My Final Day Flashcards

1
Q

treatment for pulmonary embolism

A

Admission to hospital

 Oxygen
 Analgesia
 Monitor for deterioration

 Apixaban or rivaroxaban
 Anticoagulation
 Warfarin
 NOAC
 LMWH

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2
Q

sarcoidosis investigation

A

 CT thorax
 Chest X-ray
 MRI
 PET SCAN
 Bloods

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3
Q

could you give oral steroids for sarcoidosis

A

yes

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4
Q

could heart block be a symptom of sarcoidosis

A

yes
so see for tomorrow, literally just put any disease they suggest

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5
Q

For long-term symptomatic relief of angina, first-line is with either, or a combination, of:

A

For long-term symptomatic relief, first-line is with either, or a combination, of:

Beta blocker (e.g., bisoprolol)
Calcium-channel blocker (e.g., diltiazem or verapamil – both avoided in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)

but GTN for immediate relief

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6
Q

when are: Calcium-channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem or verapamil) for symptomatic relief of angina, avoided

A

in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

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7
Q

secondary prevention for angina =

A

Medications for secondary prevention can be remembered with the “four As” mnemonic:

A – Aspirin 75mg once daily
A – Atorvastatin 80mg once daily
A – ACE inhibitor (if diabetes, hypertension, CKD or heart failure are also present)
A – Already on a beta blocker for symptomatic relief

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8
Q

all those formulas like tidal

A
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9
Q

all the drugs

A
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10
Q

valsalva maneouvre

A
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11
Q

chadvasc

A
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12
Q

hasbled

A
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13
Q

whats heparin

A
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14
Q

vital vs tidal capacity

A

Vital Capacity describes the largest volume of air that can be voluntarily exhaled after a maximum inhalation.

Tidal = in AND out in one breath

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15
Q

Alveolar ventilation volume is more or less than pulmonary ventilation volume

A

less- alveolar is what participates in gas exchange

Pulmonary (or minute) ventilation describes the total amount of air breathed in or out per minute (basically tidal volume x respiration rate). Alveolar ventilation accounts for the volume of air that gets stuck in dead space and never reaches the alveoli, so dead space volume must be subtracted from tidal volume before multiplying by respiration rate ((TV-DS) x RR), making alveolar ventilation smaller than pulmonary ventilation i.e. not all the air you breath in reaches the level of the alveoli and participates in gas exchange!

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16
Q

Respiratory acidosis often accompanies severe lung pathology.

A

True. Most lung pathologies lead to an impairment of gas exchange for one reason or another. This impairment increases CO2 levels in arterial blood. An increase in CO2 leads to an increase in H+ concentration

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17
Q

An increase in 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG) in the red cells will shift the haemoglobin-O2 saturation curve to the right

A

Yes: DPG:reducing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen, and in doing so shifts the curve to the right.

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18
Q

ventilation and perfusion where greatest

A

There is good correlation with ventilation and perfusion – both are greatest at the base of the lung (in the upright position) and both decrease with height. However blood flow declines faster than ventilation so while blood flow exceeds ventilation at the base of the lung, ventilation exceeds blood flow at the apex

base of lung
blood flow greatest at base

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19
Q

A shift of the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin to the right or left is seen in foetal blood, as compared with adult blood

A

A shift of the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin to the left is seen in foetal blood, as compared with adult blood

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20
Q

what does hyperventilation do

A

Hyperventilation will top up oxygen levels but more importantly lower CO2 levels.

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21
Q

how does centric acinar occur

A

bronchiolar dilation
loss of alveolar tissue
little holes in the lungs

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22
Q

In an acute asthma attack, how are steroids given

A

steroids should be given orally, or sometimes intravenously.
eg prednisalone

It’s SABA that’s given via nebuliser

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23
Q

For a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be given, a patient should have a cough productive of sputum for how long

A

most days
three months
2 years

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24
Q

An excess of alpha-1-antitrypsin can lead to emphysema, true or false

A

False
alpha-1 antitrypsin is an enzyme which breaks down other enzymes that break down alveolar tissue. A deficiency of this enzyme tips the balance towards tissue destruction, and can lead to emphysema

So its loss of alpha-1-antitrypsin = emphysema

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25
Q

Washing a spacer does what to static charge

A

decrease it
washing the spacer device leaves a coating of detergent, which will decrease the static charge. This means the drug is less likely to stick to the spacer, and increases drug delivery to the lungs.

so it’s a good thing

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26
Q

You are more likely to have asthma if your mother is asthmatic than if your father is asthmatic.

A

true

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27
Q

In assessing severity of acute asthma in adults, subjective parameters (eg. distress) are just as important as observations and blood gases.

this statement is false. Why?

A

patients and doctors tend to underestimate asthma severity, and a life-threatening attack may not be associated with significant distress. Objective measurements such as vital observations (pulse rate, oxygen saturations, peak flow) and blood gas analysis are most useful.

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28
Q

Female sex is a risk factor for COPD.
explain- considering that there are more males with COPD!

A

females smokers more likely than male smokers

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29
Q

In spirometry, an FEV1:FVC of 0.5 would be considered obstructive

A

true
Because normal is 0.7-0.8

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30
Q

Most infections causing exacerbations of COPD are viral.

A

True – although patients will often receive antibiotics for acute infective exacerbations of COPD, in the majority of cases the pathogen is a virus.

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31
Q

initial treatment for paediatric asthma

A

very low dose inhaled steroids are the initial treatment for paediatric asthma.

but if more than twice a week then add LABA

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32
Q

A child >5 on a very low dose inhaled corticosteroid who continues to require their reliever inhaler twice a week should have a long-acting beta agonist added on to their treatment.

A

true

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33
Q

COPD is a cause of finger clubbing

A

false

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34
Q

What 4 diseases could cause finger clubbing?

A

lung cancer, lung infections, interstitial lung disease, cystic fibrosis or cardiovascular disease

low oxygen and high CO2

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35
Q

Regular use of a brown inhaler in childhood can restrict adult height by up to what

A

0.5-1cm

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36
Q

Type 2 respiratory failure is a feature of severe COPD.

A

True –

An easy way to remember type 1 vs type 2 respiratory failure is that in type 2 failure, the movement of 2 gases is impaired. In type 1 respiratory failure, there is a failure of oxygenation, but ventilation is adequate to clear CO2 (remember that CO2 dissolves much more readily than oxygen).

In type 2 respiratory failure, ventilation is impaired to the point that not only does oxygenation fail, but CO2 isn’t being cleared, and CO2 levels rise. In COPD, this is a sign of advanced disease.

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37
Q

How do we treat latent TB

A

Latent TB (positive Mantoux or IGRA test in a person who has had contact with TB).
The same antibiotics are used, for a slightly shorter course, usually 3 to 6 months.

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38
Q

does amoxicillin have much action against atypical organisms

A

no
if atypical, treat with macrolide like co-trimoxazole

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39
Q

Rusty brown sputum is a symptom of staph or strep

A

strep

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40
Q

side affect of rifampicin

A

rifampicin causes all bodily fluids to turn orange-red, so it is best to advise patients not to wear contact lenses!

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41
Q

rifampicin is an antibiotic that can be used to treat TB

A

true

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42
Q

how does flu lead to secondary infections

A

damage to mucociliary escalator

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43
Q

Name the complication: involves the wide dissemination through the bloodstream of TB granulomata, and commonly involves spread to the brain and meninges.

A

Miliary TB

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44
Q

CURB-65- what are the guidelines

A

confused
urea over 7
resp rate OVER 30
bloop pressure under 90/60
and if over age 65

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45
Q

How do we class latent TB

A

positive Mantoux or IGRA test in a person who has had contact with TB, but is asymptomatic and has a normal CXR

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46
Q

ethambutol can be used to treat TB, true or false

A

true

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47
Q

Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to occur in what yearly epidemics.

A

4-5

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48
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae infection is typically associated with alcoholism and other causes of aspiration.

A

true

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49
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis is a typical cause of LRTIs in COPD.

A

true

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50
Q

what is a typical cause of LRTIs in COPD.

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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51
Q

what pneumonia is associated with intravenous drug abuse.

A

staph

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52
Q

what pneumonia is classically seen following influenza infection.

A

staph

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53
Q

do we give antibiotics in ear infections like otitis media

A

no

54
Q

Rifamicpin can reduce effectiveness of oral contracteptive pill

A

yh

55
Q

what treatment of croup and why

A

oral steriod eg dexamethalone for reduce inflammation
causes barking cough and stridor

56
Q

UIP is idiopathic

A

True

57
Q

Pulmonary hypertension in Chronic respiratory disease occurs due to chronic hypoxia

A

True

Reflex construction of pulmonary vessels
This construction increased vascular resistance and therefore pressure of pulmonary circulation.

58
Q

Pulmonary Hypertension is what

A

> 25mmHg

59
Q

UIP has basal predominance

A

True

60
Q

There are no Granulomas in sarcoidosis

A

Trye

61
Q

Is there necrosis one sarcoidosis

A
62
Q

Sarcoidosis is NOT caseating Granulomas, that’s the hallmark of what:

A

TB

63
Q

What happens in Tb

A

There is a ghon focus
Then ghon complex
Then calcification
Then fibrosis
Then scar
Than RANKE complex = seen on CXR

64
Q

Examples of type 1

A

Pulmonary oedema
ARDS
Interstitial pbeumonitis

65
Q

Caseating Granulomas is TB

A
66
Q

CF patients are encouraged to meet other CF patients, true or false

A

False

67
Q

Patients with CF must have a double lung transplant only

A

True

Because high risk of recurrent infection

68
Q

Many cases of sarcoidosis are mild and self limiting and don’t require treatment. If they do, then what?

A

Topical steroids or NSAIDS like ibuprofen is sufficient

69
Q

In chronic ventilator failure, what is the pH?

A

Normal
As elevates bicarbonate

70
Q

Acute ventilator failure , oh?

A

Low

71
Q

What are central apnoeas

A

Absence of respiratory drive ie detected by one chest wall movement

72
Q

Most common apnoea

A

Obstructive apnoea

Negative pressure generated by respiratory movengx if chest walk, = draws upper airways inwards and obstructs the airway

73
Q

You can get respiratory failure from obstructive sleep apnoea, why

A

CO2 retention

74
Q

What big cardiac issue could you get with obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Cor pulmonale

75
Q

Pleura from where

A

Pleura from mesoderm
Embryonic lung are from the endoderm like the gut

76
Q

Hernias are more common in which side

A

Left side

77
Q

Can babies be diagnosed before birth and is there an issue with this

A

Yes
Slightly increased risk of miscarriage (eg chorionic villus sampling, amniotic fluid sampling)

78
Q

Pressure in all systemic arteries are the same, true or false

A

True

79
Q

What is Map equal to

A

Average pressure in arteries throughout cardiac cycle

Roughly equal to diastolic pressure plus a third of pulse pressuee

80
Q

What’s pulse pressure

A

The difference between the upper and lower numbers of your blood pressur

81
Q

Do capillaries have smooth muscle

A

No
Therefore they cannot vary their resistance

82
Q

MAP in aorta is about equal to what in the pulmonary trunk

A

1/5th
Pressure is 1/5th

83
Q

Gradual closing of K+ channels = contributes to pacemaker potential

A

Yes

84
Q

Sympathetic fibres, innervation g heart to increase contractility, acts on what

A

Noradrenaline acts on beta 1 receptors

85
Q

PR interval is normally under 0.2 seconds

A

Yes

If over that, = 1st degree heart block

86
Q

What does the PR interval indicate

A

Time between the start of atrial depolarisation, and the start of ventricular depolarisation.

87
Q

What is the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential maintained by

A

Entry of L type voltage gated Ca2+

88
Q

Initial fast depolarising stage of action potentials is mediated by what

A

Voltage gated Na2+ channels

89
Q

Concerning the cardiac cycle: the left atrial pressure rises at the start of systole

A

True
Because when ventricle contracts, mitral and tricuspid valves close, and bulge into the atria, until the aortic and pulmonary valves actually open

90
Q

End systolic volume is about what

A

60 ml

91
Q

Smooth muscle surrounding arterioles expresses beta 2 receptors

A

True

Heart and skeletal muscle is where arterioles express many beta 2 receptors

92
Q

Most blood vessels are nine rated only by what

A

Sympathetic

93
Q

How does sympa in vessels lead to vasoconstriction

A

Noradrenaline, activated alpha 1 receptors, therefore vasoconstriction.

Only genitalia and salivary gland VESSElS are exceptions- have para

94
Q

Local arteriolar dilation, as occurs in exercising muscle, may cause oedema.

A

True
As dilation will increase hydrostatic pressure in downstream capillaries, and increase amount of fluid filtered out

95
Q

More K+ = what in the heart

A

Depolarise and therefore approach threshold and randomly fire action potentials

96
Q

Cardiac muscle cells are capable of tetanus contractions.

A

False

97
Q

Cardiac muscle has a long action potential

A

Yes
Therefore long refractory period
So not capable of tetanus contraction

98
Q

Plateau phase in non pace maker action potential: caused by:

A

Decreased permeability to K+ and less K+ leaving the cell
And increased Ca2+ entering

99
Q

T wave = ventricular depolarisation

A

True

100
Q

What does the U wave represent

A

Nobody knows

101
Q

Second heart sound is what

A

Closure of aortic and pulmonary valves
Because it’s diastole

102
Q

3rd heart sound =
4th heart sound =

A

Rapid filling phase
Active filling stage

103
Q

What closes the mitral valve?

A

Pressure in left ventricle exceeding pressure in left ventricle

104
Q

Stenosis of which valves could cause a systolic murmur?

A

Aortic and pulmonary valves

105
Q

Stenosis of which valves could cause diastolic murmur

A

Mitral and tricuspid

106
Q

Adrenaline and noradrenaline bind to what in the sinoatrial node, to do what

A

B1
Increase heart rate

107
Q

Does the vagus nerve alas innervate sinoatrial nose

A

Yes

108
Q

What happens to after load and SV when TPR increases

A

After load increases and SV decreases

109
Q

Does arteriolar construction decrease end diastolic volume?

A

No

What does though is increased venomotor tone, pump, resp pump, skeletal muscle pump

110
Q

Why does t arteriolar constriction have affect on EDV

A

Because it’s “after” the heart.
But arteriolar constriction DOES increase TPR and afterload

111
Q

Does increasing after load, increase MAP?

A

It means the same thing really
Yes

After load IS the result of a higher pressure system

112
Q

An increase in after load will decrease stroke volume, true or false

A

True

113
Q

Increases preload increases stroke volume

A

True

114
Q

Clefts are between endothelial cells, pores are across
Or is it the other way around

A

No that’s teye

115
Q

Capillaries- can have no pores or clefts?

A

True
In blood brain barrier

116
Q

Capillaries have a narrow lumen?

A

Truw

117
Q

What does increases binding of adrenaline and noradrenaline to what causes arteriolar constriction

A

Alpha 1 receptors

118
Q

Which arterioles supplying what mostly express Beta 2?

A

Cardiac and skeletal muscel

119
Q

Alpha 1 is usually smooth muscle contraction and arteriolar constriction, am I right?

A

Yes you are right

120
Q

Explain structure of an atheromatous plaque

A

Atheromas have lipid cores and a fibrous tissue cap

121
Q

Severe burns are a risk factor for DVT

A

Yea
Anything that increases coagulability of the blood will increase risk of DVT

122
Q

Arteriosclerosis vs atherosclerosis

A

Arteriosclerosis = age related thinking of smooth muscle,
Initial fibrosis and duplication of internal elastic laminal layer

123
Q

Decrease in peripheral vascular resistance = decrease in blood pressure and vice versa

A

Trye

124
Q

How quickly to correct blood pressure

A

Slowly

125
Q

Atheromatous plaque formation = what cells

A

Monocytes to atrial intima in response to damage, then they transform to foamy macriphages

126
Q

Intervranial bleeding = what risks for theombolyiss

A

Patients with recent stroke and a stemi

127
Q

Rheumatic fever is what bacteria

A

Strep

128
Q

Emergency vs urgency for hypertensive damage

A

Urgent = oral and can be revised in 24 hours
Emergency = admission and usually IV therapy

129
Q

Heart when infarcted is what type of necrosis

A

Coagulation

130
Q

Heart failure = activation of RAAS system why

A

Because reduced CO is registered as reduced circulating volume, so salt and water is retained by RAAS