Cancer and Signalling Flashcards

1
Q

3 Pathology specific sampling methods

A

Cytology sampling: fluid sampling, fine needle aspiration
Tissue sampling: biopsy, resection
Extra tests: immunohistochemistry, genetic profiling

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2
Q

What is neoplasia

A

An excessive, irreversible and uncrontrolled growth which persists after withdrawl of the stimuli that caused it

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3
Q

Difference between neoplasia and a tumour

A

Tumour - swelling/lump
Neoplasia - Wider than this as not all neoplasms are guaranteed to cause swelling/lumps e.g. leukaemia

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4
Q

3 types of neoplasms

A

Benign disease, dysplasia and malignancy

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5
Q

What is hyperplasia

A

Increase in cell number

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6
Q

What is hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size

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7
Q

What is atrophy

A

Descrease in cell size

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8
Q

What is metaplasia

A

Change from one cell type to another

(eg, from squamous to glandular epithelium)

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9
Q

Describe hypertrophy

A

Increase in cell size
Gene activation, protein synthesis, production of cellular organelles

PI3K/AKT pathway important in physiological hypertrophy

Multiple G protein linked signalling pathways important in pathological hypertrophy

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10
Q

Describe Atrophy

A

decrease in stress -> decrease in cell number or size

decrease in cell number : apoptosis
decrease in cell size: ubiquitin-proteasome degradation of cytoskeleton OR autophagy of cellular components by autophagosomes fused to lysosomes

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11
Q

Describe Metaplasia

A

Reprogramme of stem cells - different cell type

Can occur across any of the cell categories - commonly epithelium
Can be step on malignany pathway
Example: Barretts oesophagus, Vit A deficiency induced keratomalacia of the conjuctiv, myositis ossificans

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12
Q

What is aplasia

A

Failure of cell production in embryogenesis, on a spectrum between agenesis and hypoplasia

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13
Q

What is hypoplasia

A

Decrease in cell production during embryogenesis, which leads to a smaller overall organ size

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14
Q

What is necrosis

A

uncontrolled cell death

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15
Q

What is apoptosis

A

programmed cell death

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16
Q

Describe benign disease

A

Localised
well encapsulated
slow growing
resemble the tissue of origin
regular nuclei
few mitoses
damage at the local level

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17
Q

What is dysplasia

A

Abnormal/atypical cells due to failure of differentiation
In some areas of the body - intraepithelial neoplasia
The more dysplastic = the higher the chance of future malignancy

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18
Q

2 disordered cellular features of dysplasia

A

Pleomorphic nuclei - irregular and variable size
Mitotic figures - cells dividing in an irregular way (perhaps pulled to three poles)

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19
Q

Describe malignancy

A

invasive
can metastasise
grows fast
may not resemble tissue of origin
shows features of dysplasia
damage at local or distant sites

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20
Q

How can cancers spread through metastasis

A

through lymphatics
through blood
transcoelomic - body cavities

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21
Q

Benign covering epithelia

A

papilloma

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22
Q

Benign glandular epithelia

A

Adenoma

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23
Q

Benign solid organ epithelia

A

Adenoma

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24
Q

malignant covering epithelia

A

carcinoma

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25
Q

malignant glandular epithelia

A

adenocarcinoma

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26
Q

malignant solid organ epithelia

A

[organ] carcinoma

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27
Q

benign smooth muscle

A

leiomyoma

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28
Q

benign skeletal muscle

A

rhabdomyoma

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29
Q

benign bone forming tissue

A

osteoma

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30
Q

benign cartilage

A

chondroma

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31
Q

benign fibrous tissue

A

fibroma

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32
Q

benign bllod vessels

A

agioma

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33
Q

benign adipose tissue

A

lipoma

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34
Q

malignant smooth muscle

A

leiomyosarcoma

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35
Q

malignant skeletal muscle

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

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36
Q

malignant bone forming tissue

A

osteosarcoma

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37
Q

malignant cartilage

A

chondrosarcoma

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38
Q

malignant fibrous tissue

A

fibrosarcoma

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39
Q

malignant blood vessels

A

angiosarcoma

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40
Q

malignant adipose tissue

A

liposarcoma

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41
Q

Malignant lymphoid

A

Lymphoma

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42
Q

Malignant haematopoietic tissue

A

leukaemia

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43
Q

Malignant primitive nerve cells

A

Neuroblastoma, retinoblastoma etc

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44
Q

Malignant glial cells

A

Gliomas (eg astrocytoma)

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45
Q

Malignant melanocyte

A

malignant melanoma

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46
Q

Benign melanocytes

A

Pigmented naevi (moles)

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47
Q

malignant mesothelium

A

malignant mesothelioma

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48
Q

malignant germ cells

A

teratoma, seminoma

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49
Q

benign germ cells

A

teratoma

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50
Q

What does immunochemsitry show us in relation to HER2 of breast cancer

A

Immunochemsistry shows us where certain proteins are expressed within the cell and in roughly what quantity they are expressed (the darker the brown, the more HER2 there is)

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51
Q

Describe Microsatellite instability

A

occurs when there is a failure of the mechanism to repair damaged DNA in the cell cyle.

tIf there is damage to the MMr system, damaged DNA can be passed down to new cells and this can make them prone to mutations causing cancer.
The higher chance of mutation caused by the failure of the MMR system is called MSI

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52
Q

What is staging

A

How far has the neoplasm spread through the body

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53
Q

Describe TNM classification

A

Tumour - measures local invasion
Node - measure spread to lymph nodes
Metastasis - Measures spread to distant tissues

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54
Q

Local effects of neoplasms

A

Generalised symptoms - pain, lump
Compression of surrounding structures
Ulceration
Bleeding/Anaemia
Obstruction

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55
Q

Metastatic effects of neoplasms

A

Depends on site
Eg, brain mets cause swelling, raised pressure, stroke, seizures etc

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56
Q

Systemic effects of neoplasms

A

Weight loss, loss of apetite, cachexia
Fever or feeling non-specifically unwell
Infection

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57
Q

Para-neoplastic effects of neoplasms

A

Secretion of excess substances, eg. hormones has systemic effects
Raised calcium (leading to confusion) in cencer patients for example

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58
Q

Mental health effects of neoplasms

A

Depression, anxiety, hopelessness, frustration
Worsening quality of life

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59
Q

What is G0

A

The pahse when cells are not actively dividing
Also known as quiescenceResponse to external signal/mitogenic

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60
Q

How long is the cell in G1

A

11 hours

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61
Q

How long is the cell is S phase

A

8 hours

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62
Q

How long is the cell in G2

A

4 hours

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63
Q

How long is the cell in M phase

A

1 hour

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64
Q

What happens in the S phase

A

Synthesis of DNA

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65
Q

What happens in G1

A

Growth
Monitoring of environment
RNA and protein synthesis in preparation for S phase
Growth-factor dependent

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66
Q

what happens in G2

A

Further growth
cell organelle replication
preparation for mitosis

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67
Q

What happens during prophase

A

The strands of chromatin shorten, thicken and resolve themselves into recognisable chromosomes.

Nuclear envelope dissapears and the spindle microtubules expand into the central region of the cell, attaching to the chromosomes

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68
Q

What makes the mitotic spindle

A

Parallel microtubules assembled between centriole pairs at opposite poles

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69
Q

What happens in metaphase

A

Chromosomes assemble along metaphase plate. Each chromsome is attached to a spindle fibre by bundles of microtubules

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70
Q

What happens in Anaphase

A

Proteolytic cleavage of the proteins that hold the chromatids together, allowing them to be pulled to opposite poles of the spindle.

71
Q

What happens in telophase

A

Nuclear envelope reforms and chromsomes decondense, spindles disintegrate. 

72
Q

Describe cyclin dependent kinases

A

regulate progression through the cell cycle
serine/theorine kinases
activity must be tightly regulated

73
Q

which CDK is involved in G1

74
Q

which CDK is involved in S

75
Q

which CDK is involved in S through to Metaphase

76
Q

which CDK is involved in G2 through to anaphase

77
Q

which cyclin is associated with G1

78
Q

which cyclin is associated with S

79
Q

which cyclin is associated with S through to metaphase

80
Q

which cyclin is associated with G2 through to anaphase

81
Q

What are cyclins

A

activator proteins that are up- or down- regulated depending on the phase of the cell cycle
Unstable proteins
different cyclins associated with different cdks

82
Q

what is cyclin B also known as

A

Maturation promoting factor (MPF)

83
Q

Causes of cell injury

A

Mechanical - Trauma
Radiation
Infection
Chemical
Hypoxia
Genetic - Mutations
Drugs

84
Q

2 ways in which cells die

A

Necrosis and apoptosis

85
Q

Reversible cell injuries

A

“Cloudy Swelling” - osmotic distrubance

Cytoplasmic blebs, disrupted microvilli, swollen mitochondria

“Fatty change” - accumulation of lipid vacuoles

86
Q

Cell death by necrosis

A

injury due to external stimuli
uncontrolled cell death
always pathological
cell contents leak from breakdown of cell membrane
often elixits inflammatory response

87
Q

cell death by apoptosis

A

can be physiological or pathological
active controlled or “programmed” cell death
cell contents do not leak due to intact cell membrane
does not elicit inflammatory response

88
Q

What is karyolysis

A

Nuclear fading

89
Q

What is pyknosis

A

nuclear shrinkage

90
Q

what is karyorrhexis

A

nuclear fragmentation

91
Q

coagulative necrosis

A

firm, tissue outline retained

haemorrhagic: due to blockage of venous drainage
gangrenous: larger areas (lower leg)

92
Q

colliquitive necrosis

A

tissue becomes liquid and its structure is lost

e.g infective abcess, cerebral infarct

93
Q

caseous necrosis

A

combination of coagulative and colliquitive, appearing ‘cheese-like’ (caseous)

94
Q

fat necrosis

A

due to action of lipases on fatty tissue

95
Q

effects of necrosis

A

depends on tissue/organ

inflammation - release of cell contents activates inflammation and causes damage.

96
Q

physiological fucntions of apoptosis

A

embryogenesis: deletion of cell populations
cell deletion in proliferating cell populations to maintain constant number of cells
deletion of inflammatory cells after response
deletion of slef-reactive lymphocytes in thymus (auto-immune disease)

97
Q

pathological targets of apoptosis

A

viral infection: cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
DNA damage
Hypoxia/ischaemia
Autoimmune disease
Graft vs host disease

98
Q

apoptosis morphology

A

cell shrinkage
chromatin condensation
membrans of cell remain intact
cytoplasmic blebs form and break off to form apoptotic bodies which are phagocytosed by macrophages

99
Q

What are CDKIs

A

CDK inhibitors
small proteins that block cyclin/CDK activity either by forming an inactive complex or by acting as a competitive CDK ligand

100
Q

what are the three CDKI families

A

p21 CIP
p27 KIP
p16 INK

101
Q

Inactive MPF form

A

cdk-1 in a phosphorylated state

102
Q

What does active MPF phosphorylate

A

Lamins to destroy the nuclear envelope

Histones and condensins for chromosome condensation

Microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) for spindle formation

103
Q

What is the restriction point

A

the checkpoint at G1
after which the cell no longer requires growth factors to complete the cell cycle and commits to cell division.
Dependent on the accumulation of cyclin D.
Retinoblastoma protein acts as the gatekeeper.

104
Q

Function og epidermal growth factor

A

EGF
re-epithelialsation
(keratinocyte proliferation and migration)

105
Q

Function of platelet-derived growth factor

A

PDGF
matrix formation (increased numbers and activity of fibroblasts)
Remodelling (production of proteases)

106
Q

Function of vascular endothelial growth factor

A

VEGF
angiogenesis (endothelial cell proliferation and migration)

107
Q

What is E2F

A

Transcription factor that when the cell cycle is active, it transcribes genes necessary for S phase. It is inhibited in G1 by RB

108
Q

In the presence of growth factors, what does cdk4/6-cyclin D phosphorylate

A

Retinoblastoma protein. This forces it to dissociate from E2F and allows gene transcription to occur.

109
Q

Describe tumour suppresor genes

A

TSGs encode normal cell proteins that inhibit cell proliferation and growth of cell.
They maintain integrity of the genome
Cause cell-arrest in abnormally dividing cells and repair DNA damage

RB - blocks entry to the cell cycle
p53 - detects DNA damage
BRCA1 - DNA repair

110
Q

Describe p53

A

Transcription factor

If it detects low levels of DNA damage it will inhibit the cell cycle and express p21 so DNA repair can occur

If it detects high levels of DNA damage it will promote apoptosis.

111
Q

What occurs at the metaphase checkpoint

A

Anaphase promoting complex APC is inhibited until all chromosomes are attached to spindles.

112
Q

Describe morphogen

A

Cell signalling molecule that travels from one point to another.

Cells near the origin get lots of morphogen and so respond in a particular way that is different to the cells recieving low levels at the second point.

113
Q

What happens when RAS is mutated

A

Mutated K-RAS is too active and causes cells to grow/divide/survive in the absence of growth signals.

114
Q

Describe Herceptin

A

Drug used agaisnt breast cancer
AKA trastuzumab
Targets cell surface growth factor receptor (HER2)
Stops growth signalling

115
Q

Describe salbutamol

A

Asthma reliver
Targets beta-2 receptor in lungs (opens them)

116
Q

Describe Gleevec

A

Protein kinase inhibitor used against CML. Inhibits intracellular protein tyrosine kinase (Bcr-Abl)

117
Q

Describe Avastin

A

Targets VEGF - signal for angiogenesis (new blood supply for tumour)
Inhibits cancer growth

118
Q

2 ways to classify biochemical signals

A

chemical structure
range of action (distance)

119
Q

3 types of hormones

A
  1. Amino-acid derivatives
  2. Steroid hormones
  3. Eicosanoids (derived from lipids)
120
Q

4 terms to classify signals based on range of action

A

Endocrine - long distance
Paracrine - nearby
Juxtacrine - neighbour cell
autocrine - same cell

121
Q

3 stages of all signals

A
  1. detect signal/stimulus
  2. Transduce the signal from site of detecction to part of cell that will respond
  3. Respond - must be coordinated with responses to other signals; and with responses of other cells (tissue/organ/body)
122
Q

Describe hydrophobic signal molecules

A

Diffuse directly through plasma membrane into cells

eg. steroid hormones
- bind directly to intracellular receptor proteins
- hormone-receptor complex acts as a transcription factor
- complex binds to DNA and alters gene expression

123
Q

Describe hydrophillic signalling molecules

A

Must use a cell surface receptor protein

eg. insulin and adrenaline

binds to a receptor and activates it bringing about a conformational change that results in a cellular response

124
Q

3 main types of cell surface receptors

A
  1. Ion-channel-linked
  2. G-protein-linked
  3. Enzyme-linked
125
Q

describe ion channel linked receptors

A

e.g. glutamate neurotransmitter

Ion flow into cell changed the electrical properties of the cell
e.g. nerve impulse transmission

126
Q

describe G protein linked rceptor (GPCR)

A

e.g. adrenaline, serotonin, glucagon

Activated G-protein activates enzyme that passes on signal into cell

127
Q

describe enzyme linked receptors

A

e.g. many growth factors, insulin

Signal binds to the inactive receptor it brings the two parts of the receptor together and brings out about enzyme activity activation within the cell.

128
Q

2 main methods of transduction

A

enzyme cascades and second messengers

129
Q

Describe MAPK cascade

A

Activated in response to growth factor RTK activation e.g. EGF
Relay proteins Grb/Sos activate Ras
- Ras is a (proto)oncogene
Ras activates a ‘Map Kinase cascade’

Enzymatic casacde ad so amplification as well as transduction

130
Q

What is a second messenger

A

Small molecule that is produced in large amounts inside cell after receptor activation

131
Q

Example of secondary messenger transduction

A

Adrenaline: GPCR -> cAMP -> PKA activation -> effector proteins phosphorylated

132
Q

What is a GPCR

A

G protein coupled receptors

133
Q

Molecular level responses = changes in…

A

Gene expression, protein activity, protein binding, protein localisation

134
Q

Describe role of Receptor Tyrosine Kinases in Cancer

A

Frowth factor/RTK pathways are often overactive in cancer

  • Activating mutation or overexpression of RTK or other pathway proteins
    Treatment (anti-cancer drugs) involve inactivating antibodies or small molecule kinase inhibitors.
135
Q

Describe the use of herceptin

A

AKA trastuzmab
Targets HER2 (human EGFR2), antibody drug, against HER2+ breast cancer

136
Q

Describe the use of Avastin

A

AKA bevacizumab
Targets VEGF, antibody drug, against Colorectal cancer (angiogenesis)

137
Q

Describe the use of Iressa

A

AKA gefitinib
Targets EGFR, inhibitor drug, against lung cancer

138
Q

Describe GPCR activation

A
  1. Ligand binding to receptor causes a conformational chnage in cytoplasmic domain.
  2. Conformational change allows G-protein to bind/be activated by receptor
  3. Activated G-protein activates intracellular enzymes
139
Q

What type of receptor does insulin bind to 

A

Receptor tyrosine Kinase

140
Q

What are the key components of the signalling pathway through which adrenaline causes release of glucose

A

GPCR -> cAMP second messenger -> PKA

141
Q

What does the EGF receptor activate

A

Cell survival, proliferation and invasion via the PI3 Kinase pathway

Proliferation and invasion via the KRAS pathway

142
Q

Which serine proteins are binded to p53 to induced cell cycle arrest and apoptosis

A

Mild genotoxic stress - serine 15 - arrest

Severe genotoxic stress - serine 46 (+serine 15 already attached) - apoptosis

144
Q

Which lymph nodes are most commonly affected by Breast cancer

A

Axillary LN
Super clavicular LN
Cervical LN

145
Q

3 breast cancer subtypes

A

Oestrogen receptor +
Progesterone receptor +
HER2 receptor +

Can be any combination of these

146
Q

Treatment options for breast cancer

A

Axillary lymph node removal
breast reconstruction
Radiotherapy
- adjuvant: reduces risk of recurrance
- palliative: treats symptoms, especially pain from bone metastases
Endocrine treatment: hormones +/- ovarian suppression
- tamoxifen, aromatose inhibitors
systemic anti-cancer therapy (SACT)
- chemotherapy (microtubule inhibitors, DNA damaging agents)
- monoclonal antibodies (anti-HER2 drug)
- immunotherapy
- PARP inhibitors, cdk4/6 inhibitors, antibody drug conjugates (ADCs)

147
Q

Ways to assess treatments for breast cancers

A

Response rate
Time to progression
Local or distant recurrence rates
Disease-free survival
Overall survival

148
Q

Future treatment directions for breast cancer

A

Better targeted treatments
Next generation sequencing to guide treatment options
Better management of side effects
de-escalation of treatment in patients whose cancers respond well
Avoiding uneccessary treatment
More effective surveillance

149
Q

Define Metastasis

A

Multi-step process by which tumour cells move from a primary site to colonise a secondary site.

150
Q

What is cachexia

A

When the body wastes away due to cancer, despite eating you still lose muslce and fat

151
Q

7 characteristic of metastasis

A
  1. reduced cell-cell adhesion
  2. altered cell-substratum adhesion
  3. increased motility
  4. increased proteolytic ability
  5. ability to intravasate and extravasate
  6. angiogenic ability (blood supply)
  7. ability to proliferate (locally and etopic sites)
152
Q

What is the epethilial-mesenchyme transition

A

EMT
process in which epithelial cells lose their characteristic polarity, diassemble cell-cell junctions and become more migratory

153
Q

Function of e-cadherin

A

decreased expression in cancers as it is involved in cell-cell junctions. binds cadherins across jucntion and to the actin cytoskeleton via alpha and beta catenon
calcium dependent

154
Q

Function of integrin

A

mediate cell adhesion to the ECM
found in hemi-desmosomes and focal adhesions
altered integrin expression is frequently detected in tumours

155
Q

examples of integrins

A

avB3 & a5B1 expressed in melanomas

156
Q

what do proteases expressed by tumours and stroma cells (surrounding tumout) facilitate

A
  • invasion of ECM at primary and secondary sites
  • digestion of endothelial BM
  • angiogenesis
  • activate proteases
157
Q

example of Matrix metalloproteinases

A

MMP-2 degrades type IV collagen (found in BM)

158
Q

example of serine proteases

A

urokinase plasminogen activator (uPA) turns plasminogen into plasmin
plasmin activates MMPs and degrades ECM

159
Q

example of Cysteine proteases

A

cathepsin K collagenolytic activity -> matrix degradation

160
Q

3 modes of tumpur spread

A

lymphatic spread
haematogenous spread
transcoelomic spread (across the peritoneal cavity)

161
Q

describe the steps in intravasation

A
  1. attachemnt
  2. degrade BM
  3. diapedesis
  4. New blood vessels are leaky
  5. assisted by tumour-associated macrophages: chemotactic signals
162
Q

why do most tumour cells not survive transport

A

shear stress of blood flow
immune detection

163
Q

describe the steps in extravasation

A
  1. attachment
  2. degrade BM
  3. diapedesis
  4. blood vessels structurally sound
  5. similar mechanism used by WBCs
164
Q

define angiogenesis

A

new vessles are generated from existing vasculature

165
Q

define vasculogenesis

A

new vessels are generated from scratch

166
Q

steps of angiogenesis

A
  1. tumour cells detect hypoxia
  2. transcription factor HIF induced
  3. this transcribes VEGF
  4. VEGF secreted and binds to VEGF receptor on endothelial cell
  5. once bound it signals, resulting in transcription and protein production for new blood vessels.
  6. Integrin migration, sprout formation (proliferation), protease invasion
167
Q

define organotropism

A

when specific cancers tend to metastasise to a preferred secondary site
‘seed and soil’ theory
(secondary growth of cancer cells (seed) is dependent on the microenvironment of the distant organ (soil))

168
Q

examples of organotropism

A

Breast carcinoma - bone, lung, brain
Colorectal carcinoma - liver and lung

169
Q

function of cancer-associated fibroblast (CAF)

A

within tumour, manipulated by tumour cells to secrete MMPS, cytokines to recruit IL-8 and VEGF

170
Q

describe pericytes function in cancer

A

cancer cells manipulate pericytes for poor coverage so that blood vessls arre leaky allowing tumour cell invasion

171
Q

function of Tumour-associated macrophages

A

produce growth factors and MMPs to promote angiogenesis, cell invasion and intravasation

172
Q

Describe precursor lesions fpr cervical cancer

A

CIN1 = resolves without treatment, patients are monitored
CIN3 = precursor lesion for squamous cell carcinoma
Cervical screening programme is used to detect and treat CIN2 and CIN3
CGIN is much less common and is the precursor lesion for adenocarcinoma

173
Q

what is dyskaryosis

A

when abnormal cells have enlarged, irregular shaped nuclei.
cervical cytology
Dyskaryosis is graded as mild, moderate or severe depending on the size of the nucleus