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Foundations of Clinical Medicine > Foundations: Infectious Disease 1 > Flashcards

Foundations: Infectious Disease 1 Flashcards

0
Q

What is a primary pathogen?

A

One capable of causing disease in a normal host

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1
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

Any microorganism that is capable of causing disease in a susceptible host

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2
Q

What is an opportunist pathogen?

A

One that primarily causes disease in immunocompromised individuals

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3
Q

What is bacteria?

A

Single cell organisms that lack membrane-enclosed organelles

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4
Q

What color do gram+ bacteria turn in a gram stain and why?

A

Purple due to lack of lipopolysaccharide layer and exposed peptidoglycan layer

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5
Q

What color do gram- bacteria turn in a gram stain and why?

A

Pink due to outer lipopolysaccharide layer

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6
Q

What color do Mycobacteria or Nocardia turn during an acid-fast stain and why?

A

They turn red due to the high content of mycolic acid in their cell walls

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7
Q

What purpose does mycolic acid serve?

A

Impedes entry of chemicals and lysosomal components of phagocytes
Fewer and much longer porins
Surface proteins act as adhesins

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8
Q

What do spiral bacteria tend to cause?

A

Systemic diseases

Treponemes, Borrelias, Leptospiras

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9
Q

What do pathogenic filamentous bacteria tend to cause?

A

Chronic diseases

Actinomyces, Nocardia, Mycobacteria

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10
Q

What are two examples of Gram + bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus (skin)

Streptococcus (skin and pneumonia)

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11
Q

What are internal (endogenous) pyrogens?

A

Cytokine factors that migrate to circumventricular organs of brain to active toll-like receptors

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12
Q

What are the major endogenous pyrogens?

A

IL-1
IL-6
TNF-alpha

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13
Q

What are exogenous pyrogens?

A

Usually microbes or their products

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14
Q

Describe a capsule.

A 
Outside of the cell wall
Difficult to remove
Prevents phagocytosis
Helps bacteria adhere to surfaces
Most common in gram- bacteria
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15
Q

Describe the slime layer.

A

Outside of the cell wall
Easily removed
Protects bacteria from environmental dangers
Helps bacteria adhere to surfaces

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16
Q

Describe antigenic variation.

A

Expression of various alternative forms of antigen/surface proteins in order to evade a host immune response

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17
Q

What do anaerobes cause?

A

Abscesses

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18
Q

What are 2 examples of obligate aerobes?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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19
Q

What are Microaerphiles?

A

Bacteria that require oxygen in another inorganic form, like CO2

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20
Q

What are 3 examples of Microaerphiles?

A

Neisseria gonorrheae
Neisseria meningitidis
Helicobacter pylori

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21
Q

What is an example of a slow growing bacterium, and what do they tend to cause?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

chronic infections

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22
Q

What is an example of a rapid growing bacterium?

A

Vibrio vulnificus (from uncooked seafood)

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23
Q

What are the phases of bacterial growth?

A

Lag phase
Exponential growth phase
Stationary phase
Death phase

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24
Q

What happens during the lag phase?

A

Bacteria are adjusting to the environment

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25
Q

What happens during stationary phase?

A

The death rate is about equivalent to the growth rate

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26
Q

What is an example of a bacterium with a long stationary phase?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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27
Q

What is an example of a bacterium with a short stationary phase?

A

Vibrio vulnificus

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28
Q

What is an example of an obligate intracellular bacterium?

A

Rickettsia (causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever)

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29
Q

What is an example of an extracellular bacterium?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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30
Q

What are 2 examples of bacteria with antigenic variation?

A

Neiseria meningitidis

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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31
Q

What does it mean for a bacterium to have phase variation?

A

The phenotype switch is usually reversible

“on/off switch”

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32
Q

What happens during Transcription?

A

RNA strand synthesized from DNA template

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33
Q

What happens during Translation?

A

Conversion of mRNA sequence to amino acid sequence

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34
Q

What is a Transition point mutation?

A

purine to purine (A&G)

pyrimidine to pyrimidine (C&T)

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35
Q

What is a Transversion point mutation?

A

purine to pyrimidine or vice versa

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36
Q

What are the 4 types of gene transfers?

A

Conjugation
Transformation
Transduction
Transposition

37
Q

Describe Conjugation.

A

Mediated by F plasmid. One cell extends its pilus to another cell to share the F plasmid between cells.

38
Q

What can result from Conjugation?

A

Shared DNA

Resistance to antibiotics, immune system

39
Q

Describes Transformation.

A

A recipient cell takes up free floating DNA fragments, which enter the cell as exogenous DNA and are incorporated into host cell’s chromosome via recombination

40
Q

Describe Transduction.

A

Bacteriophages attach to the bacterial wall to inject infective DNA particles to transfer resistant genes

41
Q

Describe Transposition.

A

A transposon induces spontaneous mutations and promotes genome rearrangements to regulate gene expression… spreads traits like antibiotic resistance

42
Q

What are some characteristics of viruses?

A 
No cells
not alive
DNA/RNA coated in protein
no ribosomes
no nucleus
43
Q

What traits differ in bacteria?

A

Unicellular
DNA/RNA free floating
ribosomes

44
Q

Describe vertical transmission of viruses.

A

Transmitted mother to child.

45
Q

Describe horizontal transmission of viruses.

A

Transmission between members of the same species that are not in a parent-child relationship.

46
Q

How are viruses mainly classified?

A

By phonotypic characteristics

47
Q

How does the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses classify viruses?

A

Order, Family, Subfamily, Genus, Species

48
Q

How does the Baltimore Classification classify viruses?

A

Nucleic acid combination
Stranded-ness
Sense
Method of replication

49
Q

What are the steps of viral replication?

A 
Attachment/adsorption
Penetration
Uncoating
Viral genome replication
Maturation
Release (lysis, budding)
50
Q

Discuss some characteristics of fungi.

A 
Nuclei with chromosomes
Heterotrophic (no photosynthesis)
Osmotrophic (absorb food)
Develop hyphae
Reproduce by spores
51
Q

What are some principal manifestations of fungal disease?

A

Dermatophytosis (skin)
Onychomycosis (nail)
Coccidioidomycoses (systemic)
Mycotoxicoses (poisoning)

52
Q

Define Morbidity.

A

Relative incidence of a particular disease in a specific locality.

53
Q

Define Mortality.

A

Number of deaths in a population at risk during one year.

54
Q

Define Prevalence.

A

The number of people in a population who have a disease at a given time.

55
Q

Define Incidence.

A

Probability of developing a particular disease during a given period of time.

56
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

When new cases of a disease exceed what is expected based on recent experience.

57
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

An epidemic that spreads to other countries or continents and affects a substantial number of people

58
Q

What are some examples of past pandemics?

A 
Cholera
Influenza
Measles
Tuberculosis
Malaria
Typhus
59
Q

How would you describe a disease that occurs among family members, usually by heredity?

A

Familial

60
Q

What is a “healthy carrier”?

A

One that carries the infection but never gets infected

61
Q

What is a “convalescent carrier”?

A

A carrier that is recovering from the disease

62
Q

What is a “temporary carrier”?

A

Only carries it for less than 6 months

63
Q

What is a “chronic carrier”?

A

A carrier that carries the disease for several years or for the rest of their life

64
Q

What are commensal microbes?

A

Microbes that live with the host in complete harmony without causing damage.

65
Q

What is an opportunistic pathogen?

A

A pathogen that is usually safe but can become dangerous when the host’s immunity is lowered

66
Q

What are 2 examples of opportunistic pathogens?

A

Herpes zoster

C diff

67
Q

What is a way to prevent opportunistic pathogens from causing disease?

A

Treat with probiotics like acidophilus

68
Q

What is a zoonoses?

A

An infectious disease transmitted between species

69
Q

What are some examples of zoonoses?

A 
Rabies
Cholera
Ebola
HIV
Cat Scratch Disease (Bartonellosis)
Salmonellosis
Rotavirus
70
Q

What is an example of a bacterial zoonoses?

A

Bacillus anthracis (inhalation/ingestion of bacterial spores)

71
Q

What is an example of a viral zoonoses?

A

Rabies (Rhabdovirus via virus-laden saliva during a bite or scratch)

72
Q

What is an example of a protozoal zoonoses?

A

Toxoplasmosis gondii (ingestion of raw/undercooked meat, fecal-oral)

73
Q

What is an example of a helminthic zoonoses?

A

Trichinella spiralis (an intestinal nematode from ingesting undercooked meat)

74
Q

What is an example of a fungal zoonoses?

A

Ringworm (tinea capitis, athlete’s foot or jock itch)

75
Q

What is a primary infection?

A

Exposure to the pathogen for the first time

76
Q

What is a reinfection?

A

Exposure to the same pathogen for the second or many times

77
Q

What is a secondary infection?

A

Infected by one pathogen
Immunity lowered
Invasion by another pathogen

78
Q

What is an iatrogenic infection?

A

Caused by a medical examination or treatment

79
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

Caused by a hospital environment

80
Q

What percentage of American hospital patients acquire a nosocomial infection?

A

About 10%

81
Q

What is an endogenous infection?

A

When a commensal enters places where it should not be

82
Q

What is an example of an endogenous infection?

A

E. coli to the urinary tract causing a UTI

83
Q

What is an exogenous infection?

A

When a pathogen comes from another source

84
Q

When is an infection inapparent?

A

When the individual is asymptomatic

85
Q

When is an infection atypical?

A

When it presents with different symptoms or concurrently with another disorder

86
Q

What is a latent period?

A

When a pathogen is capable of causing disease at a later date but is currently dormant in the host

87
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

Presence of bacteria in the blood

88
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Bacteremia associated with an inflammatory response (endocarditis)

89
Q

What kind of receptors does gut flora have?

A

Toll-like receptors to activate the immune system (macrophages)

Foundations of Clinical Medicine (5 decks)

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