Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Foundations of Clinical Medicine > Musculoskeletal Radiology > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Radiology Flashcards

1
Q

How many and what type of views do you order for conventional radiographs of bone?

A

At least 2 views at 90degree angle to each other (orthogonal views)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If a trauma patient comes to see you, what is the first thing that you do?

A

Stabilize the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the dense portion of the bone?

A

The outer cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the less dense portion of the bone?

A

The inner medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is cancellous/trabecular bone located?

A

The medullary cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the cortex appear in radiographs?

A

A smooth white shell, dense white band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the medullar cavity appear in radiographs?

A

A core of gray material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What views would you order for a sternoclavicular injury?

A

PA and oblique of the manubrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What views would you order for a rib injury?

A

PA and oblique CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What views would you order for a thoracic spine injury?

A

AP and lateral C7-L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What views would you order for a lumbar spine injury?

A

AP and lateral T11-distal sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What view would you order for a pelvis injury?

A

AP from L5/pelvic girdle - greater trochanter of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What views would you order for an acetabulum injury?

A

Upside and downside (Judet method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What views would you order for a femur injury?

A

AP and lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What views could you order for a patella injury?

A

PA, lateral, oblique, or “sunrise”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How does the physis appear on a radiograph?

A

Dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What defines a dislocation?

A

Bones that used to form a joint are no longer in apposition to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What defines a subluxation?

A

Bones that used to form a joint are in partial contact with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define a complete fracture.

A

Broken completely through the cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define an incomplete fracture.

A

Only a part of the cortex is fractured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do fracture lines appear in a radiograph?

A

Blacker, more lucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a posterior “sail sign” suggest?

A

An occult fracture of the humerus near the elbow joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does an anterior “sail sign” suggest?

A

It’s normal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where and how do pathologic fractures occur?

A

In bone with a preexisting abnormality with minimum or no trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a local cause of pathologic fracture?

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a diffuse cause of pathologic fracture?

A

Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where are pathologic fractures most common?

A

Ribs
Spine
Proximal appendicular skeleton (humerus, femur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How will pathologic fractures present in radiographs?

A

Bone surrounding the fracture will be abnormally dense (radiopaque)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How would you treat a pathologic fracture?

A

Treat the underlying condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What 4 descriptors are used when referring to fractures?

A

Number
Direction of line
Relationship of fragments to each other
Communication with outside environment

31
Q

Define a simple fracture.

A

Two fragments

32
Q

Define a comminuted fracture.

A

> 2 fragments

33
Q

What is a segmental fracture?

A

A portion of the shaft is an isolated fragment.

34
Q

What is a butterfly fragment?

A

A central fragment that has a triangular shape.

35
Q

A force was applied perpendicular to the long axis of a bone, and a fracture occurred at the point of impact. What direction is the fracture line?

A

Transverse

36
Q

A force was applied to the long axis of bone, and a fracture occurred somewhere along the shaft. What direction is the fracture line?

A

Diagonal/Oblique

37
Q

A twisting or torque injury occurred. What direction is the fracture line?

A

Spiral

38
Q

In what population are spiral fractures most common?

A

Kids

39
Q

What term does this describe: “The amount by which the distal fragment is offset”

A

Displacement

40
Q

What term does this describe: “The angle between the distal and proximal fragments”

A

Angulation

41
Q

What term does this describe: “How much, if any, overlap there is of the ends of the fracture fragments”

A

Shortening

42
Q

What is the most common type of fracture: Closed or Compound/Open?

A

Closed

43
Q

What communication does a closed fracture have with the outside environment?

A

No communication

44
Q

What implications must be addressed by deeming a fracture closed or open?

A

The way the fracture is treated in order to avoid osteomyelitis

45
Q

What type of fracture involves only one part of the cortex?

A

Greenstick fracture

46
Q

In what population are Greenstick fractures most common?

A

Kids

47
Q

What type of fracture is caused by longitudinal compression of the soft bone, characterized by localized bulging?

A

Torus/buckle fracture

48
Q

What type of fracture occurs when a fragment is pulled from its parent bone by contraction of a tendon/ligament?

A

Avulsion fracture

49
Q

What is a Type I Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Straight across

50
Q

What is a Type II Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Above, in the metaphysis

51
Q

What is a Type III Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Lower, in the epiphysis

52
Q

What is a Type IV Salter-Harris fracture?

A

Two/Through, in the metaphysis and epiphysis

53
Q

What is a Type V Salter-Harris fracture?

A

ERasure of the growth plate

54
Q

What type of fracture involves a dorsal angulation of the distal radial fracture fragment?

A

Colle’s fracture

55
Q

What causes a Colle’s fracture, and what is an associated fracture?

A

FOOSH

Fracture of the ulnar styloid

56
Q

What fracture involves a palmar angulation of the distal radial fragment?

A

Smith’s fracture

57
Q

What causes a Smith’s fracture?

A

A fall on the back of a flexed hand

58
Q

What type of fracture involves a fracture of the head of the 5th metacarpal with palmar angulation of the distal fragment?

A

Boxer’s fracture

59
Q

What type of fracture is characterized by tenderness int he anatomic snuffbox?

A

Scaphoid fracture

60
Q

What type of fracture involves a fracture of the radius (dorsal angulation) with shortening and dislocation of the distal ulna?

A

Galeazzi fracture

61
Q

What causes a Galeazzi fracture?

A

FOOSH with elbow flexed

62
Q

What type of fracture involves anterior dislocation of radial head with dorsally angulated ulna fracture?

A

Monteggia fracture

63
Q

What causes a Monteggia fracture?

A

Direct blow to the forearm

64
Q

What is the most common fracture of the elbow in a child?

A

Supracondylar fracture of distal humerus

65
Q

What characteristics are produced by a supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus?

A

Posterior displacement of distal humerus

Anterior humeral line (in lateral view)

66
Q

What type of fracture is a transverse fracture of the 5th metatarsal near the base?

A

Jones fracture

67
Q

What causes a Jones fracture?

A

Plantar flexion of the foot and inversion of the ankle

68
Q

What type of fracture is caused by repeated microfractures to the foot from trauma?

A

March fracture

69
Q

What bones are affected by a March fracture?

A

Most often the shafts of the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals

70
Q

What fracture is frequently related to osteoporosis?

A

Hip fracture

71
Q

What view do you order when suspecting a hip fracture?

A

Radiograph of femoral neck with leg internally rotated

72
Q

What fracture involves the tarsometatarsal joint?

A

Lisfranc fracture

73
Q

What causes a Lisfranc fracture?

A

Excessively loading the mid-foot

Foundations of Clinical Medicine (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions