Musculoskeletal system Flashcards

1
Q

Functions of the skeleton

A

support
protection
locomotion
mineral reserve
haematopoiesis

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2
Q

Describe Rickets

A

Vitamin D is required for calcium absorbtion and so with rickets the bones lack mineral content and are overly flexible.

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3
Q

Describe Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

It is a congenital-genetic disorder that affects collagen production. This leads to the bones being brittle and fracturing easily

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4
Q

List the 5 shapes of bones

A

Long bones
Short bones
flat bones
irregular bones
sesamoid bones

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5
Q

Describe long bones

A

bones of the limbs
Longer than widem long diaphysis/shaft

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6
Q

describe short bones

A

bones of the wrist and ankle
Width is similar to length

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7
Q

Describe flat bones

A

Thin and flat
usually curved
found in the skull, sternum, scapula and ribs

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8
Q

Describe irregular bones

A

Bones that dont fit into other categories
vertebrae
sacrum and facial bones

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9
Q

describe sesamoid bones

A

Small round bones mebedded in tendons. Protect tendon and increase movement
ie patella

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10
Q

Describe the basic gross anatomy of bones

A
  1. Long tube like diaphysis - mostly compact bone, medullary caviity
  2. Two epitheses - articular surface for joints spongy bone but compact at surface
  3. Epitheseal growth plate - seperates D and E, site of growth, ossifies after growth = epitheseal line.
  4. Periosteum - connective tissue, covers outer surface, tendon attachment
  5. Endosteum - lines internal surfaces of cavities, similar structure to P
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11
Q

Describe how the basic gross anatomy of flat bones differs to others

A

No medullar cavity
two sheets of compact bone with spongy bone in the middle
When in the skullthe spongey bone is called diploë

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12
Q

Describe the 5 sections of the vertebral column

A

Cervical (7) - small, relatively mobile, susceptible to dislocation
Thoracic (12) - Articulate with ribs, long processes for muscle attachment
Lumbar (5) - Largest body, susceptible to herniated IVDs
Sacrum (5) - Vertebrae fused, articulates with hip bones
Coccyx (4 fused) - tailbone, fractures easily

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13
Q

Describe bone markings

A

Responses to other structures that cause markings - rough bridges, grooves or holes
Condyle/Epicondyle = femur and humerus rounded parts that form joints
Crest/line = ridge where muscle attaches
Facet = formed surface to help articulation
Foramen/Notch = holes for arteries and nerves to pass through
Fossa = Depth in bone, curved surface, muslce attachment
Process
protuberance
spine
trochanter
tubercule
tubersoity are all different terms for bumps on bones

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14
Q

3 structural classifications of joints

A

Fibrous - dense fibrous connective tissue
Cartilaginous
Synovial - not directly joined (allows movement)

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15
Q

3 functional classifications of joints

A

Synarthrosis - no movement (sutures, synchondrosis synostosis)
Amphiarthrosis - Little movement (distal tibiofibular, pubic symphysis)
Diarthrosis - Free movement (synovial joints)

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16
Q

Describe synovial joints

A

”"”true joints””
surrounded by joint capsule
membrane releases synovial fluid which acts as a lubricant to allow friction-less movement
bursae - pockets of fluid preventing friction
menisci - little parts of cartilage
labrum - surrounds the glenoid fassa of the scapula

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17
Q

describe the different shapes of synovial joints

A

pivot, hinge, plane - uniaxial
condyloid, saddle - biaxial
ball and socket - multiaxial

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18
Q

Describe skeletal muscle

A

Voluntary
connected to bones and facilitate body movement
striated

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19
Q

Describe cardiac muslce

A

involuntary
able to contract without external stimulation
forms walls of the heart
pacemaker cells that contract continuously
striated

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20
Q

describe smooth muscle

A

not striated
no conscious control
within walls or internal organs
contract continuously

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21
Q

describe the structure of skeletal muscle

A

Muscles consit of bundles of muscle fibres.
grouped into muscle fascicles - forming one or more heads or bellies
connected to other structures by a tendon (round) or aponeurosis (flat sheet)
range of movement depends on fibre length
strength depends on number of fibres

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22
Q

6 skeletal muscle classifications

A

flat muscles - parallel fibres often with an aponeurosis
pennate muslces - feather like
fusiform muscles - spindle shaped with round thick bellr and tapered ends
convergent muscles - arise from and borad are and converge to form a single tendon
quadrate muscles - four equal sides
circular or sphincteral muscles - surround a body opening or orifice

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23
Q

where do extrinsic muscles act

A

act structures outside of appendicular skeleton
innervated by anterior rami of spinal nerves

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24
Q

where do intrinsic muscles act

A

structures within the back
innervated by dorsal rami of spinal nerves

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25
Q

“Origins and inserstions of trapezius

A

Originates from the skull, nuchal ligament and the spinous processes of C7-T12.

inserts into clavicle, acromion and spine of scapula

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26
Q

“Actions of trapezius on shoulder girdle

A

descending: keeps shoulder girdle up (carrying bags) and tilts the scapula for arm elevation

ascending and horizontal: depress and pull scapula medially

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27
Q

“Actions of trapezius on head and neck

A

descending: with fixed shoulder, contralateral rotation or extension

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28
Q

“Actions of trapezius on vertebral column

A

flattens the thoracic kyphosis

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29
Q

“Actions of latissimus dorsi on arm

A

adduction, internal rotation, extension

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30
Q

“Actions of latissimus dorsi on the trunk

A

elevation (with arms fixed on a bar)

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31
Q

“Actions of latissimus dorsi on shoulder girdle

A

depression, pulls the scapula medially

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32
Q

“Actions of rhomboids on shoulder girdle

A

retract scapula, rotate glenoid inferiorly. fix scapula to the trunk

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33
Q

“Actions of levator scapulae on shoulder girdle

A

elevates scapula and rotates glenoid inferiorly

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34
Q

“Actions of levator scapulae on vertebral column

A

with fixed shoulder girdle it extends the neck

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35
Q

“Origins and insertions of the Latissimus Dorsi

A

origins:
1. spinous processes T7-T12
2. throaco-lumbar aponeurosis
3: dorsal surface of the sacrum
4. dorsal 1?3 of the iliac crest
5. 10th-12th ribs
6. inferior angle of the scapula

insertions:
humerus - floor of the intratubecular sulcus

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36
Q

“Origins and insertions of the major rhomboid

A

origin: spinous processes of T1-T4
insertion: below scapular spine

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37
Q

“Origins and insertions of the minor rhomboid

A

origin: spinous processes of C6-C7
insertion: root of scapular spine and medial margin of scapula

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38
Q

“attachments of the levator scapulae

A
  1. vertebrae C1-C4 transverse processes
  2. Scapular: superior angle
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39
Q

“Nerve supply of the trapezius

A

Cranial nerve XI accessory

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40
Q

“Nerve supply of the latissimus dorsi

A

thoraco-dorsal nerve from brachial plexus

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41
Q

“Nerve supply of the rhomboids

A

dorsal scapular nerve from brachial plexus

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42
Q

“Nerve supply of the levator scapulae

A

dorsal scapular nerve from brachial plexus

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43
Q

Bisphosphonates action

A

Inhibits osteoclasts

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44
Q

Denosumab action

A

Monoclonal antibody against receptor activator of RANK-Ligand (which binds to and activates osteoclasts in homeostasis)

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45
Q

Teriparatide action

A

N-terminal fragment of parathyroid hormone (which stimulates osteoblasts)

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46
Q

romosozumab action

A

monoclonal antibody which binds to and inhibits sclerostin (which inhibits bone formation is homeostasis)

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47
Q

HRT action

A

increaes oestrogen levels (regulates osteoclast lifecycle)

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48
Q

Strontium action

A

inhibits osteoclasts. (only used if no other treatments can be and only in cases where there is no cardiovascular disease)

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49
Q

Describe the thoracolumbar fascia

A

Covers the deep muscles of the back, critical to organisation and integrity of the region. Latissimus dorsi and trapezius are attached to it.

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50
Q

What muscles are on the superficial intrinsic layer

A

Splenius muscles

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51
Q

What muscles are on the intermediate intrinsic layer of the back

A

Erector spinae - 3 columns of muscle

Iliocostalis
Longissimus
Spinalis

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52
Q

What muscles are on the deep intrinsic layer of the back

A

Transversospinalis - semispinalis, multifidus, rotatores
others: levatores costradum, interspinales and intertransversarii

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53
Q

Origins and insertions of the splenius muscles

A

O: Spinous processes and bottom of nuchal ligament
I: base of skull, mastoid process (capitis) / transverse processes C1 - C3 (cervicis)

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54
Q

Actions of the splenius muscles

A

bilateral - extend neck
unilateral - rotate head to one side

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55
Q

What is the action of the eractor spinae muslces

A

Extensions of spine / vertebral column

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56
Q

What is the common origin of the eractor spinae muscles

A

Broad tendon attached to sacrumspinous processes of L and T vertebra, iliac crest

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57
Q

Insertion of iliocostalis (erector spinae)

A

angles of ribs and Cervical transverse processes

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58
Q

Insertions of longissimus (erector spinae)

A

inserts thoracic and cervical transverse processes and mastoid process.

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59
Q

Insertions of the spinalis (erector spinae)

A

inserts thoracic spinous processes and skull

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60
Q

Action of transversospinalis (deep layer of instrinsic back muscles)

A

Fills groove between transverse and spinous processes.
Extension and rotation of spine

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61
Q

Describe the anterior longitudinal ligament

A

From the base of the skull to the anterior surface of the sacrum.
Attached to anterior surface vertebral bodies and IVDs
Prevents hyperextension

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62
Q

Describe the posterior longitudinal ligament.

A

Attaches the C2 to the sacrum.
Attached to the posterior surface vertebral bodies and IVDs.
Links the anterior surface of the vertebral canal.
Weakly resits hyperflexion

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63
Q

Describe supraspinous ligaments

A

C7 to the sacrum
Connects the tips of spinous processes

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64
Q

Describe the nuchal ligament

A

Strong fibroelastic tissue
Base of skull to C7
supports the head on the neck
Provides attachment for muscle (eg trapezius)

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65
Q

Describe the ligamenta flava

A

Pass between laminae
Form part of the vertebral canal
Resits separation of verterbrae during flexion

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66
Q

Describe interspinous ligaments

A

Between spinous processes

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67
Q

Describe intertransverse ligaments

A

Between transverse processes

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68
Q

Describe the two different types of vertebral joints

A

Typical vertebrae form 6 joints
- 4 x zygapophyseal
- 2 x sympysis

zygapophyseal are facet joints - synovialplane

symphysis are intervertebral discs and are secondary cartilaginous

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69
Q

describe the annulus fibrosus of the IVD

A

high tensile strength
fibrous sheath on outer surface - collagen layers between rings
fibrocartilage inner zone

70
Q

describe the nucleus pulposus of the IVDs

A

high resilience
gelatinous structure
80-85% water

71
Q

what is a ‘slipped disc’

A

prolapse of an IVD (hernia)
tear in the annulus fibrosus - nucleus pulposus can protrude
can impinge on spinal cord or nerves

72
Q

What are C1 and C2 otherwise called and their fucntions

A

C1 - Atlas: no body and involved in the nodding ‘yes’ movement through the atlanto-occipital joint

C2 - Axis: odontoid process (dens) and involved in the shaking head ‘no’ movement through the synovial pivot joint atlanto-axial

73
Q

How do you measure the resting membrane potential

A

using a voltmeter - difference in electrical charge between two points. Measured with glass micropipettes filled with solutions that conduct charge. the micropipette is inserted through the membrane into the cell.

the resting membrane potential is between -40 to -90mV in nerve and muscle.

74
Q

How do K ions contribute to the resting membrane potential

A

The membrane is more permeable to K+ ions. they leak out of the cell and down its concentration gradient. Excess -ve charge buildup inside the cell as Pr- cannot cross the membrane. An electrical gradient is then formed. The -ve charges attract K+ ions back into the cell down the electrical gradient.

75
Q

What equation is used to measure equilibrium potential

A

The Nernst Equation - resting membrane conditions when the work required to move an ion across the membrane (up conc gradient) equals the electrical work required to move an ion againts a voltage gradient.

76
Q

What does the Na/K ATPase pump move

A

3 Na ions out and 2 K ions in (both positive)

77
Q

What does the Na/K/2CL symporter move

A

one +ve charge for every -ve charge

78
Q

what does the HCo3/Cl antiport in red blood cells move

A

These ions in a one-for-one fashion

79
Q

List the steps in muscle excitation

A
  1. Nerve impulse reaches neuromuscular junction
    1. Acetylcholine is released from the motor neuron
    1. Ach binds with receptors in the muscle membrane to allow sodium to enter
    1. Sodium influx will generate an action potential in the sarcolemma
    1. Action potential travels down T tubule
    1. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium
  2. Calcium binds to troponin to move the troponin-tropomyosin complex
    1. Binding sites in the actin filament are exposed
80
Q

Motor unit ratios of back, finger and eye muscles

A

Back - 1:100 nerve to fibre innervation
Fingers - 1:10
Eye - 1:1

81
Q

Define muscle tonus

A

tightness of a muscle
some fibres always contracted

82
Q

Define tetany

A

sustained contraction of a muscle
result of a rapid succession of nerve impules

83
Q

Define the refractory period

A

Brief period of time in which muscle cells will not respond to a stimulus.

much longer in cardiac muscle compared to skeletal

84
Q

What does the light band of a muscle fibre consist of

A

Just actin - the light transmission is high

85
Q

What does the darker band of a muscle fibre consist of

A

Actin and myosin overlapping - thicker and more proteins rsult in a darker band in light microscopy.

86
Q

What holds myosin in place

A

Titan - held in the middle of the sarcomere

87
Q

Describe the myosin heads

A

Action: Pulls actin towards the centre of the sarcomere

Actin heads are arranged hexagonally facing out in different directions. They can work independently from each other and compete to generate force.

88
Q

Describe the role of calcium in muscle contraction

A

at low levels of calcium, circular protein troponin forms filaments.
(between the two helical filaments lies the myosin binding site)

For muscle activation the binding site must be exposed. It is inhibited by a protein called tropomyosin. This is disinhibited by the release of calcium within the cell.

calcium binds to the troponin complex and chnages the inhibitory site conformation.

89
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

an intracellular store that can compartmentalise calcium

90
Q

how is myosin involved in death

A

stiffness of death is referred to as rigour mortis - when the myosin head is attached and cannot detach.

91
Q

what does phosphate accumulation cause in muscles

92
Q

List the steps in myosin action

A
  1. Myosin cross bridge attaches to the actin microfilament.
  2. working stroke - the myosin head pivots and bends as it pulls on the actin filamentsliding it towards the M line. ADP and P are released.
  3. As new ATP attaches to the myosin head the cross bridge detaches.
  4. As ATP is split into ADP and P, cocking of the mysoin head occurs
  5. REPEAT
93
Q

two types of ECM

A

Interstitial connective tissue matrix and basement membrane

94
Q

describe collagen in regards to ECM

A

major insoluble fibrous protein in the ECM.
structural features: 3 collagen polypeptides form a triple helixGly-X-Y repeat motif

Type 1 and 2 are fibrillar
Type 4 is a sheet/network-form

95
Q

Location of Type 1 collagen

A

Dermis
tendons
ligaments
bones
fibrocartilage

96
Q

Location of type 2 collagen

A

Hyaline cartilage

97
Q

Location of type 3 collagen

A

Liver,
bone marrow
lymphoid organs; also in granulation tissue; aka reticulin

98
Q

Location of type 4 collagen

A

Basement membranes

99
Q

Location of type 5 collagen

A

Linker to Basement membranes
Cornea

100
Q

Describe elastin

A

Structural protein arranged as fibres. Abundant in tissues that require stretch and recoil properties. Assembly into functional fibres requires the presence of a structural glycoprotein - fibrillin.

101
Q

composition of lymphoid tissue

A

loose irregular connective tissue

102
Q

composition of dermis tissue

A

dense irregular connective tissue

103
Q

what is ground substance

A

amorphous, gel-like, non-fibrous substance surrounding cells.
consists of large molecules called glycosoaminoglycans which link together with a core protein to form even larger molecules called proteoglycans.

104
Q

describe glycosaminoglycans

A

AKA mucopolysaccharides
chains of repeating disaccharide units
carbohydrate component of proteoglycans
attracts water
gel/cushioning and hydrating properties

105
Q

where is hyaluronic acid found

A

synovial fluid

106
Q

where is chondroitin sulphate found

107
Q

where is keratan sulphate found

108
Q

where is heparan sulphate found

A

basement membrane

109
Q

describe proteoglycans

A

AKA mucoproteins
90-95% carbohydrate (GAG)

110
Q

what GAG is perlecan composed of

A

heparan sulphate

111
Q

what GAGs are aggrecan composed of

A

chondroitin sulphate and keratan sulphate

112
Q

what GAGs is syndecan composed of

A

chondroitin sulphate and heparan sulphate

113
Q

what GAGs is decorin composed of

A

chondroitin sulphate and dermatan sulphate

114
Q

function of fibrillin

A

controls deposition and orientation of elastin

115
Q

function of fibronectin

A

linker role in basement membrane; organises ECM and participates in cell attachment to BM

116
Q

fucntion of laminin

A

primary organiser of basement membrane layer

117
Q

post-translational modifications of collagen

A

glycosylation and hydroxylation

118
Q

post translational modification of elastin

A

hydroxylation

119
Q

Fucntions of MMPs

A

Matrix-metalloproteinases degrade the ECM and when there is excess activation it leads to tumour cell invasion.

120
Q

describe cancer in relation to the basement membrane

A

epithelial tumours regarded as malignant once BM is breached

121
Q

what causes diabetes mellitus

A

thickening of BM in glomurus changes permeability

122
Q

what is epidermolysis bullosa

A

blistering condition where epidermis to dermis attchment id effected

123
Q

what causes goodpastures syndrome

A

autoantibodies tp collagen IV destroy BM in glomerulus and lung

124
Q

describe cartilage

A

synthesised by chondrocytes, type II collagen. Less rigid than bone due to abundant proteoglycans found in its ground substance.

125
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline cartilage, elastic cartilage and fibrocartilage

126
Q

describe hyaline cartilage

A

chondrocytes surrounded by matrix.
few visible collagen fibres
avascular
has perichondrium
found in nasal septum, larynx, tracheal rings

127
Q

describe fibrocartilage

A

layers of collagen type 1 and hyalin-like cartilage with chondrocytes in rows between layers
abundant collagen fibres
avascular
no perichondrium
found in IV discs, pubic symphysis

128
Q

describe elastic cartilage

A

enriched in elastin fibres
avascular
has perichondrium
found in external ear, auditory tube

129
Q

what is osteoarthritis

A

over-degradation of ECM

130
Q

what is fibrosis

A

over-production of ECM

131
Q

Function of Osteoblasts

A

Bone formation - laying down of matrix and mineralisation

132
Q

Function of Osteoclasts

A

Bone resorption (break down) with calcium release

133
Q

Values for Hypercalcaemia

A

Above 2.6 mmol/L (2.5% of people)

134
Q

Values for Hypocalcaemia

A

Below 2.20mmol/L (2.5% of people)

135
Q

why is albumin measured

A

Calcium is so reactive and so is difficult to measure. To measure total calcium: free+bound+complexed

Bound calcium is bound to ALBUMIN

136
Q

Where is the Calcium sensing receptor found

A

CaSR found on parathyroid cells - serves as a ‘calciostat’ for calcium homeostasis

137
Q

Describe PTH

A

Parathyroid hormone is an 84 amino acid polypeptide produced by the parathyroid glands. Secretion is regulated by free/ionised calcium, sensed by the calcium sensing receptors
Measurement is done by immunoassay

138
Q

Summarise Calcium homeostasis

A

In respinse to decrease in ionised CA, PTH stimulates calcium reabsorption in renal tubule, stimulates formation of 1,25 DHCC in kidney (enhances calcium absorbtion from gut and bone resorption)
promotes bone resorption

139
Q

Define Osteoporosis

A

A syndrome associated with low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue which leads to an increased risk of fractures

140
Q

Risk factors for developing osteoporosis

A

Age
Gender (female)
Race (caucasian)
previous fracture
early untrested menopause
family history
Bone mineral density
alcohol
low BMI
smoking
physical inactivity

141
Q

Osteoporosis screening methods

A

FRAX - includes BMD, but not several important variables
Q-Fracture - Includes more variables but not BMD
DXA scan - measurement of BMD at spine and hip. gives a T-score
(+1 to -1 = normal
-1 to -2.5 = osteopenia
-2.5 and below = osteoporosis)

142
Q

Therapies for Osteoporosis

A

Bisphosphonates, Denosumab, teriparatide, Romosozumab, Hormone replacement, Strontium

143
Q

Describe Bisphosphonates therapy

A

Inhibits Osteoclasts and has a high affinity for bone mineral

144
Q

Describe Denosumab therapy

A

Monoclonal antibody against receptor activity of nuclear factor kappa B ligan (RANK L) which is required for osteoclast differentiation and function

145
Q

Describe teriparatide therapy

A

1-34 N-terminal fragment of parathyroid hormone that has bone anabolic effects

146
Q

Describe Romosozumab therapy

A

monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits sclerostin. Increases bone formation and decreases bone resorption

147
Q

Describe hormone replacement therapy

A

Tibolone - partical oestrogen progesterone and androgen receptor agonist

148
Q

Describe Strontium therapy

A

Inhibits Osteoclast activity by stimulating biochemical markers of bone formation. Can only be taken if other treatments cant be and if the patient doesnt have cardiovascular disease

149
Q

What happens when the Elastin component of ECM goes wrong

A

Supravalvular Aortic Stenosis (section of aorta above the valve is narrowed)

150
Q

What happens when the Fibrillin-1 component of ECM goes wrong

A

Marfan Syndrome

151
Q

What happens when the Collagen 1 component of ECM goes wrong

A

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

152
Q

What happens when the Collagen IV component of ECM goes wrong

A

Alport syndrome or Goodpasture’s disease

153
Q

Describe Marfan syndrome

A

Affects connective tissue of skin, bone, blood vessels, and others
Mutations in fibrillin gene are autosomal dominant
Vision problems (lens dislocation)
heart/aortic defects
abnormally long and slender limbs, fingers and toes.

154
Q

Describe Alport syndrome

A

Basement membrane in the glomerulus of kidney forms a part of the selectively permeable glomerular filtration barrier. Mutations in collagen IV genes

155
Q

Describe Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

Affects connective tissues of skin, bone blood vessels and others
Structure, production and function of collagen
Mutations in collagen genes and others
Hypermobility - stretchy and fragile skin.

156
Q

What is lamellae

A

Circular layers of bone within Osteons

157
Q

What is trabeculae

A

Struts of cancellous bone which help to transfer weight through the bone. During life these spaces would be filled with bone marrow

158
Q

What are osteoprogenitor cells

A

Cells that differentiate into osteblasts and osteoclasts

159
Q

What are osteocytes

A

Mature Osteoblasts that have become trapped in the bone matrix in little caves called lacunae. They respond to mechanical strain and can send signals to initiate bone formation or resorption

160
Q

What is appositional bone growth

A

Bone only laid down on the surface. Also occurs in cartilage growth

161
Q

What is interstitial growth

A

cartilage cells divide and proliferate at the epiphysial plate

162
Q

5 zones of the growth plate

A

Resting
Proliferation
Hypertrophy
calcification
Bone

163
Q

describe the resting zone of the growth plate

A

Layer of resting or reserve cartilage cells (chondrocytes) that replicate slowly

164
Q

describe the proliferation zone of the growth plate

A

cells divide more rapidly, lining up in rows along the long axis

165
Q

describe the hypertrophy zone of the growth plate

A

The chondrocytes mature and expand in size

166
Q

describe the calcification zone of the growth plate

A

Expanded cells become calcified and die via apoptosis. Calcified matrix provides structure for bone to be laid down.

167
Q

describe the bone zone of the growth plate

A

Blood vessels and bone cells invade the calcified cartilage and begin to replace the structure with bone

168
Q

What is endochondral ossification

A

Cartilage model is made first and then replaced

169
Q

What is intramembranous ossification

A

Bone formed directly in mesenchyme

170
Q

What are skeletal fontanelles

A

Soft spots - allow flexibility during birthing and rapid growth of brain during first 2 years of life