on- or off-duty incident a member experiences that may adversely affect their well-being (i.e., involvement in an officer-involved shooting [OIS], victim or witness to violence against a person, responding to mass casualty event, loss of a family member, personal involvement in divorce, victim of a crime, etc.).

Answer 501

significant events

Question 502

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - Established by EIIP for various IAPro data points and measured by the number of on- or off-duty incidents documented in IAPro. They are determined by assessing IAPro data, problematic behavior, productivity, and other indicators.

Answer 502

threshold

Question 503

7.430 EARLY IDENTIFICATION AND INTERVENTION PROGRAM (EIIP) - The primary responsibility of EIIP is to identify problematic behavioral patterns and other indicators at an early stage and to be proactive by providing resources to members such as 1)______ 2)______ 3)______.

Answer 503

1) training 2) counseling 3) support

Question 504

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - When a member reaches or surpasses an EIIP-established threshold, an alert is generated in IAPro then automatically sent to Blue Team and the EIIP alert process is initiated. A member’s dashboard in Blue Team displays their status in the EIIP alert system. The Blue Team dashboard displays a profile for each member within a chain of command’s purview and their status as indicated: 1. Gray: 2. Orange: The member is one incident away from reaching an EIIP-established threshold. 3. Red: The member has reached or surpassed an EIIP-established threshold.

Answer 504

1. Gray; There are no identified issues.

Question 505

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - When a member reaches or surpasses an EIIP-established threshold, an alert is generated in IAPro then automatically sent to Blue Team and the EIIP alert process is initiated. A member’s dashboard in Blue Team displays their status in the EIIP alert system. The Blue Team dashboard displays a profile for each member within a chain of command’s purview and their status as indicated: 1. Gray; There are no identified issues. 2. Orange: ______ 3. Red: The member has reached or surpassed an EIIP-established threshold.

Answer 505

2. Orange: The member is one incident away from reaching an EIIP-established threshold.

Question 506

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - When a member reaches or surpasses an EIIP-established threshold, an alert is generated in IAPro then automatically sent to Blue Team and the EIIP alert process is initiated. A member’s dashboard in Blue Team displays their status in the EIIP alert system. The Blue Team dashboard displays a profile for each member within a chain of command’s purview and their status as indicated: 1. Gray; There are no identified issues. 2. Orange: The member is one incident away from reaching an EIIP-established threshold. 3. Red:

Answer 506

3. Red: The member has reached or surpassed an EIIP-established threshold.

Question 507

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - Only the member and their chain of command have access to the member’s Blue Team dashboard. EIIP-established thresholds have a period of a rolling calendar year (exception: firearm discharges and Significant Event Reports (SERs), which are established over a rolling ______ and ______ month period respectively).

Answer 507

Firearm discharges 30-month SERs 60-month

Question 508

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - First-line supervisor will review members’ Blue Team dashboards ______.

Answer 508

monthly

Question 509

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - First-line supervisor will complete the EIIP alert in Blue Team and forward to second-line supervisor for approval within ______ calendar days of the EIIP alert notification.

Answer 509

14 calendar days

Question 510

7.430.3 EIIP Alert Process - Second-line supervisor will: 1. Review members’ Blue Team dashboards at any time. 2. Receive EIIP alert from Blue Team via email notification. 3. Provide feedback and support to the first-line supervisor. 4. Receive completed EIIP alert via Blue Team from first-line supervisor. a. If the alert is approved, forward it through the chain of command to the bureau commander. b. If the alert is not approved, send it back to the first-line supervisor with instruction on what action is to be taken. 5. Ensure any follow-up listed in the alert response by the first-line supervisor is ______ or ______ before approving the alert (i.e., AOST, RBT, training courses, etc.).

Answer 510

completed or scheduled

Question 511

7.430.4 Performance Reviews - . Upon request, EIIP may produce a performance review for a ___________________________.

Answer 511

member, squad, shift, or bureau

Question 512

7.540 NEWS MEDIA AND PUBLIC INFORMATION - The department recognizes that its legitimacy depends on being ______ with the community.

Answer 512

transparent

Question 513

7.540.1 NEWS MEDIA AND PUBLIC INFORMATION - Between 1700-0800 hours, media personnel are directed to contact the watch commander regarding crimes in progress. Media personnel are instructed to wait at least ______ ______ for a response before contacting the on-call PIO representative.

Answer 513

15 minutes

Question 514

7.540.5 PIO, Release of Information - Ranking officers may release information on field incidents and activities. ______ and ______ may release information on field incidents and activities.

Answer 514

Watch commanders Area lieutenants

Question 515

7.540.5 PIO, Release of Information - ______ ______ or their designee will release information regarding residential or street-level robbery suspects in the area command.

Answer 515

Bureau commanders

Question 516

7.540.13 Incidents Involving Multiple Agencies - For incidents involving other public service agencies (e.g., law enforcement, coroner, or fire department), the watch commander or PIO will confer with other agency command staff to coordinate releases of information to the news media. Generally, the agency having ______ ______ will bear the responsibility.

Answer 516

primary jurisdiction

Question 517

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Patrol response with A and B roster squads moving to 12-hour shifts – only on-duty patrol squads are impacted. Squads on C roster are utilized by the incident commander as needs are determined. RDOs are not impacted.

Answer 517

Level 1

Question 518

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Patrol response with A and B roster squads moving to 12-hour shifts and C roster squads moving to 10-hour shifts, or as directed by the incident commander as needs are determined. All swing shift staff will work regardless of RDOs.

Answer 518

Level 2

Question 519

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Patrol response with A and B roster squads moving to 12-hour shifts and C roster squads moving to 10-hour shifts, or as directed by the incident commander as needs are determined. All patrol squads will work regardless of RDOs.

Answer 519

Level 3

Question 520

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Patrol response with A and B roster squads moving to 12-hour shifts and C roster squads moving to 10-hour shifts, or as directed by the incident commander as needs are determined. This level of activation includes all investigative squads.

Answer 520

Level 4

Question 521

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Designates all area command swing shift squads for a 1400-0000 hours rotation. __________ time rotations are flexible and may change at the discretion of the incident commander. A potential D roster may also be implemented to split C roster personnel to provide further coverage and flexibility in an ongoing incident.

Answer 521

C Roster

Question 522

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Typically exempt, specialized units may be utilized at the discretion of the incident commander.

Answer 522

X Roster

Question 523

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Designates all area command day shift squads for a 0630-1830 hours rotation.

Answer 523

A Roster

Question 524

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Designates all area command grave shift squads for an 1830-0630 hours rotation.

Answer 524

B Roster

Question 525

7.600 EMERGENCY MOBILIZATION PLAN - Actual hours will be determined by the incident commander or designee. The shifts will be effective until termination of the incident. Regular days off (RDOs) may be canceled, and the nature of the incident may require cancellation of pre-approved leaves. This process ensures there is 24-hour coverage that can be adjusted as needs arise. The ______ ______ of the Emergency Mobilization Plan provide the resources.

Answer 525

four levels

Question 526

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - The specific portion of a social media website where content is displayed and managed by an individual or individuals with administrative rights.

Answer 526

page

Question 527

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Content an individual shares on a social media site or the act of publishing content on a site.

Answer 527

post

Question 528

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Personal information that a user provides on a social media site.

Answer 528

profile

Question 529

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Topics that relate to a matter of political, social, or other concern to the community. It does not include topics that relate to employment/personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment.

Answer 529

public concern

Question 530

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - A category of electronic resources that integrate user-generated content and user participation, such as Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, YouTube, Snapchat, etc., and smart phone or other portable device applications.

Answer 530

social media

Question 531

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Expressions or communication of thoughts or opinions in spoken words, in writing, by expressive conduct, symbolism, or images.

Answer 531

speech

Question 532

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - This policy establishes the department’s position on the use and management of social media sites and provides ______ and ______ regarding communications, whether verbal or written, by department members

Answer 532

rules and precautions

Question 533

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Public employees have ______ First Amendment rights. As public employees, speech, on - or off-duty, made pursuant to official duties is not protected speech under the First Amendment and may form the basis for discipline if deemed detrimental to the efficiency of operations of the department.

Answer 533

qualified

Question 534

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Department members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not: a. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important. b. Impede the performance of duties. c. Impair discipline and harmony among co-workers; or d. ???

Answer 534

Negatively impact or tend to negatively impact the department’s ability to serve the public.

Question 535

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Department members will abide by the adherence to LVMPD 1.120, the ________ is required in the personal use of social media.

Answer 535

Law Enforcement Code of Ethics

Question 536

8.157 SOCIAL MEDIA AND ELECTRONIC COMMUNICATIONS BY DEPARTMENT MEMBERS - Department members will not post, transmit, or otherwise disseminate any information, documents, photos or videos, to which members have access as a result of employment, without written permission from __________, or designee.

Answer 536

the Sheriff

Question 537

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - It is the employee's duty to consult with ______ ______ to determine if medication will impair their ability to effectively perform job duties.

Answer 537

their physician

Question 538

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - For the purpose of this policy only, “on duty” means regular, call-back, or overtime duty, including reporting for duty, taking police action, and/or _________________.

Answer 538

volunteering at a department-sponsored charity

Question 539

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - The department defines prohibited drugs as illegally obtained prescription drugs, illegal or illicit drugs, or controlled substances that are regulated by state and federal laws that aim to control the danger of addiction, abuse, physical and mental harm, the trafficking by illegal means, and the dangers from actions of those who have used the substances. These substances are defined, in part, by Nevada Administrative Code (NAC) 453 Controlled Substances. The department considers marijuana and THC prohibited drugs.

Answer 539

prohibited drugs

Question 540

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - The odor of an alcoholic beverage on an on-duty employee and/or articulable impairment will be cause to initiate an investigation and conduct a field sobriety test (FST) and PBT. If either test demonstrates impairment, an evidentiary test (blood draw or breathalyzer) will be administered. (An investigation may also be initiated in circumstances where the employee was recently on duty and articulable facts indicate they may have been impaired while on duty.) A concentration of alcohol that indicates a ______ percent or above, at the time of a BAC test, is per se impairment and may be grounds for discipline.

Answer 540

.02

Question 541

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - Department employees who are determined to be impaired while driving a department vehicle, whether on or off duty, will be financially responsible for all damages that result from a collision. Financial responsibility will include, and is not limited to, property damage, third party property damage, and/or bodily injury associated with the event. LVMPD will exercise its rights under Nevada law to seek ______, contribution, and/or indemnity from the employee in appropriate circumstances.

Answer 541

subrogation

Question 542

8.166 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE - Department employees are subject to the federal ______-______ ______ Act. Marijuana remains a controlled substance and the use, sale, manufacture, distribution, and possession of which are federal crimes, regardless of state law to the contrary.

Answer 542

Drug-Free Workplace

Question 543

8.166.3 DRUG FREE WORKPLACE, Amnesty Provision for Self-Reporting - An employee may voluntarily self-identify as an abuser of prescription or over-the-counter drugs or alcohol before being identified through other means. Such self-identification may occur through 1)________ 2)________ who then has an obligation to report it to the Office of Labor Relations.

Answer 543

1) any supervisor in the employee’s chain-of-command 2) an association representative

Question 544

8.166.4 WORKPLACE TESTING PROGRAM - An employee will be subject to termination (or an applicant will be disqualified) for: 1. Refusal to submit to a required drug or alcohol test. 2. Evidence of sample tampering, alteration, adulteration, or substitution. 3. ????

Answer 544

A positive drug test indicating prohibited drug use.

Question 545

8.166.4 Reasonable Suspicion Drug Testing - Upon becoming aware or developing reasonable suspicion of an employee’s impairment, a supervisor will contact Internal Affairs Bureau (IAB) immediately. A supervisor will: 1. Conduct a preliminary investigation (which may include an FST). The supervisor SHOULD request a secondary supervisor to observe any indicators of impairment to confirm the reasonable suspicion. 2. Coordinate administrative steps with IAB and transport the employee without delay to the IAB office, unarmed. 3. Complete the Reasonable Suspicion Document provided by IAB. 4. Contact ______

Answer 545

the on-call Police Employees Assistance Program (PEAP) supervisor to follow up with the involved employee.

Question 546

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Department employee violations for domestic abuse and DUI are a breach of the department’s fundamental values, as well as the ______ ______.

Answer 546

community’s confidence

Question 547

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Employee’s Immediate Supervisor will: Address the employee’s behavior through: a)______ b)______ Coordinate any voluntary follow-up care for the employee through PEAP.

Answer 547

a. Discipline; and/or b. Counseling, training, or care programs.

Question 548

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Department employee violations for domestic abuse and DUI are a breach of the department’s fundamental values, as well as the community’s confidence. Because of the nature of these offenses, it is the policy of this department to deal with offenders through ______ ______ in conjunction with court-specified remedies. The department shall make support programs available to assist members in resolving contributory problems when appropriate.

Answer 548

administrative sanctions

Question 549

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Pursuant to NRS 33.031 members who carry a firearm in the performance of his/her duties and are subject to an “extended order for protection” for domestic abuse may carry only ______-______ firearms, and only while in the performance of their duties.

Answer 549

department-authorized

Question 550

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Employee’s Division/Office Commander will: 1. Receive notification of an employee’s domestic abuse or DUI offense through the ranking field lieutenant, chain of command, or another source. 2. Determine whether an extended order for protection has been entered pursuant to NRS 33.031 requiring the member not to use or possess a firearm. a. If the member is prohibited from using or possessing a firearm, but carrying a firearm is essential to the member’s employment, ensure that the member only has the firearm ______ ______ ______. The firearm must be stored by the member’s bureau commander or his/her designee when the member is not on duty. b. If the member is prohibited from using or possessing a firearm, but carrying a firearm is not essential to the member’s employment, instruct the member that they are not to possess or use a firearm while on duty.

Answer 550

while on duty

Question 551

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Determine, if an IAB complaint is sustained against the employee: a. If the employee is agreeable to a court-referral action, such as treatment, counseling, or training, when applicable. b. If the employee meets the criteria for the court-referred action by contacting the Clark County Manager of Employee Assistance and Wellness Programs. 4. Determine, with input from the employee’s immediate chain of command, the range of discipline for the employee in the event a court referral is: a. Not available for the offense b. Not offered to the employee c. Declined by the employee d. Not satisfactorily completed e. ???

Answer 551

e. Completed, but with accompanying discipline.

Question 552

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Employee’s bureau/area commander will confer with the employee’s supervisor regarding the implementation of ______-______ ______ and/or discipline.

Answer 552

court-referred program

Question 553

8.220 DOMESTIC ABUSE AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES - Employee’s Immediate Supervisor will: 6. Address the employee’s behavior through: a. Discipline; and/or b. Counseling, training, or care programs. 7. Ensure any reduction in discipline, wholly or in part, due to the successful completion of courtreferred treatment retains the designation of the initial discipline. For example, “40 hours suspension - reduced to a 20-hour suspension with option, plus 20 hours in abeyance, due to the satisfactory completion of a court-referral program.” 8. Coordinate any voluntary follow-up care for the employee through ______.

Answer 553

PEAP

Question 554

8.166.2 MISUSE OF ALCOHOL, PROHIBITED DRUGS, PRESCRIPTION DRUGS, AND OVERTHE-COUNTER MEDICATION - The odor of an alcoholic beverage on an on-duty employee and/or articulable impairment will be cause to initiate an investigation and conduct a _______ and ______. If either test demonstrates impairment, an evidentiary test (blood draw or breathalyzer) will be administered.

Answer 554

field sobriety test (FST) and PBT

Question 555

8.166.4 Drug and Alcohol Testing as Provided by Nevada Law and Collective Bargaining - Employees are subject to drug and alcohol testing by ______ ______.

Answer 555

Nevada law and collective bargaining agreements

Question 556

8.166.4 Drug and Alcohol Testing as Provided by Nevada Law and Collective Bargaining - All commissioned personnel will be subject to alcohol and drug testing in instances of officer-involved shootings or conduct that results in death or the substantial bodily harm of another person (see NRS 289, Section 6). This excludes:1)______ 2)______.

Answer 556

1) animal shoots 2) accidental discharges not resulting in injury

Question 557

8.166.4 Drug and Alcohol Testing as Provided by Nevada Law and Collective Bargaining - Commissioned supervisors will be subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following a traffic accident wherein the supervisor is considered at fault while driving a department vehicle that causes ______ or ______.

Answer 557

death or substantial bodily injury

Question 558

8.166.4 Drug and Alcohol Testing as Provided by Nevada Law and Collective Bargaining - Civilian employees who are authorized to carry a firearm will be subject to drug and alcohol testing immediately following any incident where the weapons-carrier is the shooter, including an accidental discharge, that occurs during the course of a police operation. This excludes ______ ______. In addition, civilian employees will be subject to drug and alcohol testing when involved in a traffic accident wherein the employee is considered at fault while driving a department vehicle that causes death or substantial bodily injury.

Answer 558

animal shoots

Question 559

8.166.4 Drug and Alcohol Testing as Provided by Nevada Law and Collective Bargaining - Supervisory Oversight: The supervisor overseeing the event will immediately contact the 1)______ 2)______ directly and through Dispatch. If the subject employee is displaying symptoms of impairment prior to an order given by CIRT to submit to drug and alcohol testing, the FIT supervisor will evaluate the circumstances for the criminal investigation before CIRT moves forward with the order and subsequent testing.

Answer 559

1) Critical Incident Review Team (CIRT) 2) Force Investigation Team (FIT)

Question 560

8.325.1 EMPLOYMENT DIVERSITY SECTION - LVMPD is committed to fostering, cultivating, and preserving a culture of ______ and ______.

Answer 560

equity and diversity

Question 561

8.325.1 EMPLOYMENT DIVERSITY SECTION - All employees of LVMPD have a responsibility to foster respectful 1)______2)______3)______ and will conduct themselves in a professional manner.

Answer 561

1) communication 2) cooperation 3) teamwork

Question 562

8.325.3 Harassment - The elements of harassment are:

Answer 562

1. Unwelcome; 2. Conduct directed at a member of a protected class; 3. Offensive to the recipient and to a “reasonable person”; and 4. Conduct that is severe or pervasive (e.g., repeated).

Question 563

8.325.4 Sexual Harassment - Sexual harassment may include unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature. Certain behaviors may constitute sexual harassment when: 1. Conduct is unwelcome; 2. Conduct is subjectively and/or objectively offensive; and 3. Conduct or proposal is sexual in nature; a. A proposal or rejection of such conduct by an individual is used as the basis for employment decisions affecting such individual; or b. A proposal of such conduct is made either openly or indirectly and is a term or condition of an individual’s employment; or c. Conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment, and is severe or pervasive. Simple teasing, offhand comments, or isolated incidents can still rise to the level of sexual harassment if the conduct is so frequent or severe that it creates a ___________.

Answer 563

hostile or offensive work environment.

Question 564

8.325.5 Retaliation - Retaliation is a negative job action taken against an employee who has engaged in a ______ ______ regarding harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation, and a causal link exists between the action and the engagement in the ______ ______. ______ _____ include filing an EDS complaint, encouraging another employee to file a complaint, and/or participating in an EDS-related investigation.

Answer 564

protected activity

Question 565

8.325.6 Unprofessional Conduct - If at the conclusion of an EDS investigation it is determined that the behavior did not violate language specifically related to harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation, the case may be sustained for unprofessional conduct. Unprofessional conduct may include comments, actions, or behavior that disparages or demonstrates hostility or aversion towards any person that could reasonably be perceived as disruptive, disrespectful, offensive, or inappropriate. Unprofessional conduct may affect and/or unreasonably interfere with an individual’s ______ ______ and may create an intimidating or offensive work environment.

Answer 565

work performance

Question 566

8.325.8 Internal Complaint Process - Complainant will: 1. Contact any supervisor, EDS, or IAB to seek assistance in filing a complaint of harassment (sexual or otherwise), discrimination, and/or retaliation. 2. In coordination with EDS, submit a complaint (email, memorandum, Statement of Complaint, verbal interview, etc.) to the EDS director, including all pertinent information relative to the alleged harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation within ________ of the last incident. Complaints submitted after the ________ will be evaluated on a case-by-case basis, except for the Uniform Service Employment ReEmployment Rights Act of 1994 (USERRA), which has no statute of limitation.

Answer 566

300 days

Question 567

8.325.8 Internal Complaint Process - True or False: Complaints will be accepted from any source, whether in person, by mail, email, or by telephone. It is not a requirement that the reporting member be the intended target of the offensive conduct. Witnessing offensive behavior between other members may be grounds for filing a complaint. All complaints of harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation will be reviewed by the EDS director utilizing federal laws, state laws, and Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) and Nevada Equal Rights Commission (NERC) standards.

Answer 567

True

Question 568

8.330 MAINTENANCE OF VALUES AND ETHICS - It is the policy of this department to investigate all complaints of employee misconduct, including harassment and discrimination, whether on- or off-duty, to effectively manage employee performance and conduct, and assure the public’s trust. This policy identifies how a complaint will be received, investigated, and adjudicated. It is not a substitute for ______, ______, or ______ to improve performance.

Answer 568

coaching, counseling, or mentoring

Question 569

8.330 MAINTENANCE OF VALUES AND ETHICS - Supervisors are encouraged to contact the on-call ________ team leader if questions or procedural issues arise concerning internal investigations

Answer 569

Internal Affairs Bureau (IAB)

Question 570

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - IAB – including IA investigators, the Criminal Investigations Section (CIS), the Employee Early Identification and Intervention Program (EIIP), and the Employment Diversity Section (EDS) – is the direct representative of the Sheriff. IAB is authorized to report directly to the Sheriff concerning any investigation. Internal investigative files will be maintained by either ______ or ______.

Answer 570

IAB or EDS

Question 571

A MACTAC incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.

Answer 571

MACTAC activation

Question 572

A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to activated units.

Answer 572

MACTAC alert

Question 573

An extraordinary incident, even by law enforcement standards, and/or an unusual occurrence that exceeds conventional law enforcement tactics and resources.

Answer 573

MACTAC incident

Question 574

MACTAC - A general notification for area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should orient themselves if they are placed on alert.

Answer 574

MACTAC notification

Question 575

MACTAC - A controlled, aggressive employment of law enforcement resources to an in-progress, life-threatening situation where any delay will clearly result in death or serious bodily harm to innocent persons.

Answer 575

MACTAC response

Question 576

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Not considered formal investigations, these are conducted to determine the nature of the complaint.

Answer 576

Citizen Contact/Preliminary Inquiry

Question 577

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Created by law to review internal investigations concerning complaints against commissioned police and corrections officers. It is the policy of this department to fully cooperate with CRB (under the terms of those laws and the operating agreement and its addenda) to ensure public confidence in LVMPD’s ability to effectively investigate conduct complaints.

Answer 577

Citizen Review Board (CRB)

Question 578

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - To ensure consistency, all requests from CRB, including those for training, site visits, and policy/SOP requests, will go through the ______ ______. In the absence of the ______ ______, the Deputy Chief of the Professional Standards Division will address all CRB requests.

Answer 578

IAB commander

Question 579

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Disputes concerning the methods and procedures used by the department to provide various services. A customer service dispute is investigated by a supervisor with the goal of explaining and educating the complainant as to the operations of the department as well as improving service delivery by the department. A customer service dispute is not an allegation that involves a violation of law or department policy.

Answer 579

Customer Service Dispute

Question 580

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Allegations of misconduct that if found to be true could result in discipline in a Written Reprimand. These cases can be investigated by the bureau upon approval and direction from IAB

Answer 580

Minor Allegation Investigation

Question 581

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Allegations of misconduct that if found to be true could result in a disciplinary transfer, suspension, demotion, or termination. All such cases will be investigated by IAB unless otherwise directed by the Sheriff or designee.

Answer 581

Major Allegation Investigation

Question 582

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Burden of Proof: The department’s burden of proof for internal investigations is that of _____ ______ evidence. Therefore, before an employee may be held accountable for their conduct, the investigation must demonstrate that the conduct was substantially more likely than not to have occurred. This is a stricter burden of proof than preponderance of evidence; however, it is a lesser requirement than proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

Answer 582

clear and convincing

Question 583

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - All internal investigations should be completed within ______ days unless approved by the IAB lieutenant.

Answer 583

90

Question 584

8.330.1 Complaints and Internal Investigation Procedures - Expedited Process: Some examples of the types of investigations that may be waived, but are not limited to: 1. ______ 2.______ 3.______

Answer 584

1. Abuse/excessive use of sick leave. 2. Reporting for duty/tardiness. 3. Any case where an employee has been previously disciplined for the same or similar policy violations and conduct issues, or where the discipline is specifically identified as a line item in the Disciplinary Decision Guide.

Question 585

8.330.2 Adjudication of Complaints (Formal Discipline) - Ensure AOCs are completed within ______ days of an official determination of discipline

Answer 585

21

Question 586

8.330.2 Adjudication of Complaints (Formal Discipline) - Office of Labor Relations will within 30 calendar days of receipt of the disposition (or ______ days if a pre-discipline meeting is conducted), make a recommendation of adjudication.

Answer 586

45

Question 587

8.330.2 Adjudication of Complaints - Addressing Sustained Complaints: The two options for addressing Sustained Complaints:

Answer 587

1. Supervisory intervention. 2. Formal discipline