Musculoskeletal / Orthopedic Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

valgus stress test (knee)

abnormality in what condition?

A

outward pressure on medial leg with a fixed femur

if MCL is injured, pt will show excessive knee joint widening on valgus stress

(MCL protects against valgus stress + excess external tibial rotation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

serratus anterior

functions (origin, insertion)

A

facilitates arm elevation by pulling lower end of scapula forward

helps with respiration by lifting ribs when shoulder girdle is fixed

(ribs 1-8 to medial scapular border)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Conditions associated with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (5)

A

Pregnancy - fluid accumulation

RA - tendon inflammation

Hypothyroidism - GAG buildup

Diabetes Mellitus - CT thickening

Long-Term Dialysis - dialysis-associated amyloidosis > buildup of beta2-microglobulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Signs + sx in carpal tunnel

1 symptom group, 3 signs

A

Median nerve distribution pain/paresthesia/sensory impairment (lateral 3.5 digits palmar surface)

motor weakness of thumb abduction/opposition with THENAR ATROPHY

Tinel sign - tapping flexor surface of wrist invokes sx

Phalen sign - flexion of wrist invokes sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

S/S

(msk issues plus 3 extraskeletal issues)

A

Low back pain - onset slow + <40 yrs; improves with exercise; worse at night; also HIP + BUTT pain

Enthesitis - where tendon meets bone

Systemic - fever, chills, fatigue, weight loss

  1. Limited chest wall expansion - causes hypoventilation; must monitor!
  2. Acute anterior uveitis - unilateral pain, photophobia and blurry vision
  3. Ascending aortitis - dilation with aortic insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Friederich Ataxia

inheritance + gene? Musculoskeletal issues? Other issues (3)?

A

AR mutation of frataxin (FXN) - increased GAA repeats > decreased expression of mitochondrial protein for iron-sulfur enzyme assembly > decreased energy production + increased oxidative stress

Spinocerebellar and lateral corticospinal degeneration - gait ataxia + spastic weakness

Kyphoscoliosis + high plantar arches (pes cavus)

Dorsal column/DRG degeneration - position/vibration loss

Heart - HCM and CHF

Diabetes Mellitus - in 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

inheritance? pathogenesis? s/s?

differential?

A

AD - demyelination of peripheral nerves via a mutated myelin protein gene

distal leg weakness/atrophy + sensory deficits
kyphoscoliosis + high plantar arch (pes cavus)

specific foot dorsiflexion weakness via COMMON PERONEAL NERVE involvement

differential for Friedreich ataxia - C-M-T disease does NOT have heart involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

causes? pain? labs?

A

trauma, sepsis, drugs (statin, alcohol, cocaine) and overexertion

myalgia in proximal mm., lower back + calves

high CK, AKI and electrolyte issues (HYPERkalemia/-phosphatemia, HYPOcalcemia, metabolic acidosis)

heme from myoglobin causes ATN with GRANULAR BROWN CASTS

false-positive dipstick for blood, no RBCs in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Scaphoid fracture

location? cause? s/s?

complication?

A

Scaphoid - proximal row, radial-most carpal

Cause - fall onto outstretched hand; direct axial compression or wrist hyperextension

S/s - wrist pain in ANATOMICAL SNUFFBOX (EPL + APL/EPB tendons)

Complication - AVASCULAR NECROSIS with NONUNION

(fracture creates 2 fragments > dorsal scaphoid branch of radial a. enters distal fragment + runs retrograde to proximal fragment, which may necrotize when connection is disrupted)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteonecrosis of femoral head

How? What artery?

A

femoral neck fracture can injure the MEDIAL CIRCUMFLEX ARTERY (from deep femoral a.) which gives most of the head its blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Trendelenburg gait?

What is an iatrogenic cause of it?

A

When abductors (glut med/min) are weak on one side, there will be contralateral hip drop when the contralateral foot is lifted while walking.

IM injection in the buttock can paralyze the SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE (L4-S1, suprapiriform hiatus) if done into the SUPEROMEDIAL quadrant of the buttock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How should IM injections to the butt be done?

To avoid what?

A

In the ANTEROLATERAL gluteal area (von Hochstetter triangle)

Put PALM ON GREATER TROCHANTER and INDEX FINGER ON ASIS … spread middle finger out and triangle is btwn index and middle finger

to avoid nerve damage to gluteal or sciatic nerves (SUPERIOR GLUTEAL N. –> trendelenburg gait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osteoarthritis vs. RA

age? joints? morning sx? systemic sx? examination

A

age:
OA = >40
RA = 40-60, but often younger

joints:
OA = Knees, Hips, DIP, 1st CMC
RA = MCP, PIP, wrist

morning stiffness:
OA = none or <30 min
RA = prolonged

systemic sx:
OA = none
RA = fever, fatigue, weight loss

examination:
OA = hard, bony joint enlargement
RA = soft, spongy, warm joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heberden and Bouchard nodes in OA

what are they?

A

DIP enlargement - Heberden
PIP enlargement - Bouchard

via osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

what is it? cause?

A

overuse injury of the SECONDARY OSSIFICATION CENTER of the TIBIA

REPETITIVE QUAD CONTRACTION and CHRONIC AVULSION cause patellar ligament to separate from the tibial tuberosity > forms a CALLOUS that elevates the tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Osgood Schlatter disease

epidem? s/s?

A

YOUNG ATHLETES after a RECENT GROWTH SPURT

pain + swelling at TIBIAL TUBERCLE
relieved by rest
reproduced by SEATED KNEE EXTENSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pes anserinus bursitis

what? in whom?

A

ANTEROMEDIAL KNEE PAIN in a RUNNER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Muscles inserting at the pes anserinus (3)

A

semitendinosus
gracilis
sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

calcium / PTH / phosphorus levels in osteoporosis?

how are they usually, how might they be in certain situations?

A

usually NORMAL unless osteoporosis is SECONDARY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

torticollis cause (2 cats, w/ examples)

A

uterine malposition - fetal macrosomia or oligohydramnios

birth trauma - breech delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is foot “eversion”?

A

same as pronation

mediated by peroneus longus muscle (superficial peroneal n.) … fibular head fractures can injure this nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is foot “inversion”?

A

same as supination

mediated by TIBIALIS POSTERIOR innervated by TIBIAL NERVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fibular neck fracture

complications?

A

common peroneal nerve injury

impaired eversion (pronation) and dorsiflexion
loss of dorsal foot sensation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

saphenous nerve injury

sx?

A

loss of medial leg sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

tibial nerve

innervates what?
injury causes what?

A

skin - posterior calf, lateral foot + sole, knee joint, plantar flexion/inversion muscles (gastroc, soleus, tib post)

weak plantar flexion / inversion
numb sole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Rotator Cuff Syndrome

main injured tendon + sx

A

SUPRASPINATUS tendon (repeated impingement trauma btwn humeral head + acromion; as in GOLF or other repeated abduction movements)

painful abduction (especially against resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Orthopedic test to isolate the supraspinatus when testing rotator cuff function

A

“empty can” test

abduct arms 90 degrees to side, flex them 30 degrees forward and point thumbs to floor

apply downward force to arm while patient presses up; may elicit pain in supraspinatus tendon impingement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Sudden upward jerking of the arm at the shoulder

can cause what?

A

injury to the “lower trunk” of the brachial plexus (C8 to T1) giving the MEDIAN and ULNAR nerves

“Klumpke’s palsy” - paralysis of all INTRINSIC hand muscles with “total claw hand deformity” due to relative sparing of extrinsic flexors + extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Besides the intrinsic hand muscle paralysis and “total claw hand deformity” of Klumpke’s palsy (lower trunk brachial plexus injury)…

what other symptoms / syndromes (2) can present?

A
  1. Sensory loss - over MEDIAL HAND/FOREARM (ulnar nerve)

2. Ipsilateral HORNER SYNDROME - if T1 nerve root is involved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Shoulder dislocation / fracture of proximal humerus…

what can it injure?
what would this cause?

A

axillary nerve

weak deltoid (abduction) and teres minor (external rotation)

31
Q

Midshaft humerus fracture…

what can it injure?
what will this cause?

A

radial nerve

posterior forearm + dorsolateral hand numbness
wrist drop (paralyzed extensors)
32
Q

trauma to the elbow or wrist resting on a hard surface for prolonged periods

what can it injure?
what will it cause?

A

ULNAR NERVE (C8-T1) injury (medial epicondyle fracture > “funny bone”; wrist on hard surface > Guyon’s canal)

sensory loss over dorsal + palmar hand last 1.5 digits

affected movements:
wrist flexion/adduction (flexor carpi ulnaris)
finger abduction/adduction (interossei)
flexion of 4th/5th digits

weak lumbricals > ULNAR CLAW during finger extension (last 2 digits can’t extend)

33
Q

“Simian hand” palsy

injury of what

A

median and ulnar nerves

34
Q

“Preacher’s hand”

injury of what?

A

pt tries to make fist and only the last 2 digits flex

median nerve

35
Q

which structure is weakened in patients with direct inguinal hernia?

A

transversalis fascia

direct hernia is medial to inferior epigastric vessels

36
Q

Supracondylar humeral fracture with ANTEROLATERAL displacement of the proximal segment

can injure what?

A

radial nerve

37
Q

Supracondylar humeral fracture with ANTEROMEDIAL displacement of the proximal segment

can injure what?

A

median nerve and brachial artery

38
Q

1 dislocated joint and #1 direction of dislocation

A

glenohumeral joint (shallow articulation btwn humeral head and glenoid fossa)

ANTERIOR dislocation is most common

39
Q

common position of arm during anterior dislocation of humerus

A

abducted and externally rotated

as in throwing a football

40
Q

consequences of anterior humeral dislocation

what is injured? how does it present?

A

AXILLARY NERVE is injured

  • deltoid prominence is FLATTENED
  • acromion PROTRUDES
  • there is ANTERIOR AXILLARY FULLNESS (humeral head moves into this space)
41
Q

what does the axillary nerve innervate?

2 muscles and what skin

A

deltoid
teres minor

overlying skin of lateral shoulder

42
Q

What injury results from a DOWNWARD BLOW to the tip of the shoulder?

how does it present?

A

acromioclavicular subluxation

swelling + UPWARD DISPLACEMENT OF CLAVICLE

no specific nerve injuries or deficits

43
Q

Where are most clavicular fractures? How do they present?

A

middle 1/3 of clavicle via direct blow

local swelling + tenderness; no specific neurovascular damage

44
Q

how would a CORACOID PROCESS FRACTURE occur?

A

rarely, but via FIRING A SHOTGUN/RIFLE

45
Q

What rare fracture can occur due to TORSION from a FALL ON OUTSTRETCHED HAND?

presentation (3)? structure injured?

A

spiral fracture of midshaft humerus

swelling, bone crepitus, ecchymoses

RADIAL NERVE is injured

46
Q

Limb reflexes mnemonic

A
  • Achilles - S1, S2 “buckle my shoe”
  • Patellar - L3, L4 “kick the door”
  • Biceps/brachioradialis - C5, C6 “pick up sticks”
  • Triceps - C7, C8 “lay them straight”
47
Q

Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy (type 1)

inheritance? mutation + gene?

A

AD inheritance of CTG repeat expansion

DMPK gene > abnormal expression of MYOTONIN PROTEIN KINASE

CTG hints at symptoms: Cataracts, Toupee (early balding) and Gonadal atrophy

48
Q

Myotonic Muscular Dystrophy (type 1)

6 S/S?

the genetic abnormality hints at a mnemonic for 3 of the sx

A

CTG repeats > 1) Cataracts, 2) Toupee (early balding) and 3) Gonadal atrophy

4) Wasting
5) Arrhythmia

6) Myotonia - delayed relaxation after voluntary or electrostim’d contraction

CTG WAM

49
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

genes involved + inheritance + defect

A

variable; most commonly AD form with DECREASED PRODUCTION of otherwise normal TYPE 1 collagen

usually COL1A1 or COL1A2

problem forming TRIPLE HELIX of collagen alpha chains

50
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

S/S? (mnemonic)

Differential and Tx?

A

Patients can’t “BITE”

  • Bones - fractures
  • I - eyes (BLUE SCLERA)
  • T - teeth - dental imperfections
  • E - ears - hearing loss via ossicle issues

Must diff from suspected child abuse

Tx with BISPHOSPHONATES to decr. fractures

51
Q

Achondroplasia

gene/protein involved?

inheritance?

risk via which parent + how?

A

FGFR-3 has CONSTITUTIVE ACTIVATION which actually inhibits chondrocyte proliferation, affecting ENDOCHONDRAL OSSIFICATION + thus longitudinal growth

> 85% sporadic; can be AD with full penetrance (homozygote = lethal)

related to increased PATERNAL AGE

(#1 dwarfism)

52
Q

From what part of bone does healing of a fracture with new bone formation occur?

A

periosteum

53
Q

cytokine involved in osteoporosis

A

IL-1

54
Q

How does alcohol precipitate gout attacks?

A

alcohol metabolites compete for same excretion sites as uric acid in kidney > decreased urate excretion and buildup in blood

55
Q

Most (90%) of gout is via UNDEREXCRETION of urate and is idiopathic / medication-exacerbated (via thiazides/loops or CKD)…

what FOUR conditions cause OVERPRODUCTION-related gout?

A
  1. Lesch-Nyhan
  2. PRPP excess
  3. tumor lysis or other high turnover states
  4. VON GIERKE DISEASE
56
Q

Aseptic necrosis / avascular necrosis (same thing)

main risk factors (3)
minor risk factors (3)
associations (5)

A

main - alcohol, fractures/dislocations + high dose steroids

minor - radio + chemotherapy, organ transplants

associations - SLE, sickle cell, GAUCHER (glucocerebrosidase defic.) and decompression syndrome (Caisson)

57
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve injury

s/s?

A

“musculo-“ - inability to flex biceps/coracobrachialis

“cutaneous” - absent sensation over LATERAL FOREARM

58
Q

What is the serum marker for OSTEOBLAST activity?

how can it be differentiated from other sources of similar molecules?

A

serum bone-specific alkaline phosphatase

ALP is also found in intestine, LIVER (main contributor aside from bone) and placenta

to diff liver and bone ALP:
1. Bone ALP is easily denatured by heat (“bone boils”)

  1. Liver ALP rises are often accompanied by GGT rises

(electrophoresis and mAbs can also be used)

59
Q

What are two URINARY markers for OSTEOCLASTIC activity?

1 much better than the other

A
  1. urinary DEOXYPYRIDINOLINE excretion - DOP cross-links collagen fibers and is released into circ when osteoclasts resorb bone
  2. urinary hydroxyproline - but many meat products can also raise urine levels
60
Q

what is one SERUM marker for OSTEOCLASTIC activity?

not commonly used, why?

A

TARTRATE-resistant ACID PHOSPHATASE

cross reacts with acid phosphatase from other tissues and is unstable in frozen serum samples

61
Q

Ca-PPi deposition disease

in whom? cause (4)?

A

pts mostly > 50, both sexes equally

mostly idiopathic

sometimes w/ 1) hemochromatosis, 2) hyperparathyroidism, or 3) joint trauma

62
Q

Ca-PPi deposition disease

main joint? x-ray? crystals?

A

mostly KNEE joint

“CHONDROCALCINOSIS” on x-ray (calcification of cartilage)

crystals are RHOMBOID and POSITIVELY BIREFRINGENT (blue when parallel to light)

63
Q

Ca-PPi deposition disease

acute tx
prophylaxis

A

acute: NSAID, colchicine, steroids
proph: colchicine

64
Q

Femoral hernia

in whom? via weakness of what? risk?

A

in WOMEN via weakness of the PROXIMAL FEMORAL CANAL

bowel entry through femoral ring is at particularly high risk of STRANGULATION

65
Q

Femoral hernia

contents protrude through what into what? relation to inguinal ligament?

A

through FEMORAL RING into FEMORAL CANAL

travels INFERIOR to inguinal ligament

(direct and indirect inguinal hernias are superior to ligament; differentiated by indirect being lateral to epigastric vessels and direct being medial)

66
Q

Non-traumatic radial nerve injury in forearm

how does it occur + what does it cause?

A

Repetitive pronation/supination (ie using a screwdriver)

injures radial nerve as it passes THROUGH SUPINATOR M.

weak EXTENSION of FINGERS

sensation usually preserved + no issues proximal to supinator (eg, triceps or extensor carpi radialis issues - elbow + wrist extension are ok)

67
Q

Ehlers-Danlos types I and II

what is mutated?

A

type V collagen

> hypermobile joints + hyperextensible, fragile skin

(most common E-DS form)

68
Q

What muscles are innervated by the ULNAR nerve?

6

A
  1. FC Ulnaris - wrist flexion/adduction
  2. FD Profundus
  3. Opponens, flexor + abductor DIGITI MINIMI
  4. INTEROSSEI- palmar add/flex/ext, dorsal abduct
  5. LUMBRICALS - flex mcp, extend ip
  6. ADDUCTOR POLLICIS - only thumb m. via ulnar
69
Q

What are the changes seen in osteoBLAST, osteoCLAST and RANKL activity in osteoporosis?

A

osteoblast activity is DECREASED

osteoclast activity and RANKL levels are INCREASED

70
Q

Aside from vertebral compression fractures (acute back pain, height loss + kyphosis)…

what are two common fracture sites in osteoporosis?

A

FEMORAL NECK

and DISTAL RADIUS (so-called Colles fracture)

71
Q

1 vertebral subluxation in rheumatoid arthritis?

iatrogenic trigger?

A

atlantoaxial joint because C1 (atlas) is highly mobile relative to C2 (axis)

endotracheal intubation can worsen it > SC or vertebral artery compression

72
Q

presentation of acute spinal cord injury (ie, in RA cervical subluxation)

2 phases

A
  1. FLACCID paralysis - decreased/absent reflexes below lesion due to “spinal shock”
  2. SPASTIC paralysis - after days-weeks when spinal shock resolves
73
Q

regional anesthesia technique for SHOULDER/UPPER ARM procedures?

associated complication?
contraindications (2) due to this complication?

A

INTERSCALENE nerve block - btwn ant./middle scalene muscles

PHRENIC PARALYSIS - transient ipsilateral diaphragm paralysis due to phrenic n. (C3-C5) being affected

CI in chronic lung disease or contralateral phrenic n. dysfunction

74
Q

Platysma innervation

A

cervical branch of FACIAL NERVE