CFI Initial Multi Checkride > Must-Know Information from Private > Flashcards
Must-Know Information from Private Flashcards
What flight visibility minimums and cloud clearance must you have in a Bravo airspace?
3 statute miles
Clear of clouds
What flight visibility minimums and cloud clearance must you have in a Charlie airspace?
3 statute miles
152: 500 below; 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
What flight visibility minimums and cloud clearance must you have in a Delta airspace?
3 statute miles
152: 500 below; 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
What flight visibility minimums and cloud clearance must you have in an Echo airspace?
Above 10,000 MSL:
5 statute miles
111: 1,000 below; 1,000 above, & 1 statute mile horizontal
Below 10,000 MSL:
3 statute miles
152: 500 below, 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
What flight visibility minimums and cloud clearance must you have in a Golf airspace?
1,200 AGL or higher:
Day:
1 statute mile
152: 500 below, 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
Night:
3 statute mile
152: 500 below, 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
Below 1,200 AGL:
Day:
1 statute mile
Clear of Clouds
Night:3 statute mile152: 500 below, 1,000 above, & 2,000 horizontal
What does a green light from the tower mean when you are on the ground?
Clear to takeoff
What does a green light from the tower mean when you are in the air?
Clear to land
What does a flashing green light from the tower mean when you are on the ground?
Clear to taxi
What does a flashing green light from the tower mean when you are in the air?
Return to land
What does a red light from the tower mean when you are on the ground?
Stop
What does a red light from the tower mean when you are in the air?
Give way and continue circling
What does a flashing red light from the tower mean when you are on the ground?
Taxi clear of runway in use
What does a flashing red light from the tower mean when you are in the air?
Airport unsafe, do not land
What does a flashing white light from the tower mean when you are on the ground?
Return to the starting point at the airport (i.e. ramp)
What do alternating red and green lights mean?
Exercise extreme caution
What is the transponder code for VFR flight?
1200
What is the transponder code for a hijacked aircraft?
7500
What is the transponder code for lost communication?
7600
What is the transponder code for an emergency?
7700
What frequency should you relay an emergency?
121.5
What is a common frequency for flight watch?
122.0
What is a common frequency for a flight service station?
122.2
What is the required equipment for VFR Day?
Think about the layout of the cockpit:
- Airspeed indicator
- Altimeter
- Fuel quantity gauge(s)
- Temperature gauge(s)
- Oil temperature gauge(s)
- Oil pressure gauge(s)
- Landing gear position indicator
- Manifold pressure gauge
- Tachometer
- Magnetic compass
- Anti-collision lights
- ELT
- Safety belts
§91.205 Powered civil aircraft with standard category U.S. airworthiness certificates: Instrument and equipment requirements.
(b) Visual-flight rules (day). For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required:(1) Airspeed indicator.(2) Altimeter.(3) Magnetic direction indicator.(4) Tachometer for each engine.(5) Oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system.(6) Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.(7) Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine.(8) Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.(9) Fuel gauge indicating the quantity of fuel in each tank.(10) Landing gear position indicator, if the aircraft has a retractable landing gear.(11) For small civil airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996, in accordance with part 23 of this chapter, an approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operation of the aircraft may continue to a location where repairs or replacement can be made.(12) If the aircraft is operated for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore, approved flotation gear readily available to each occupant and, unless the aircraft is operating under part 121 of this subchapter, at least one pyrotechnic signaling device. As used in this section, “shore” means that area of the land adjacent to the water which is above the high water mark and excludes land areas which are intermittently under water.(13) An approved safety belt with an approved metal-to-metal latching device for each occupant 2 years of age or older.(14) For small civil airplanes manufactured after July 18, 1978, an approved shoulder harness for each front seat. The shoulder harness must be designed to protect the occupant from serious head injury when the occupant experiences the ultimate inertia forces specified in §23.561(b)(2) of this chapter. Each shoulder harness installed at a flight crewmember station must permit the crewmember, when seated and with the safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations. For purposes of this paragraph—(i) The date of manufacture of an airplane is the date the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and meets the FAA-approved type design data; and(ii) A front seat is a seat located at a flight crewmember station or any seat located alongside such a seat.(15) An emergency locator transmitter, if required by §91.207.
What is the required equipment for VFR night?
FLAPS
F — Fuses
L — Landing light (if for hire)
A — Anti-collision lights
P — Position lights / Nav lights
E — Source of electricity
(c) Visual flight rules (night). For VFR flight at night, the following instruments and equipment are required:(1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section.(2) Approved position lights.(3) An approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system on all U.S.-registered civil aircraft. Anticollision light systems initially installed after August 11, 1971, on aircraft for which a type certificate was issued or applied for before August 11, 1971, must at least meet the anticollision light standards of part 23, 25, 27, or 29 of this chapter, as applicable, that were in effect on August 10, 1971, except that the color may be either aviation red or aviation white. In the event of failure of any light of the anticollision light system, operations with the aircraft may be continued to a stop where repairs or replacement can be made.(4) If the aircraft is operated for hire, one electric landing light.(5) An adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment.(6) One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required, that are accessible to the pilot in flight.
What is a must a private (or commercial) pilot do to remain current?
- The pilot must complete a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months.
- To carry passengers, within the preceding 90 days, 3 take-offs and landings in the same category, class, and type must be completed.
- If in a tailwheeled airplane, the take-offs and landings must have been made to a full stop.
- If flying at night, the take-offs and landings must have been made to a full stop.
What must a pilot have to fly?
Their certificaiton, a government issued photo ID, and their medical.
What must a pilot have to fly a high performance aircraft?
To fly an aircraft with more than 200 horsepower, a pilot must have logged ground and flight training, found proficient in the airplane, and received the appropriate logbook endorsement.
What must a pilot have to fly a tailwheeled aircraft?
To fly an aircraft that has a tailwheel, a pilot must have logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor, found proficient in the airplane, and received the appropriate logbook endorsement.
What must a pilot have to fly an aircraft with a pressurized cabin?
For aircraft that have a service ceiling or max operating altitude above 25,000 MSL, the pilot must have logged ground and flight training in a pressurized cabin which includes high altitude aerodynamics, hypoxia, meteorology respiration, and recieved the proper logbook endorsement.
What are the required inspections for an aircraft to be airworthy?
We use the acronym AAV1ATES:
A — Annual inspection, required every 12 calendar months
A — Airworthiness Directives, complied as required
V — VOR check, required ever 30 days if IFR
1 — 100 hour check, if used for hire or flight instruction
A — Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected every 24 calendar months
T — Transponder tests and inspections, required every 24 calendar months
E — Emergency locator transmitter, operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months
91.409, 91.403, 91. 91.171, 91.411, 91.413, 91.207.
What documents are required for flight?
The acronym we use is ARROW:
A — Airworthiness certificate
R — Radio operator license (if outside the US)
R — Registration
O — Operator’s handbook
W — Official Weight and Balance document, which is located in the POH.
What is a minimum equipment list?
The MEL is a list of equipment that can be inoperative and the aircraft is still airworthy.
ATP does not operate by a MEL. We operate by 91.205 (b), (c), and (d). If equipment is inoperative, placard or remove the equipment and get a new weight and balance, and make not in the maintenance log.
What is a special flight permit?
If an aircraft is not airworthy due to inoperative equipment, then a special flight permit can be issued ONLY to aircraft capable of safe flight.
It is given so that aircraft can fly to a base where repairs, maintence, or alterations can be ade or to get an airplane out of a hazardous situation.
Contact a FSDO to receive one.
Tell me about airworthiness directives.
Airworthiness directives are used by the FAA to notify aircraft owners and operators of upcoming conditions that may prevent their aircraft from continuing to be airworthy.
There are two kinds of airworthiness directives: 1 time or continual.
What are NOTAMs?
5-1-3. Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) System
a. Time-critical aeronautical information which is of either a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications receives immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System.
NOTE-
1. NOTAM information is that aeronautical information that could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or aerodrome primary runway closures, taxiways, ramps, obstructions, communications, airspace, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILSs, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
- NOTAM information is transmitted using standard contractions to reduce transmission time. See TBL 5-1-2 for a listing of the most commonly used contractions. For a complete listing, see FAA Order JO 7340.2, Contractions.
b. NOTAM information is classified into five categories. These are NOTAM (D) or distant, Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs, Pointer NOTAMs, Special Activity Airspace (SAA), and Military NOTAMs. - NOTAM (D) information is disseminated for all navigational facilities that are part of the National Airspace System (NAS), all public use airports, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD). The complete file of all NOTAM (D) information is maintained in a computer database at the Weather Message Switching Center (WMSC), located in Atlanta, Georgia. This category of information is distributed automatically via Service A telecommunications system. Air traffic facilities, primarily FSSs, with Service A capability have access to the entire WMSC database of NOTAMs. These NOTAMs remain available via Service A for the duration of their validity or until published. Once published, the NOTAM data is deleted from the system. NOTAM (D) information includes such data as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, and airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, such as VASI.
All NOTAM Ds must have one of the following keywords listed in TBL 5-1-1 as the first part of the text after the location identifier:
- FDC NOTAMs. On those occasions when it becomes necessary to disseminate information which is regulatory in nature, the National Flight Data Center (NFDC), in Washington, DC, will issue an FDC NOTAM. FDC NOTAMs contain such things as amendments to published IAPs and other current aeronautical charts. They are also used to advertise temporary flight restrictions caused by such things as natural disasters or large-scale public events that may generate a congestion of air traffic over a site.
NOTE-
1. DUATS vendors will provide FDC NOTAMs only upon site-specific requests using a location identifier.
- NOTAM data may not always be current due to the changeable nature of national airspace system components, delays inherent in processing information, and occasional temporary outages of the U.S. NOTAM system. While en route, pilots should contact FSSs and obtain updated information for their route of flight and destination.
- Pointer NOTAMs. NOTAMs issued by a flight service station to highlight or point out another NOTAM, such as an FDC or NOTAM (D) NOTAM. This type of NOTAM will assist users in cross-referencing important information that may not be found under an airport or NAVAID identifier. Keywords in pointer NOTAMs must match the keywords in the NOTAM that is being pointed out. The keyword in pointer NOTAMs related to Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR) must be AIRSPACE.
- SAA NOTAMs. These NOTAMs are issued when Special Activity Airspace will be active outside the published schedule times and when required by the published schedule. Pilots and other users are still responsible to check published schedule times for Special Activity Airspace as well as any NOTAMs for that airspace.
- Military NOTAMs. NOTAMs pertaining to U.S. Air Force, Army, Marine, and Navy navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS.
What must a pilot know before takeoff?
- NOTAMS
- Weather
- Known traffic delays
- Runway lengths
- Alternate airports
- Fuel requirements
- Take-off / Landing distances
§ 91.103 Preflight action.
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information
must include— (a) For a flight under IFR or a flight
not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been
advised by ATC; (b) For any flight, runway lengths at
airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:
(1) For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing
distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and
(2) For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.
What are VFR and IFR weather conditions?
VFR: greater than 3000’ AGL ceilings and greater than 5 sm visibility
MVFR: 1000’ to 3000’ AGL ceilings and 3 to 5 sm visibility
IFR: 500’ to below 1000’ AGL ceilings and 1 to 3 sm visibility
What is the required equipment and/or certificates for different airspaces?
Class A: ATC clearance and IFR equipped; must have instrument rating
Class B: ATC clearance w/ 2-way radio, altitude reporting transponder; must have private pilot license or student pilot with logbook endorsement
Class C: Contact tower before entering with 2-way radio, altitude reporting transponder
Class D: Contact tower before entering with 2-way radio
Class E: None for VFR
Class G: None
What is the usual altitude of different airspaces?
Class A: 18,000’ MSL to 60,000’ MSL
Class B: Surface to 10,000’ MSL
Class C: Surface to 4,000’ AGL
Class D: Surface to 2,500’ AGL
Class E: 700 AGL if on IFR flight plan; 1200 AGL to 17,999’ MSL if not IFR
Class G: Surface to 700’ AGL / 1,200’ AGL (under E); Surface to 14,500’ MSL
Tell me about hypoxia.
Hypoxia is an oxygen deficiency in the body that impairs both brain functions and other organs. The sympoms include headaches, impaired judgement, euphoria, visual impairment, drowsiness, light headed, dizziness, and limp muscles. If hypoxia is suspected, lower altitude and/or supply supplemental oxygen.
There are four types of hypoxia:
- Stagnant: oxygen deficiecy due to inadequate blood circulation.
- Hypoxic: decrease in oxygen molecules at sufficient pressure due to altitude.
- Hypemic: inability of the blood to carry sufficient oxygen to the cells due to anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning.
- Histotoxic: inability of the cells to effectively use oxygen.
Tell me about hyperventilation.
Hyperventilation is the abnormal increase in volume of air breathed by the lungs due to stress during flight, resulting in decreased carbon dioxide in the blood. The symptoms are light headedness, suffocation, drowsiness, coolness, and tingling in extremities.
To treat for hyperventilation, slow the person’s breathing or breath in and out into a paper bag.
What is regulation regarding alcohol?
A pilot may not fly if
- under the influence of alcohol
- within 8 hours of having consumed alcohol (8 hours bottle to throttle)
- the pilot has a blood alcohol content of 0.04% or greater
- using he or she is using any drug that adversely affects safety
What regulations and/or recommendations apply to flying after passengers have scuba dived?
AIM 8-1-1. Fitness For Flight
d. Decompression Sickness After Scuba Diving.
1. A pilot or passenger who intends to fly after scuba diving should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving. If not, decompression sickness due to evolved gas can occur during exposure to low altitude and create a serious inflight emergency.
2. The recommended waiting time before going to flight altitudes of up to 8,000 feet is at least 12 hours after diving which has not required controlled ascent (nondecompression stop diving), and at least 24 hours after diving which has required controlled ascent (decompression stop diving). The waiting time before going to flight altitudes above 8,000 feet should be at least 24 hours after any SCUBA dive. These recommended altitudes are actual flight altitudes above mean sea level (AMSL) and not pressurized cabin altitudes. This takes into consideration the risk of decompression of the aircraft during flight.
What regulations detail the requirements for supplemental oxygen?
Sec. 91.211
Supplemental oxygen.
(a) General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry–
(1) At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration;
(2) At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes; and
(3) At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet (MSL) unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen.
