Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Adults Exam 4 > Musculoskeletal System > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

name two specific examples of long bones

A

femur in leg & humorous in arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Diaphysis
- what is it?
- what is it made up of?

A

middle part of the long bone (made up of compact bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Epiphysis
- what is it?

A

ends of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Epiphyseal plate
- what is it?
- what does it do & promote?

A

separates the epiphysis from the diaphysis (separates ends from shaft) so bone growth will occur!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

once bone growth is finished, each of the long bones are covered at the joints by ____

A

articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of bone marrow do long bones contain?

A

fatty yellow marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

give 2 examples of articular joints

A

femur has the knee & humorous has the elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

short bones (tarsals)
- where are they found?
- list 4 examples

A
  • found in ankles & hands
  • carpals, metacarpals, tarsals, metatarsals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

irregular bones
- give example
- what type of shape?
- bones of the ___ & ____

A
  • EX: jaw
  • odd shape
  • bones of the vertebrae & jaw
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

flat bones
- give 2 examples
- function

A
  • EXs: sternum & skill
  • Function: protect underlying structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are bones made up of? (composition) (3)

A

cells, proteins, & minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

periosteum
- what is it?
- what attaches to it?

A

fibrous membrane that nourished the bone itself; tendons & ligaments attach to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

endosteum
- what is it?

A

vascular membrane that covers the marrow cavity of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the bone marrow is highly ____

A

vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bone marrow
- what is it?

A

shaft of the long & flat bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

red bone marrow
- found in which locations?
- what is made here?

A
  • found mainly in sternum, ileum, vertebrae, & ribs
  • RBCs, WBCs, & platelets are made
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Remodeling of bones

A

Old bones removed, new ones added (new bones added faster when young)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Resorption of bones

A

removal / destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

list things that influence bone resorption

A

physical activity (specifically weight bearing), dietary intake (esp Ca), hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which types of patients have increased bone resorption & why?

A

bed bound patients from Ca loss = bone weakening = increased risk of fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how much calcium & vitamin D is needed to maintain adult bone mass?

A

1,000 - 1,200 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is needed to absorb calcium?

A

Vitamin D!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how many units of vitamin D should young adults have?

A

600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how many units of Vitamin D should older adults have?

A

800 - 1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

role of PTH

A

maintains serum calcium level in the blood by promoting movement of Calcium from the bone to the blood
*“PULLS” from the bone to the BLOOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does the PTH promote?

A

demineralization of the bone to increase calcium in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

role of calcitonin

A

maintains serum calcium level
***stops bone resorption & deposits calcium into the BONE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is calcitonin secreted by when serum calcium levels are too high?

A

thyroid gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

role of calcitriol

A

increases serum Ca in BLOOD by promoting absorption of calcium in the GI TRACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

role of thyroid hormone

A

breaks down bone (do not want too much)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

role of cortisol

A

corticosteroid that breaks down bone (do not want too much)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

role of growth hormone

A

direct effect on bone growth & remodeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

role of testosterone

A

has both direct & indirect effect on skeletal growth throughout lifespan; greater muscle mass & increased bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

in aging men, what does testosterone convert to in the adipose tissue to help preserve bones?

A

estrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

role of estrogen

A

stimulates osteoblasts & inhibits osteoclasts; needed to enhance bone formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

role of ligaments & tendons

A

bind articulating bones together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ligaments

A

bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

tendons

A

muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

flaccid

A

without tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

spastic

A

greater-than-normal tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

atonic

A

soft & flabby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

hypertrophy

A

increase in size of muscle fibers; exercise & weightlifting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

atrophy

A

decrease in size of muscle; immobility & bed rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

kyphosis

A

forward curvature of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lordosis

A

exaggerated curvature of the lumbar spine (swayback)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

scoliosis

A

lateral curving deviation of the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

arthyrography
- what does it identify & determine?
- describe the procedure

A
  • identifies cause of pain in joint & determines progression of joint disease
  • contrast agent into joint cavity to visualize joint
  • joint ROM while x-ray series obtained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

arthroscopy
- what does it visualize?
- what dose it diagnose?
- what can it treat?
- describe the procedure

A
  • Visualize joint w fiber optic endoscope
  • Diagnose joint disorders
  • Can biopsy
  • Can treat ulcers, defects & disease processes
  • Sterile procedure until local or general anesthesia
  • Wound closed w steri strips or sometimes sutures & covered w a dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

arthrocentesis
- describe what procedure does
- what can it diagnose?
- what does it relieve pain from?
- what to monitor for?
- what should the synovial fluid look like?
- what type of technique is this procedure?

A
  • Obtains sample of synovial fluid from joint
  • Can dx inflammatory arthropathies
  • Relieves pain from effusion (fluid in joint)
  • Look for hemarthrosis (bleeding in joint cavity)
  • Synovial fluid (should be clear, pale, straw colored, & small in volume)
  • Aseptic technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

X-ray / CT / MRI
- what does it show & reveal?

A
  • Bone density, texture, erosion, bone changes
  • Reveals fluid, irregularity, spur formation, narrowing / changes of joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CT
- what can it visualize?

A
  • With or w out contrast
  • Visualize tumors, soft tissue injury, ligaments & tendons, trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MRI
- what does it visualize?
- what dose it assess & diagnose?

A
  • Visualize & assess torn muscles, ligaments & cartilage
  • Assess & dx herniated disc, hip, & pelvic conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

electromyography
- what does it assess & evaluate?
- describe the procedure
- post op interventions

A
  • Assesses electrical potential of muscles / nerves & evaluates weakness, pain, & disability & Evaluates weakness, pain & disability
  • Needle electrodes into muscles
  • Warm compresses post procedure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bone densitometry
- what does it test?

A

tests BMD through x-rays & US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

bone scan
- what does it detect?
- describe procedure

A
  • Used to detect tumors (metastatic & primary), Osteomyelitis & DDD
  • Radioisotope through IV, scan 2-3 hours after
  • Areas of abnormal bone will appear brighter
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

list some nursing considerations & contraindications for diagnostic tests (7) (indicate ones specifically for MRI)

A

Nursing:
1. patient must lie still (MRI) - sedative or Ativan sometimes given before
2. discuss MRI
Contraindications:
1. COPD or disorder where patient cannot lay flat
2. pregnant patient
3. patient w metal implants
4. always check urinalysis on women at child-bearing age!!
Allergies / contraindications to contrast agents:
1. check kidney function
2. be sure creatinine level is below 1.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

post diagnostic care (3)

A
  1. rest joint for 12 hours
  2. enjoy strenuous activity until approved
  3. provide ice 20 min on & 20 min off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

post diagnostic care for an arthrography

A
  • patient may hear a clicking or crackling joint for 24-48 hours (dye is causing sound)
  • drink plenty of fluids to flush out contrast dye
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

post diagnostic care for an arthroscopy

A
  • check for s/sx of infection due to incisions
  • keep joint extended & elevated to reduce swelling
  • avoid strenuous activity until cleared by the PCP
  • ice 20 mins on & 20 mins off
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

list reasons of why a calcium lab would be drawn

A

Altered in osteomalacia (softening of the bone), parathyroid dyfx, prolonged immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

list reasons why an alkaline phosphatase (ALP) would be drawn

A

can indicate liver disease or bone disorders
Found throughout the body (concentrated in liver, bones, kidneys & GI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

list reasons why parathyroid labs (PTH), calcitonin, vitamin D labs would be drawn

A

Evaluate bone metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

list reasons why CK (creatine kinase) & asparate aminotransferase (AST) levels would be drawn

A

Elevated w muscle damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

list reasons why urine calcium levels would be drawn

A

Increased w bone destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

indications for casting (3)

A

Immobilize fracture, Correct / prevent deformity, Support weakened joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

how is a cast applied?

A

Fiberglass or plaster of paris (joints proximal & distal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what are some complications of casts? (2)

A
  1. pressure ulcers
  2. compartment syndrome (occurs due to casting too soon)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

nursing focus / education for casting (5)

A
  1. *Neurovascular checks 6P’s (pain, pulselessness, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, polythermal)
  2. cold therapy
  3. do not scratch; infection
  4. keep clean, dry, & elevate!
  5. discuss potential complications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is a benefit of a waterproof cast?

A

does not smell!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

how do you perform a neurovascular assessment?

A

6 Ps: pain, pallor, paralysis (can they move it?), paresthesia (numbness / tingling), pulse, polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

list causes of compartment syndrome (5)

A
  1. trauma
  2. fracture
  3. severely bruised muscle
  4. severe sprain
  5. cast / bandage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is compartment syndrome? describe what happens

A
  • Fascia (fibrous material) covers muscles; DOES NOT expand
  • Swelling occurs = nowhere to go
  • Increased pressure in compartment
  • Blood flow compromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what could compartment syndrome lead to? (worse case)

A

ischemia & limb death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how will a client w compartment syndrome present? (3)

A
  1. *pain disproportionate to injury
  2. N/t to extremity; paleness
  3. NO pain relief despite analgestics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

list & describe the diagnostic test used for compartment syndrome

A

Stryker: tests pressure; looks like a meat thermometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

list acute interventions for compartment syndrome (2)

A
  1. remove cast
  2. Fasciotomy: removing fascia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how can nurses help w compartment syndrome? education! (5)

A
  1. immobilized fx should not hurt
  2. N/T to extremity / warmth
  3. pain out of proportion
  4. keep clean & dry
  5. report fever or S & S of infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

status post fasciotomy care

A

Negative pressure wound therapy w installation has been used effectively to assist in granulation in acute, subacute, & chronic wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

indications of external fixation (2)

A
  1. fractures w soft tissue damage or wounds
  2. complicated fractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

describe an external fixation - what is happening? (3)

A
  1. surgical pins inserted through skin to bone
  2. metal external frame attached to pins
  3. holds proper alignment (until healed or surgery)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

benefits of external fixation (5)

A
  1. immediate fx stabilization
  2. minimize blood loss (ORIF)
  3. increased comfort
  4. improved wound care
  5. early mobilization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

complications of external fixation (3)

A
  1. pin loosening
  2. infection / osteomyelitis
  3. compartment syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how can nurses help / educate for external fixations (8)

A
  1. pin cleaning - be able to educate patients when they get discharged
  2. altered body image
  3. may need to alter clothing
  4. elevate
  5. cover sharp edges
  6. discuss complications (what to look for)
  7. monitor NV status (24 hours)
  8. may need casting / splint after removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

indications of skeletal traction (5)

A
  1. short term fx management
  2. decrease muscle spasms / pain
  3. fracture w soft tissue damage / wounds
  4. maintain alignment while waiting for surgery
  5. correct / prevent deformities
85
Q

mechanism of action of skeletal traction (3)

A
  1. local anesthesia
  2. traction / countertraction (patients body weight / weight on pullies)
  3. pulling reduces painful muscles spasms
86
Q

what can a client expect during a skeletal traction?

A
  1. pressure / pain during insertion
  2. weights attached to pins / wires
  3. complete bed rest during therapy (trapeze provided (triangle))
  4. adjustment of weights as muscles relax
87
Q

nursing considerations for skeletal traction (7)

A
  1. check through shift & Q8 (NV status / VTE)
  2. pain control
  3. prevent skin breakdown
  4. prevent shearing injuries
  5. PT consult for AROM & PROM
  6. pin care
  7. anxiety reduction
88
Q

complications of skeletal traction (7)

A

*immobility:
- atelectasis / pneumonia
- constipation
- anorexia
- infection
- VTE
- CAUTI (if unable to use trapeze)

89
Q

describe skin traction (bucks) (how & why they are used) (4)

A

used less frequently:
- bucks (lower leg) used most frequently
- short term stabilization w out pins / wires
- weights attached by velcro, tape, straps, boots, or cuffs
- be cautious not to exceed tolerance of skin! (4.5 lb - 8lb per extremity)

90
Q

nursing considerations for skin traction (bucks) (6)

A
  1. inspect area under traction
  2. assess N/V status
  3. encourage AROM
  4. same considerations as skeletal
  5. complications of immobility
  6. simple traction
91
Q

list main differences between skeletal & external fixation (4 for each)

A

skeletal:
- short term fx management
- *pt immobile - weights placed to pins
- weights cannot be removed
- keeps in anatomical alignment until surgery an option
external:
- short term or longer term fx management
- pt mobile - use of crutches & non-weight bearing on affected extremity
- no weights!
- maintains anatomical alignment until surgery an option

92
Q

indications for orthopedic surgery (5)

A
  1. unstable fx
  2. deformity
  3. joint disease (arthroplasty)
  4. necrotic or infected tissue & tumors
  5. amputation
93
Q

goals for orthopedic surgery (5)

A
  1. improve function
  2. restore motion
  3. relieve pain & disability
  4. improve quality of life
  5. safer than most surgeries w rare complications
94
Q

complications of orthopedic surgery (4)

A
  1. blood loss (up to 1,500 ml anticipated)
  2. acute post-op bleeding common
  3. post op anemia
  4. infection
95
Q

arthroplasty indications (3)

A
  1. hip & knee most common
  2. OA, RA, trauma, deformity
  3. avascular necrosis (traumatic injury, steroid usage, alcohol)
96
Q

arthroplasty mechanism of action

A

remove bad & replace w new

97
Q

arthroplasty complications (5)

A
  1. blood loss
  2. infection
  3. robotic surgery
  4. post op knee
  5. post op hip
98
Q

nursing considerations for arthroplasty (4)

A
  1. IV antibiotics 60 mins prior to incision
  2. complications of immobility (VTE prophylaxis, pressure ulcers, pneumonia / atelectasis)
  3. hip: abductor pillow; <90 degrees
  4. knee: knee immobilizer (assess N/V status, pain management, promotion ambulation, home care)
99
Q

what are causes of low back pain associated w musculoskeletal disorders? (5)

A
  1. “awkward movement”
  2. trauma / fall
  3. OA of spine
  4. osteoporosis of vertebrae
  5. scoliosis
100
Q

how will a client w low back pain associated w a musculoskeletal disorder present? (5)

A
  1. acute vs chronic
  2. radiculopathy
  3. sciatica
  4. sharp / stabbing pain
  5. most common: sacral & lumbar
101
Q

diagnostic tests used for musculoskeletal disorders (2)

A
  1. X-ray
  2. CT / MRI
102
Q

meds that can help w chronic musculoskeletal disorders (3)

A
  1. TCA’s (amitriptyline)
  2. SSRIs (duloxetine)
  3. atypical anticonvulsants (gabapentin)
103
Q

what is a complication of a musculoskeletal disorder?

A

loss of bowel or bladder function

104
Q

how can nurses help / educate patients w musculoskeletal disorders? (10)

A
  1. self-limiting w rest
  2. avoid strain
  3. take prescribed medications for acute (short term opioids, muscle relaxants, & possible steroids)
  4. daily pains = NSAIDS
  5. hot / cold
  6. chiropractic care
  7. orthopedic shoes / lumbar support
  8. limit sitting
  9. condition exercises
  10. good posture & body mechanics
105
Q

list NSAIDS used to treat back pain (7)

A
  • Ibuprofen / motrin / naproxen / ASA / aleve
  • Ketorolac
  • tramadol
106
Q

list muscle relaxants used to treat back pain (1)

A

cyclobenzaprine

107
Q

list tricyclic antidepressants / atypical anticonvulsants used to treat back pain (3)

A
  1. amitripyline
  2. duloxetine
  3. Gabapentin
108
Q

list opioids used to treat back pain (2)

A
  1. hydrocodone / acetaminophen (Vicodin or Norco)
  2. oxycodone / acetaminophen (Percocet)
109
Q

what two things work together to protect your bones? describe their specific roles

A

calcium & vitamin D
calcium: helps build & maintain bones
vitamin D: helps body effectively absorb calcium

110
Q

causes of osteoporosis (12)

A
  1. smaller frame
  2. postmenopausal
  3. malnutrition
  4. bariatric surgery
  5. GI malabsorption disorders
  6. immobilization
  7. corticosteroids
  8. medications
  9. tobacco / alcohol use
  10. sedentary lifestyle
  11. reduced calcitonin
  12. reduced estrogen
  13. increased PTH
111
Q

describe osteoporosis (what is happening?)

A

reduced bone mass, deterioration of bone matrix, diminished architectural strength, fracture easily under stress

112
Q

how will a client w osteoporosis present? (5)

A
  1. early = no symptoms
  2. back pain (collapsed vertebra)
  3. loss of height
  4. stooped posture
  5. bones fracturing easily
113
Q

lab & diagnostic tests for osteoporosis (8)

A

diagnostic tests: dexa scan, FRAXX, x-ray
labs: Sertum P & Ca, ALP, urine Ca excretion, hematocrit, ESR

114
Q

list some foods that can help w osteoporosis (5)

A
  1. foods high in Ca
  2. cheese, dairy products, broccoli, canned salmon
  3. dark green leafy veggies
  4. soy products
  5. Ca fortified cereals & OJ
115
Q

complications of osteoporosis (1)

A

fracture management

116
Q

how can nurses help / educate for osteoporosis (7)

A
  1. diet rich in Ca & Vitamin D
  2. peak bone mass “bank it!”
  3. weight bearing exercises
  4. supplements (citrate, vitamin D)
  5. medication therapy
  6. reduce use of caffeine, tobacco, alcohol, & carbonated soft drinks
  7. educate on secondary osteoporosis
117
Q

what main class of drugs is used to treat osteoporosis? list the specific examples

A

Biphosphonates!
- Alendronate: weekly pill
- Risedronate: weekly / monthly pill
- Ibandronate: monthly pill or quarterly IV infusion
- Zoledronic acid: annual infusion

118
Q

which antinoplastic is used to treat osteoporosis?

A

Denosumab

119
Q

which estrogen is used to treat osteoporosis?

A

Raloxifene

120
Q

how long can patients w osteoporosis have opioids?

A

72 hours & follow up w PCP

121
Q

describe osteomalacia - what is happening?

A

Soft & weak skeletal bones (Lower back, pelvis, hips, legs, & ribs)

122
Q

causes of osteomalacia (6)

A
  1. Lack of Vitamin D (sunlight & dietary)
  2. Renal failure
  3. GI disorders (Celiac)
  4. Hyperparathyroidism
  5. Medications
  6. Malnutrition
123
Q

how will a client w osteomalacia present? (6)

A
  1. pain & tenderness to bones (worse when ambulating)
  2. bowing of bones (kyphosis / legs)
  3. waddling gait
  4. possible pathologic fractures
  5. possible steatorrhea (fatty stools)
  6. pain not relieved by rest (as progresses)
124
Q

lab & diagnostic tests for osteomalacia

A
  • X-ray (demineralization)
  • serum Ca / P levels & ALP in the bones
  • urine Ca & creatinine
125
Q

foods that can help w osteomalcia

A
  • same as osteoporosis (rich in vitamin D & Ca)
  • may need vitamin supplements
126
Q

complications of osteomalcia (1)

A

fractures

127
Q

how can nurses help / educate for osteomalacia (6)

A
  1. discuss dietary changes (foods w D & Ca)
  2. supplements for liver / kidney issues
  3. sunlight therapy
  4. braces may help w pain / deformity
  5. educate on S & S of fracture
  6. safety to prevent fractures
128
Q

the process of activation of vitamin D occurs in which two organs?

A

the liver & kidney

129
Q

describe osteomyelitis

A

bone infection

130
Q

causes of osteomyelitis (5)

A
  1. bloodstream (often staph)
  2. nearby tissue infection
  3. open fractures / ORIF (open reduction internal fixation)
  4. complicated DM
  5. immunocompromised / poor circulation
131
Q

how will a client present w osteomyelitis? (5)

A
  1. may be asymptomatic
  2. VS changes (fever, tachycardia)
  3. swelling, warmth, & redness over area
  4. pain to affected area
  5. fatigue
132
Q

lab & diagnostic tests for osteomyelitis

A

labs: CBC & blood cultures to identify pathogen causing infection
- CT / MRI
- ESR (elevated sedimentation rate) - marker of inflammation

133
Q

meds that can help treat osteomyelitis (2)
how long should a patient be on these meds?

A
  1. strong IV antibiotics
  2. oral antibiotics
    longer term (3-6 weeks) for both
134
Q

acute interventions for osteomyelitis (3)

A
  1. surgery (remove areas of dead bone)
  2. ORIF reversal or treatment
  3. strong IV antibiotics
135
Q

complications of osteomyelitis (3)

A
  1. avascular necrosis (osteonecrosis) - death of bone due to lack of blood supply
  2. amputation
  3. sepsis = death
136
Q

how can nurses help / educate for osteomyelitis? (9)

A
  1. smoking cessation
  2. safety
  3. monitor for worsening infection (discuss S & S)
  4. prolong elective orthopedic surgery if needed
  5. remove urinary catheters ASAP
  6. aseptic postop wound care
  7. prompt management of soft tissue infections like cellulitis
  8. at home wound care
  9. clients w DM - inspect feet daily
137
Q

joint dislocation - describe

A
  • joint not longer in anatomic alignment
138
Q

sublazation

A

partial joint dislocation

139
Q

when is a joint dislocation considered an orthopedic emergency?

A

trauma dislocations

140
Q

complications of joint dislocations (2)

A
  • avascular necrosis = without blood supply
  • check NV status immediately
141
Q

acute interventions for joint dislocations (2)

A
  • X-ray
  • immobilize joint & reduce joint (may need sedation or heavy pain meds (fentanyl); INFORMED CONSENT
142
Q

nursing considerations & education for joint dislocations (2)

A
  1. NV assessment
  2. Discuss exercises; PRICE (protection, rest, ice, compress, elevate)
143
Q

causes of fractures (3)

A
  1. direct blows
  2. crushing forces
  3. sudden twisting motion
144
Q

how will the client present w a fracture? (4)

A
  1. pain w movement (lessened when immobilized)
  2. muscle spasm
  3. deformity (often)
  4. possible ecchymosis & edema at site
145
Q

diagnostic tests for fractures (2)

A
  1. X-ray
  2. CT (extensive soft tissue damage)
146
Q

acute interventions for fractures (1) describe difference between interventions for open vs. closed fractures

A
  1. NV assessment!! priority
  2. open: cover w saline gauge; prepare for surgery
    closed: reduction & immobilization (conscious sedation; informed consent)
147
Q

complications of fractures (9)

A
  1. complicated fracture (ORIF / external fixation or skeletal traction (for hips & femurs))
  2. avascular necrosis - death of joint
  3. Osteomyelitis - worried esp w open fractures!
  4. hemorrhage - commonly seen w pelvic fractures
  5. fat embolus (femur)
  6. compartment syndrome
  7. VTE
  8. DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation; bled too much & body used up all clotting factors)
  9. nonunion: cannot get back into anatomical alignment
    malunion: not healing exactly like it should
148
Q

how can nurses help / educate for fractures (8)

A
  1. discuss conscious sedation for reduction
  2. aid in immobilization
  3. discuss splitting & casting
  4. PRICE - protect, rest, ice, compress, elevate
  5. NV assessment
  6. pain control
  7. monitor for complications
  8. discuss home care & follow up
149
Q

describe a hematoma block procedure

A

lidocaine needle is placed directly into the fracture to block it & make it go numb in order to splint it
aspirate before injecting lidocaine

150
Q

causes of pelvic fractures (2)

A
  1. falls from great height; crush injuries
  2. MVA; vehicle vs pedestrian
151
Q

how will the client present w a pelvic fracture? (5)

A
  1. ecchymosis & tenderness to A & P pelvis
  2. bruising will happening immediately due to bleeding
  3. number 1 priority is hemorrhage due to many arteries & veins being disrupted in that area!*
  4. edema & N/T to pubis, genitals, & thighs
  5. pain when weight bearing
152
Q

lab & diagnostic tests for pelvic fractures (2)

A
  1. CT
  2. CBC
153
Q

acute interventions for pelvic fractures (2)

A
  1. Immobilize = surgery
  2. blood transfusion if severe enough
154
Q

complications of pelvic fractures (4)

A
  1. severe back pain (retroperitoneal bleed) - behind kidneys
  2. hemorrhage (open book; rock pelvis)
  3. fat emboli
  4. NV compromise to lower extremities
155
Q

nursing considerations for pelvic fractures (5)

A
  1. stable vs unstable
  2. monitor w best rest & assess for complications of immobility
  3. painful to sit / defecate = sitz baths, stool softener
  4. early mobilization; rehab for full weight bearing in 3 months
  5. monitor for paralytic ileus (will not hear bowel sounds!!)
156
Q

causes of hip fractures

A

falls!

157
Q

how will the client present w a hip fracture? (2)

A
  1. affected leg shortened w external or internal rotation of foot
  2. pain in hip / groin / knee (upon slightest movement)
158
Q

diagnostic tests for hip fractures (2)

A

X-ray (CT if worried about more damage)

159
Q

acute interventions for hip fractures (2)

A
  1. Immobilize
  2. surgery (within 24 hours)
160
Q

complications of hip fractures

A

avascular necrosis

161
Q

nursing considerations for hip fractures (6)

A
  1. standard post op care
  2. complications of immobility
  3. abductor pillow; less than 90 degrees; elevated toilet seat
  4. ambulate first day post-op (in most cases)
  5. LTCF / rehab on floor / rehab at home w PT consult
  6. delirium in older adults due to pain & blood loss
162
Q

causes of femur fractures

A

MVA (motor vehicle accident)

163
Q

how will the client present w a femur fracture?

A

edema, deformity, & pain to the thigh / knee

164
Q

lab & diagnostic tests used for femur fractures (2)

A
  1. doppler US & X-ray
  2. CBC
165
Q

acute interventions for femur fractures (3)

A
  1. immobilize!
  2. assess NV function to extremity
  3. skeletal traction = surgery
166
Q

complications of femur fractures (3)

A
  1. hemorrhagic shock
  2. compartment syndrome
  3. ** fat emboli - most common cause is a femur fracture**
167
Q

what is the most common cause of fat emboli?

A

a femur fracture

168
Q

nursing considerations for femur fractures (2)

A
  1. same as general post op
  2. may take up to 6 months to walk (intensive PT)
169
Q

causes of fat embolism syndrome (2)

A
  1. orthopedic trauma
  2. rare: bone marrow transplant, osteomyelitis
170
Q

fat embolism syndrome - what is happening?

A
  • Fat embolic enter into the microcirculation
  • Induce SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome) = pulmonary, cutaneous, neurological, retinal symptoms
171
Q

how will a client present w fat embolism syndrome? (5)

A
  1. altered mental status (early)
  2. tachypnea, tachycardia, & fever
  3. petechial rash (round spots that occur on the skin as a result of bleeding)
  4. respiratory depression (75%) - mild to ARDS to mechanical ventilation
  5. common systemic: respiratory distress, altered mental status, & rash
172
Q

treatment of fat embolism syndrome (3)

A
  1. largely supportive
  2. fix long bone fractures early = decreases likelihood of developing FES (0.9% - 11%)
  3. corticosteroids? not used as much
173
Q

nursing considerations for fat embolism syndrome (5)

A
  1. can occur when manipulating fractures
  2. monitor for hypoxemia
  3. GCS to assess for LOC (should be 15!) - eye opening, verbal response, motor response
  4. petechial rash is transient (up to 24 hours)
  5. supportive care - monitor for ARDS (respiratory distress)
174
Q

causes of amputations (3)

A
  1. diseases (vascular, DM, osteomyelitis) - destroys blood supply to visceral extremities
  2. injuries
  3. surgery to remove tumors
175
Q

levels of amputations (4)
- performed at most ___ post to allow for healing
- based on ____ _______ of limb
- goal?
- preservation of ____

A
  1. performed at most distal point to allow for healing
  2. based on circulatory status of limb
  3. Goal = achieve good prosthetic fit
  4. preservation of joints desirable (knee / elbow)
176
Q

complications of amputations (4)

A
  1. hemorrhage
  2. infection
  3. joint contracture
  4. phantom limb pain (body does not realize that the limb is gone)
177
Q

nursing focus & education of amputations (7)

A
  1. rigid cast dressing = uniform compression & residual limb shaping
  2. Rehab team = nurse, social worker, doctor, PT / OT, psychologist, & prosthetist
  3. pain
    - surgical = opioids
    - changing positions / sandbag to residual limb for painful muscle spasms
    - phantom limb therapies: mirror, massage, acpunture, VR
    - beta blockers (metoprolol): may relieve burning dull discomfort
    - anticonvulsants (gabapentin)
    - TCAs (amitriptyline) - helps w mood as well
  4. promotion of wound healing
  5. enhancing body image
  6. coping / grief
  7. helping patient achieve mobility & independent care
    - prone positioning to prevent hip / knee joint contracture
    - prone 20-30 minutes TID to avoid contractures (helps to stretch flexor muscle to reduce pain)
178
Q

causes of rheumatoid arthritis (3)
- what is it?
- risk factors

A
  1. chronic inflammatory disorder
  2. autoimmune w unknown etiology
  3. risk factors = smoking, genetics, viral or bacterial illness
179
Q

what is happening in rheumatoid arthritis? (5)

A
  • immune system attacks synovial lining of joints
  • begins in distal joints (fingers & toes)
  • inflammation thickens synovium destroying or eroding joint (Pannus formation) - destroyed joints that become deformed
  • tendons & ligaments weaken & stretch
  • lose joint mobility & use of joints
180
Q

which meds are used to treat amputations? (3)

A
  1. beta blockers (metoprolol): may relieve burning dull discomfort
  2. anticonvulsants (gabapentin)
  3. TCAs (amitriptyline) - helps w mood as well
181
Q

Pannus formation
- describe & when it commonly occurs

A

destroyed joints become deformed (often occurs in Rheumatoid arthritis)

182
Q

how will a client w rheumatoid arthritis present? (3)

A
  • tender, warm, swollen, & erythemic joints (bilateral & symmetric)
  • joint stiffness worse in mornings & after inactivity
  • fatigue, fever, & loss of appetite
183
Q

lab & diagnostic tests used for rheumatoid arthritis (3)

A
  • arthrocentesis - removal of fluid in joint (aspirated w needle)
  • CT
  • CBC, ESR (elevated sedimentation rate or inflammatory markers), CRP, rheumatoid factor
184
Q

meds that can help w rheumatoid arthritis (4)

A
  1. ***DMARDS - disease modifying antirheumatic drug
    nonbiologic (methotrexate): bad side effects (liver & kidney diseases), need blood tests done annually
    biologic (adalimumab): have to fail the nonbiologic treatment first in order for insurance to pay for the biologic
  2. NSAIDS (ibuprofen, naproxyn)
  3. Cox-2 (celecoxib)
  4. corticosteroids (prednisone) - acute flare ups & pain
185
Q

which meds should be avoided for rheumatoid arthritis? why?

A

opioids - only used for acute conditions!!

186
Q

complications of rheumatoid arthritis (4)

A
  1. CVD
  2. medication toxicity (methotrexate)
  3. damage to skin, eyes, lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, nerve tissue, salivary glands & bone marrow
  4. deformity of hands & feet
187
Q

how can nurses help / educate patients w rheumatoid arthritis? (7)

A
  1. aggressive treatment early!
  2. goals = decrease joint pain & swelling, prevent joint damage & minimize disability
  3. exercise (discuss complications of immobility on joints)
  4. non pharm methods (relaxation, heat / cold)
  5. Tai Chi / yoga (improves mood & quality of life, gentle stretching, keeps mobility for as long as possible)
  6. complementary alternative medicine (CAM) - fish oils / plant oils
  7. weight management (less pressure being put on joints = decreases pain & increases mobility)
188
Q

causes of osteoarthritis (5)

A
  1. *noninflammatory joint destruction
  2. end result of autoimmune disorder
  3. obesity
  4. laborious occupations & sports
  5. genetic predisposition
189
Q

describe osteoarthritis - what is happening? (6)

A
  • Breakdown of articular cartilage
  • Progressive damage to underlying bone
  • Narrowing of joint space
  • Joint movement limited
  • Pain & damage
  • Progressive joint degeneration
190
Q

how will a client w osteoarthritis present? (5)

A
  1. Pain, stiffness, & functional impairment
  2. Joint pain aggravated by movement / exercise (Relieved by rest)
  3. Morning stiffness
  4. Decreased ROM in affected joint
  5. Crepitus over knee or grating sensation (may feel like bubbles under their skin)
191
Q

lab & diagnostic tests for osteoarthritis (2)

A
  1. X-ray or MRI
  2. blood test to rule out RA
192
Q

meds that can help osteoarthritis (6)

A
  1. NSAIDS (ibuprofen, naproxen)
  2. Cox-2 (celecoxib)
  3. intra-articular corticosteroids
  4. acetaminophen
  5. Diclofenac
  6. Glucosamine & chondroitin
193
Q

complications of osteoarthritis (3)

A
  1. depression & sleep disturbances
  2. difficulty w ADL’s
  3. need for arthroplasty (joint replacement)
194
Q

how can nurses help / educate for osteoarthritis? (6)

A
  1. exercise & lower extremity strength training
  2. weight loss
  3. OT / PT
  4. splints / braces or walking aids
  5. CAM therapies
  6. heat / cold
195
Q

causes of gout (4)

A
  1. high levels of uric acid in blood (fructose-rich beverages like pop, alcohol consumption - esp beer)
  2. age, BMI
  3. HTN meds (beta blocker, ACEIS, ARBs except losartan)
  4. thiazide diuretics
196
Q

describe gout - what is happening? (4)

A
  1. hyperuricemia
  2. macrophages in joint space phagocyte urate
  3. macrophages become crystalized (crystals are sharp & needle-like)
  4. deposits in peripheral areas (great toe, hands & ear)
197
Q

how will a client w gout present? (4)

A
  1. arthritis
  2. sudden & severe attacks of pain
  3. pain, swelling, & tenderness (great toe, knee or ankle)
  4. limited ROM
198
Q

labs & diagnostic tests for gout (2)

A
  1. joint fluid analysis (uric acid will show up)
  2. x-ray / dual energy CT scan
199
Q

meds that can help gout (list ones for both acute attacks & management)

A

acute attacks: Colchicine, NSAIDs, corticosteroids
management: Xanthines (allopurinol) & uricosurines (probenecid)

200
Q

complications of gout (2)

A
  1. Tophi - deformity in joint due to huge deposits of hardened crystals
  2. kidney stones
201
Q

Tophi - describe
what is this a complication of?

A

deformity in joint due to huge deposits of hardened crystals (complication of gout)

202
Q

how can nurses help / educate for gout? (8)

A
  1. Eat foods low in purines / avoid high purine diet
  2. Coffee, vitamin C, & cherries (reduce uric acid levels)
  3. Lifestyle changes
  4. Weight loss
  5. Decrease alcohol intake
  6. Avoid certain meds (thiazides)
  7. Medication compliance
  8. Avoid trauma / stress
203
Q

causes of fibromyalgia (2)
triggers?

A
  1. unknown
  2. triggers: genetics, anxiety, depression, physical / emotional trauma, infection
204
Q

what is happening in fibromyalgia?

A

Amplified pain d/t CNS abnormally amplifying pain signals
- considered more of a psychological disorder

205
Q

how will a client w fibromyalgia present? (4)

A
  1. Bil widespread pain (dull ache x 3 months)
  2. Fatigue (restless leg / sleep apnea)
  3. Cognitive difficulties (fibro fog)
  4. Other conditions usually co-exist
206
Q

lab & diagnostic tests used for fibromyalgia

A

no diagnostic / labs (may rule out other conditions)!

207
Q

meds that can help w fibromyalgia (5) which meds cannot be given?

A
  1. NSAIDS / acetaminophen
  2. TCA’s
  3. muscle relaxants
  4. SNRIs / SSRIs
  5. anticonvulsants
    no opioids!!
208
Q

how can nurses help patients w fibromyalgia? (6)

A
  1. CAM / exercise therapy (yoga / tai chi)
  2. CBT (cognitive behavioral therapy)
  3. sleep hygiene
  4. support groups
  5. stress reduction
  6. provide education on pharm / non pharm methods

Adults Exam 4 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions