Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Health and Illness Concepts II Nursing: N2310 > Musculoskeletal System (Exam One) > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal System (Exam One) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

What will be affected if a patient has functional problems of the musculoskeletal system?

A

Activities of daily living (ADLs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why are older adults at an increased risk for falls?

A
  • Decreased strength

- Changes in balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cushion deterioration will cause what in the older adult?

A

Loss of height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should the nurse do if a patient has continuous falls?

A

Further assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

For musculoskeletal injuries, will the nurse inspect the patients body unilaterally or bilaterally?

A

Bilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is crepitation?

A

Grating or crunching sound upon joint movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Active range of motion is performed by the _______ for the _______?

A

By the patient for the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Passive range of motion is performed by the ________ for the _______?

A

By the nurse for the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe functional range of motion.

A

Patient can perform ADLs without having full range of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is imposed on the body if assistive devices do not fit properly?

A

Undue strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the risk factors for developing a musculoskeletal disorder.

A
  • Obesity
  • Task repetition
  • Trauma during childhood/adolescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a patient has a muscle strength grade of 5/5, this person has ______ strength/ability to move.

A

Most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If a patient has a muscle strength grade of 1/5, this person has ______ strength/ability to move.

A

Less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a patient has a muscle strength grade of 0/5, this person has ______ strength/ability to move.

A

Zero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The grade 0/5 on the muscle strength scale indicates what?

A

Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Before receiving an MRI, the nurse must check the patient for what?

A

Any source of metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What diagnostic procedure can not be performed on a patient who has a pacemaker?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Before performing a diagnostic test utilizing contrast, the nurse should assess the patient for what?

A

Shellfish allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What color of fluid removed from a joint cavity should be concerning to the nurse?

A
  • Cloudy

- Milky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What should the nurse do before performing a diagnostic test on a patient?

A

Educate the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement assess for?

A

Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a bone scan assess for?

A

Avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What laboratory tests are considered specialized and do not usually occur in the acute care setting?

A
  • Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

- Anti-DNA antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rhabdomyolysis causes an increase in what laboratory value?

A

Creatinine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Spinal cord injuries are usually caused by what?

A

Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When will a secondary injury occur?

A

Occur after primary injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Secondary injuries are usually __________.

A

Preventable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The nurse knows she should avoid moving a patient with a suspected spinal cord injury because it can cause what?

A

Secondary injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

List factors that can cause or result in a secondary injury.

A
  • Swelling
  • Inflammation
  • Ischemia
  • Movement of body fragments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What medication might the patient receive to aid in edema control?

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The extent of damage caused by a spinal cord injury and prognosis for recovery is most accurately determined during what time frame?

A

72 hours or more after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When does the most improvement occur following a spinal cord injury?

A

Three to six months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Permanent damage from a spinal cord injury may occur within how many hours following the injury? Why?

A
  • 24 hours

- Due to edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long does spinal shock last?

A

Less than 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is occurring within the body during neurogenic shock?

A

Blood is rushing to the extremities and is not staying where it is supposed to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where do spinal shock and neurogenic shock occur?

A

Below the level of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List the signs and symptoms of neurogenic shock.

A
  • Sudden and drastic hypotension
  • Bradycardia
  • Warm, flushed skin
  • Irregular circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Neurogenic shock may be mistaken for what other medical emergency? What must the nurse do?

A
  • Bleeding out

- Assess the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of shock is temporary?

A

Spinal shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of shock is a medical emergency?

A

Neurogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List the signs and symptoms of spinal shock.

A
  • Flaccid paralysis
  • Decreased reflexes
  • Loss of sensation
  • Absent thermoregulation
  • Bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is flaccid paralysis?

A

Loose and floppy limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If a spinal injury occurs above C4 the patient will have a total loss of what function?

A

Respiratory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What occurs at the skeletal level of injury?

A

Most damage to bones and ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Spinal cord injuries are classified by what four criteria?

A
  • Mechanism of injury
  • Skeletal level of injury
  • Neurological level of injury
  • Degree of injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If a patient has a cervical spinal cord injury, what is the nursing priority?

A

Frequent respiratory assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Patients with a thoracic spinal cord injury are at an increased risk for what? Why?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Aspiration
  • Atelectasis

-Due to ineffective coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Swelling will always travel in what direction with a spinal cord injury?

A

UP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Manifestations of a spinal cord injury are dependent upon what factor?

A

Level of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe a complete injury.

A

Total loss of sensory and motor function below the level of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe an incomplete (partial) injury.

A

Mixed loss of voluntary motor activity and sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Some tracts remain intact with what degree of injury?

A

Incomplete (partial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the preferred and considered the first line diagnostic test?

A

CT Scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Vertebral artery injury that affects blood flow will cause impaired blood flow to what other organ?

A

Brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What diagnostic test is used to rule out vertebral artery injury?

A

CT angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What causes veins to collapse?

A

Blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Why is timely decompression vital with spinal cord injuries?

A

Maintain blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the purpose of traction in a spinal cord injury?

A
  • Realign

- Decompress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The nurse knows the patient is at an increased risk of developing what condition if they have an immobilization device in place?

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an immobilization device?

A

Cleaning the pin sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

List the different immobilization devices.

A
  • Crutchfield
  • Vinke
  • Gardner
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How does a halo vest differ from other immobilization devices?

A

Allows more mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

An immobilized patient is at an increased risk for developing what conditions?

A
  • Blood clots
  • Pressure ulcers
  • Atelectasis
  • Pneumonia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the purpose of a TLSO jacket?

A

Prevents excessive twisting of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Patients with spinal cord injuries involving the T6 nerve or higher are at an increased risk of developing what syndrome?

A

Autonomic dysreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Describe autonomic dysreflexia.

A

Sympathetic reaction of the body to a certain type of stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

List the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia.

A

Distended bladder or rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A patient with a spinal cord injury begins to complain of a headache, what is the nurses priority?

A

Take patients blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

List the clinical manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia.

A
  • Hypertension
  • Throbbing headache
  • Diaphoresis above injury level
  • Bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Find the causative source and remove it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of injury should be reduced as soon as possible?

A

Dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the most common sports injury?

A

ACL injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

List the signs and symptoms of strains and sprains.

A
  • Pain
  • Edema
  • Decreased function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the primary treatment for strains and sprints?

A
  • RICE
  • Analgesics
  • Elevation above heart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the priority concern with an open fracture?

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

Open wound near site of broken bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the priority treatment for an open fracture?

A

Immediate surgical fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What must be done to bones that have been displaced?

A

Must be reduced and put back into alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the overall goal of fracture treatment?

A

Restore body to previously injured state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Describe a closed reduction of a fracture.

A

Nonsurgical, manual realignment of bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What must be applied following a closed reduction?

A

Immobilization device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The nurse knows if a patient has a fracture that is not aligned properly, the physician will have to do what?

A

Reduce and realign properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Slings are commonly used to immobilize what part of the body?

A

Upper arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of traction is used for severe breaks?

A

Skeletal traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of traction is considered a temporary fix until surgery can be performed?

A

Buck’s traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the two most common types of traction?

A
  • Skin traction (Bucks)

- Skeletral traction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe an open reduction of a fracture.

A

Surgical incision using internal fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Open reduction will lead to what?

A
  • Earlier range of motion of the joint

- Earlier ambulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

If a bone has been crushed, what type of fixation will have to be done?

A

External fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

If attempting to salvage an extremity, what type of fixation will have to be done?

A

External fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What type of education will the nurse provide to a patient with external fixation?

A
  • How to clean pin sites

- Signs and symptoms of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How do steroid medications affect healing?

A

Slow healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

List the 6 P’s of a neurovascular assessment.

A
  • Pain
  • Pallor - color
  • Paresthesia - sensation
  • Paralysis - movement
  • Pulselessness
  • Pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

A capillary refill that exceed’s _____ seconds is of concern and the nurse should call the doctor.

A

5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What education should be provided to a patient on how to prevent musculoskeletal injuries/problems?

A
  • Safety precautions
  • Moderate exercise
  • Hard soled shoes
  • Safe environment
  • Protective equipment
96
Q

What vitamin supplements are recommended to prevent musculoskeletal injuries?

A
  • Calcium

- Vitamin D

97
Q

If a patient is schedule for surgery, when should the nurse plan to educate the patient?

A

Before surgery, while still lucid

98
Q

How often should neurovascular assessments be completed for a postoperative musculoskeletal injury patient?

A

Every 4 hours

99
Q

The nurse begins to see capillary refill, color, and edema changes in the postoperative ACL patient, the nurse should plan to do what more often?

A

Neurovascular assessment

100
Q

What is the first indication that a patient has lost too much blood?

A

Vital sign changes

101
Q

Describe the vital sign changes associated with blood loss.

A
  • Hypotension

- Tachycardia

102
Q

List nursing management for a postoperative musculoskeletal injury patient?

A
  • Monitor vital signs
  • Neurovascular assessments
  • Pain control
  • Proper alignment
  • Monitor for bleeding
103
Q

How is pain and discomfort minimized in a postoperative musculoskeletal injury patient?

A

Proper alignment

104
Q

List the complications of immobility.

A
  • Constipation
  • Renal calculi
  • Cardiopulmonary deconditioning
  • DVT/Pulmonary embolism
105
Q

What is a nursing intervention used to combat constipation and renal calculi in a patient who is immobile?

A

Increase fluids

106
Q

Ice should be applied for what duration and location following surgery?

A
  • First 24 hours

- Directly over injured site

107
Q

How long should the affected limb be elevated above the heart post-operation?

A

48 hours

108
Q

Why should the nurse educate the patient to avoid bearing weight on the affected limb for 48 hours post-operation?

A

Avoid malformation or remolding the cast

109
Q

If compartment syndrome is suspected, the nurse knows to avoid doing what with the limb?

A

Elevating the limb

110
Q

The nurse knows to assess what prior to ambulating a post-operative musculoskeletal injury patient?

A

Weight bearing status orders

111
Q

What is required in order for a patient too effectively and properly use assistive devices?

A

Upper arm strength

112
Q

Death usually results in a fracture patient due to what?

A

Complications of fracture or immobility

113
Q

Infection rates are higher in what type of injury?

A
  • Open fractures

- Soft tissue injury

114
Q

Infection of a fracture or soft tissue injury can lead to what other complications?

A
  • Chronic osteomyelitis

- Sepsis

115
Q

Where does compartment syndrome usually occur?

A

Lower leg

116
Q

List the two types of compartment syndrome.

A
  • Decreased compartment size

- Increased compartment contents

117
Q

What are the causes of decreased compartment size?

A
  • Casts
  • Restrictive clothing
  • Splints
118
Q

List the causes of increased compartment contents.

A
  • Bleeding
  • Edema
  • Inflammation
119
Q

Describe decreased compartment size.

A

Squeezing inward on limb

120
Q

Describe increased compartment contents.

A

Bulging of inner limb contents

121
Q

Nursing interventions can be applied to what type of compartment syndrome?

A

Compartment size

122
Q

List the early signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Paresthesia

- Pain unrelieved by medication

123
Q

A patient with acute kidney injury will present with what type of urine?

A

Reddish brown urine

124
Q

The nurse knows to monitor urine output and kidney function in a patient with compartment syndrome because of what?

A

Excess myoglobin is released and clogs up the kidneys

125
Q

What should the nurse do once compartment syndrome is suspected?

A
  • NO elevation above heart
  • NO ice
  • Surgical decompression/fasciotomy
126
Q

When is fat embolism syndrome most likely to occur?

A

Fracture of long bones, ribs, tibia, and pelvis

127
Q

Lipo suction, crush injury, and joint replacement may also cause what syndrome?

A

Fat embolism syndrome

128
Q

When does fat embolism syndrome begin to show signs and symptoms?

A

24 to 48 hours after injury

129
Q

Signs and symptoms of fat embolism syndrome will appear in what? Why?

A
  • Triad

- Due to poor oxygen exchange

130
Q

List the triad of symptoms associated with fat embolism syndrome.

A
  • Respiratory
  • Neurological
  • Petechiae
131
Q

List the clinical manifestations of fat embolism syndrome.

A
  • Rapid or acute
  • Feeling of impending doom
  • Skin color from pallor to cyanosis
  • May become comatose
132
Q

What is the most important factor in preventing fat embolism syndrome?

A

Careful immobilization and handling of fracture

133
Q

What type of fracture imposes the highest risk for hemorrhage?

A

Pelvic fracture

134
Q

Compartment syndrome is prominent in what type of fractures?

A

Tibial fracture

135
Q

What type of fracture is prominent in older adults?

A

Hip fracture

136
Q

The nurse knows a post-operative amputation patient should do what 24 hours after surgery?

A

Lay on stomach to stretch out muscles for prosthesis

137
Q

What type of condition puts a patient most at risk for amputation?

A

Diabetes

138
Q

What is the goal of amputation?

A

Leave as much length as possible while maintaining healthy tissue

139
Q

The patient is encouraged to do what for the first 24 hours following amputation surgery?

A

Elevate the limb

140
Q

The nurse knows that what type of limb amputation will be harder for a patient to cope with?

A

Upper extremity

141
Q

A patient who has had a total hip arthroplasty (THA) is educated to avoid what type of movements? These put the patient at an increased risk for what?

A
  • Cannot bend at waist
  • Cannot cross legs
  • Legs should bend at 90 degrees
  • No low sitting chairs

-Dislocation

142
Q

What is the normal range for Prothrombin Time (PT)?

A

11 - 12.5 seconds

143
Q

What is the normal range for International Normalized Ratio (INR)?

A

0.8 - 1.1

144
Q

List the type of patient care UAP are not allowed to perform.

A
  • Assess
  • Monitor
  • Treat
145
Q

List the complications of a total knee arthroplasty (TKA).

A
  • Infection

- DVT

146
Q

The nurse must assure what before a patient has a total knee arthroplasty (TKA)?

A

There is no active infection

147
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Severe infection of bone, bone marrow, and surrounding soft tissue

148
Q

What microorganism is the most common causative agent for developing osteomyelitis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

149
Q

What is the duration of acute osteomyelitis?

A

Less than 1 month

150
Q

Why are spontaneous fractures prominent in patients with osteomyelitis?

A

Due to bone deterioration

151
Q

What patients are at higher risk for developing osteomyelitis?

A
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Diabetics
  • Those with foreign bodies (i.e. joint replacement)
152
Q

What should be completed prior to prescribing antibiotics to a patient with osteomyelitis?

A

Diagnostic studies

153
Q

X-rays will not show evidence of trauma until how many days following the injury?

A

2 to 4 days

154
Q

What type of diagnostic study is the most accurate indicator of an issue or injury?

A

MRI

155
Q

What antibiotic is detrimental to kidney function?

A

Vancomycin

156
Q

What occurs if a vancomycin trough level is under 10?

A

Not therapeutic

157
Q

What occurs if a vancomycin trough level is above 20?

A

Severe damage to kidneys

158
Q

What is considered the first line treatment for acute osteomyelitis?

A

Aggressive, prolonged IV antibiotics

159
Q

Prolonged administration of antibiotics can result in what other conditions?

A
  • C-diff

- Thrush

160
Q

Describe how chronic osteomyelitis may present relating to duration.

A

Continuous and persistent or a process of exacerbations and remissions

161
Q

What is the duration of chronic osteomyelitis?

A

Greater than 1 month

162
Q

Are local or systemic signs and symptoms more common in chronic osteomyelitis?

A

Local

163
Q

List examples of local manifestations with chronic osteomyelitis.

A
  • Pain
  • Swelling
  • Warmth
164
Q

Systemic manifestations are __________ in chronic osteomyelitis.

A

Reduced

165
Q

What is the most common cause of bone cancers?

A

Metastasis from other cancers

166
Q

What type of bone cancer is the most common?

A

Osteosarcoma

167
Q

Patients with bone tumors or bone cancers may need higher doses of what?

A

Pain medication

168
Q

What is muscular dystrophy?

A

Progressive wasting of skeletal muscles

169
Q

Muscular dystrophy can lead to what?

A

Respiratory failure

170
Q

What is the most common cause of lower back pain?

A

Musculoskeletal problems

171
Q

What is radicular pain?

A

Pain that radiates down an entire nerve

172
Q

Lower back pain is most common in the lumbar region due to what factors?

A
  • Bears most of body weight
  • Is most flexible
  • Contains nerve roots
  • Poor biomechanical structure
173
Q

List the occupational risk factors for developing lower back pain.

A
  • Repetitive lifting
  • Vibration (i.e. jackhammer)
  • Extended periods of sitting
  • Health care personnel engaged in patient care
174
Q

What is the duration of acute lower back pain?

A

4 weeks or less

175
Q

What is the duration of chronic lower back pain?

A

Lasts longer than 3 months

176
Q

What may happen if lower back pain is not caught in the acute phase?

A

Progress to chronic pain and become incapacitating

177
Q

List the objective signs and symptoms associated with lower back pain.

A
  • Guarded movement
  • Tense, tight paravertebral muscles
  • Lowered range of motion in spine
178
Q

What is a priority nursing intervention for patients with chronic lower back pain?

A

Coping mechanisms

179
Q

List the type of body movements that will increase pain.

A
  • Bending
  • Lifting
  • Twisting
  • Prolonged sitting
180
Q

List the type of drug therapy used for lower back pain.

A
  • Mild analgesics
  • Antidepressants
  • Gabapentin
181
Q

What is the proper sleeping position for a patient who suffers from lower back pain?

A

Supine with knees bent or side-lying

182
Q

What is the most common cause of lower back pain?

A

Spinal stenosis

183
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A
  • Narrowing of spinal canal

- Spinal disk puts pressure on spinal nerve

184
Q

Intervertebral disks help absorb what?

A

Shock

185
Q

What is radiculopathy?

A

Nerve cannot tell the muscle what to do

186
Q

Describe degenerative disk disease.

A
  • Disk becomes thinner as inner jelly dried out
  • Shock load is shifted to outer hard layer
  • Progressive destruction
  • Pulposus seeps out
187
Q

If the inner jelly of the vertebral disk seeps out, what is this known as?

A

Herniation

188
Q

What is an osteophyte?

A

Bone spur

189
Q

What diagnostic study shows the alignment of the spine?

A

X-rays

190
Q

What is conservative therapy?

A

All therapeutic measures taken before surgery is necessary

191
Q

When would surgery be indicated for intervertebral disk disease?

A
  • Conservative treatment fails
  • Radiculopathy worsens
  • Loss of bowel of bladder control
  • Constant pain
  • Persistent neurological deficit
192
Q

Describe a laminectomy.

A

Surgical removal of disk through excision

193
Q

Describe a discectomy.

A

Surgical decompression of nerve root

194
Q

What education should the nurse provide to a post-operative lumbar fusion patient?

A
  • Pillows under thighs when supine
  • Pillows between legs when side lying
  • Log roll out of bed
195
Q

What nursing management should be provided to a post-operative spinal surgery patient?

A
  • Monitor for severe headache

- Monitor for leakage of CSF

196
Q

Describe cerebrospinal fluid.

A
  • Clear or slightly yellow drainage
  • Positive for glucose
  • Frequent neurovascular assessments
  • Assess circulation
  • Monitor GI and bowel function/ability to void
197
Q

The nurse knows they should contact the physician immediately if their postoperative spinal surgery patient if the patient presents with what?

A

Bowel or bladder incontinence

198
Q

The nurse knows a post-operative spinal patient should void within what time frame following surgery?

A

4 to 6 hours

199
Q

Post-operative spinal fusion patients may exhibit what problem if they have had surgery to the cervical spine?

A

Respiratory distress

200
Q

Spinal cord edema may cause what?

A
  • Airway issues
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Respiratory distress
201
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Vitamin D deficiency causing bones to lose calcium and become soft

202
Q

What type of medications are provided to a patient with osteomalacia?

A
  • Vitamin D supplements

- Calcium supplements

203
Q

What type of foods are encouraged for a patient with osteomalacia?

A
  • Eggs
  • Meat
  • Oily fish
204
Q

What type of activity is encouraged for a patient with osteomalacia?

A
  • Exposure to sun

- Weight bearing exercises

205
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

Chronic, progressive deterioration of bone tissue

206
Q

Patients with osteoporosis are prone to what type of fracture?

A

Hip

207
Q

Is osteoporosis more common in males or females?

A

Females

208
Q

Where does osteoporosis most commonly occur?

A
  • Spine
  • Hips
  • Wrists
209
Q

List the clinical manifestations of osteoporosis.

A
  • Spontaneous fracture
  • Back pain
  • Gradual loss of height
  • Kyphosis or Dowagers hump
210
Q

At what age is an initial bone density test conducted in women? Men?

A
  • 65 for women

- No screening for men

211
Q

What is the best method of preventing osteoporosis?

A

Regular weight bearing exercises

212
Q

How is calcium best absorbed?

A

In small increments throughout the day

213
Q

What is the golden standard for diagnosing osteoporosis?

A

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)

214
Q

What is the adequate daily calcium intake for women under the age of 51?

A

1000 mg per day

215
Q

What is the adequate daily calcium intake for women over the age of 51?

A

1200 mg per day

216
Q

What is considered an adequate amount of sunlight per day?

A

20 minutes of sunlight per day

217
Q

What type of exercise is not recommended for patients with osteoporosis?

A

Swimming

218
Q

List the drug class for Fosamax.

A

Bisphosphonates

219
Q

List the proper administration of Fosamax.

A
  • Take with full glass of water
  • Take 30 minutes before food or other meals
  • Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking
220
Q

What do bisphosphonates do?

A

Inhibit bone resorption

221
Q

How often is Fosamax taken?

A

Daily or weekly tablet

222
Q

What does the drug Raloxifene do?

A

Reduces bone resorption

223
Q

What does the drug Forteo do?

A

Stimulates new bone growth

224
Q

The drug Forteo is a portion of what hormone?

A

Parathyroid hormone

225
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Slowly progressive non-inflammatory disorder of synovial joints

226
Q

Is osteoarthritis a normal part of aging?

A

No

227
Q

What risk factor for osteoarthritis is modifiable?

A

Obesity

228
Q

What is the primary symptom of osteoarthritis?

A

Joint pain

229
Q

Early morning joint stiffness related to osteoarthritis should resolve within what time frame?

A

30 minutes

230
Q

Is osteoarthritis symmetrical or asymmetrical?

A

Asymmetrical

231
Q

What might cause a temporary increase in joint swelling with osteoarthritis?

A

Overactivity

232
Q

What type of nodes occur in osteoarthritis?

A
  • Heberden’s nodes

- Bouchard’s nodes

233
Q

Where are Heberden’s nodes located?

A

Distal joint of fingers (DIP joint)

234
Q

Where are Bouchard’s nodes located?

A

Proximal joint of fingers (PIP joint)

235
Q

What is the most significant distinction between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Osteoarthritis is local

- Rheumatoid arthritis is systemic

236
Q

What type of exercise is recommended for osteoarthritis?

A

Swimming

Health and Illness Concepts II Nursing: N2310 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions