Musculoskeletal Diseases (Exam II) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathophysiology of scleroderma?

A
  • Autoimmune-mediated inflammatory vasculitis
    -Fibrosis of skin and internal organs from abnormal deposition of extracellular collagen
    -Microvascular changes produce tissue fibrosis and organ sclerosis
  • Also known as Systemic Sclerosis
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2
Q

What mnemonic guides the main symptoms associated with scleroderma?
Expound on the mnemonic.

A
  • **Calcinosis
  • **Raynaud’s
  • **Esophageal reflux
  • **Sclerodactyly
  • **Telangiectasia’s
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3
Q

What signs and symptoms might be seen with Scleroderma?

A
  • Skin: Taut skin, Contractures & myopathy
    NS: Nerve compression
    CV: Systemic and pulmonary HTN, Dysrhythmias, Vasospasms in small arteries of fingers, CHF
    Pulmonary: Pulmonary fibrosis
    Renal: Decreased RBF
    GI: Xerostomia, poor dentition, fibrosis of GI tract and refulx
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4
Q

What does xerostomia mean?

A

Dry mouth

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5
Q

What treatments are used for scleroderma?

A
  • Symptoms alleviation
  • ACE-inhibitors: only treatment that has shown to alter course of disease
  • PPIs for reflux
  • Digoxin: improve CO
  • Steroids
  • CCBs for Raynaud’s
    Pulm. HTN tx: PDE inhibitors, O2, anticoagulation and diuretics
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6
Q

What airway and pulmonary considerations exists for scleroderma?

A
  • Pulmonary fibrosis (↓ compliance)
  • Decreased ROM for airway
  • Avoid increasing PVR
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7
Q

Anesthesia management for Airway and motion

A
  • decreased mandibular motion
  • small mouth opening
  • decreased neck ROM
  • oral bleeding
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8
Q

What dose of metoclopramide would be utilized for GI tract fibrosis from scleroderma?

A

Trick question. Metoclopramide would not work in this scenario.

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9
Q

What other scleroderma anesthesia management considerations are there?

A
  • risk of corneal abrasions
  • keep warm (Raynaud’s)
  • VTE 3x more common in this population (steriod stress dose)
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10
Q

What is Duchenne’s Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)?
What initial symptoms are present at 2-5 years of age?

A
  • X-linked dystrophin disorder resulting in muscle atrophy.
    Dystrophin is a large protein that plays a major role in stabilization of the muscle membrane
  • (Ages 2-5) = waddling gait, frequent falling, can’t climb stairs, Gower’s sign.
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11
Q

What s/s are seen with DMD?

List:
CNS
Musculoskeletal
CV
Pulm
GI

A
  • **CNS - intellectual disability
  • **MS - kyphosis, muscle atrophy, ↑ CK
  • **CV - ↑ HR, cardiomyopathy, short PR & tall R-wave
  • **Pulm - weakened respiratory muscles and weak cough, OSA **30% of deaths are due to pulmonary reasons
  • **GI - hypomotility & gastroparesis
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12
Q

What are the anesthetic concerns and interventions relevant to DMD patients?

  • Airway
  • Pulmonary
  • CV
  • GI
A
  • Airway - weak laryngeal reflexes & cough
  • Pulm - weakened muscles, increased secretions, possible vent support up to 36 hours
  • CV - Get pre-op EKG & echo
  • GI - delayed gastric emptying
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13
Q

What drug should be avoided with DMD patients?

A
  • Succinylcholine (Rhabdo & ↑K⁺, MH)

use NDMBs

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14
Q

What type of anesthesia is prefereable for a DMD patient?

A

Regional (vs GA)

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15
Q

Why might one use less volatile gasses with DMD patients?

A
  • DMD patients have ↑risk of malignant hyperthermia.

Ensure you have Dantrolene

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16
Q

What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Chronic Autoimmune disorder
  • ↓ function of NMJ post-synaptic ACh receptors.
  • Muscle weakness and rapid exhaustion of voluntary muscles

αlpha sub-units of ACh receptor are bound by antibodies.

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17
Q

What organ is linked with the production of anti-ACh antibodies?

A
  • Thymus
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18
Q

Which condition is characterized by partial recovery with rest?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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19
Q

What test is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis?

A

Edrophonium/Tensilon Test
- 1-2 mg IVP
- Myasthenia symptoms improve with injection = (+) test

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20
Q

What signs/symptoms might be seen with myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Ptosis & diplopia
  • Dysphagia & dysarthria
  • Muscle weakness
  • Isolated respiratory failure
  • Myocarditis
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21
Q

Differentiate Myasthenic Crisis and Cholinergic Crisis.

A
  • Myasthenic Crisis - Insufficient drug therapy and resulting respiratory failure.
  • Cholinergic Crisis - too much -stigmine drug = SLUDGE-M symptoms.
  • Differentiate by: Edrophonium/Tensilon Test
    1-2 mg IVP
    Improves myasthenic crisis, makes cholinergic crisis worse
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22
Q

What drugs are the firstline treatment for Myasthenia Gravis?
What would be done if drugs were ineffective?

A
  • Anticholinesterases
    -Pyridostigmine > neostigmine
  • Surgical Thymectomy: induces remission, reduces need for immunosuppresants
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23
Q

What drugs/treatments other than pyridostigmine or surgery could be used for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Azathioprine
  • Cyclosporine
  • Mycophenolate
  • Plasmapheresis: removes antibodies from circulation
  • Immunoglobulin: temporary effect
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24
Q

What anesthetic considerations exist for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Aspiration risk & weakened respiratory muscles.
  • Sensitivity to NMBs (intubate without if possible)
  • No succinylcholine (resistant to it)
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25
Q

What is osteoarthritis (OA)?
What makes the pain better?

A
  • Degeneration of articular cartilage with minimal inflammation.
  • Pain better at rest.
  • Pain is worse with motion.
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26
Q

What are Heberden nodes?
What disease process do they indicate?

A
  • Bony swellings of the distal interphalangeal joints.
  • Osteoarthritis
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27
Q

What spinal complications occur from osteoarthritis?

A
  • Vertebral degeneration
  • Nucleus pulposus herniation
  • Nerve root compression
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28
Q

What are the treatments for osteoarthritis?

A
  • PT & exercise
  • Maintenance of muscle function
  • Pain relief
  • Joint replacement surgery
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29
Q

Are osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis patients prescribed corticosteroids?

A
  • RA patients (no steroids for OA)
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30
Q

What anesthetic considerations exist for OA?

A
  • Airway ROM
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31
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?
What hand condition is often seen on inspection?

A
  • Auto-immune systemic inflammatory disease
  • Swelling of the Proximal Interphalangeal, metocarpophalangeal, and elbow joints.
  • Rheumatoid factor - IG is present in 90% of pts
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32
Q

What joints are usually spared by rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Thoracic & Lumbosacral spine
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33
Q

With this condition it is common to have synovitis of the temporomandibular joint.

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

34
Q

Why would the sniffing position and thus intubation be affected in a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Atlantoaxial subluxation (pushes on spinal cord)
  • Cricoarytenoid arthritis (hoarseness, dyspnea, and upper airway obstruction may be present)
35
Q

What cardiac symptoms can be seen with RA?
Pulmonary?

A
  • Pericarditis and accelerated CAD
  • Restrictive lung changes
  • Anemia, Neutropenia, elevated platelets,
36
Q

What two facial symptoms are often seen with RA?

A
  • Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry eye)
  • Xerostomia (dry mouth)
37
Q

What drugs are used to treat rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Corticosteroids
  • DMARDs
  • TNF-α inhibitors & Interleukin-1 inhibitors
38
Q

Compare and contrast DMARDs vs TNF-α inhibitors & Interleukin-1 inhibitors in how they treat rheumatoid arthritis.

A
  • DMARDs (methotrexate) slow disease progression but can take 2-6 months to see effects
  • TNF-α & IL1 inhibitors generally work better than DMARDs (IL1’s are slow than TNF)
39
Q

What anesthesia considerations exist for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Airway complications by atlantoaxial subluxation or TMJ.
  • Severe RA lung disease
  • Stress dose steroids may be necessary
  • Protect eyes
40
Q

Physiology of lupus

A

multisystem chronic inflammatory disease characterized by antinuclear antibody production

41
Q

What is a malar rash?
What pathology is it characteristic of?

A
  • Butterfly rash across the bridge of the nose and cheeks that is present with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus.
42
Q

What pathology is this and what are these lesions called?

A
  • Discoid lesions characteristic of SLE.
43
Q

What cardiac symptoms are seen with SLE?

A
  • Pericarditis
  • CAD
  • Raynaud’s
44
Q

What type of arthritis is seen with SLE?

A
  • Symmetrical w/ no spinal involvement but frequent breakdown of femoral head.
45
Q

What pulmonary symptoms are characteristic of SLE?

A
  • Lupus pneumonia
  • Vanishing Lung syndrome
  • Restrictive lung disease
46
Q

What drugs are utilized to treat SLE?

A
  • NSAIDs or ASA
  • Antimalarials (Hydrxychloroquine & quinacrine)
  • Corticosteroids
  • Immunosuppressants (methotrexate and azathioprine)
47
Q

What anesthesia considerations exist for SLE patients?

A
  • Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy
  • Cricoarytenoid arthritis
  • Stress dose steroids likely necessary
48
Q

What condition often has recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis?

A

Lupus (SLE)

49
Q

Malignant Hyperthermia Pathophysiology

A

**Hypermetabolic syndrome: It is the sustained high levels of sarcoplasmic Ca2+ that rapidly drives skeletal muscle into a hypermetabolic state that may proceed to severe rhabdomyolysis

-Genetic mutation: Ryanodine receptor - RYR1 gene
Dihydropyridine receptor

-Exposure to inhaled VA and succinylcholine
50% mortality
**Family history

50
Q

What are the early signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • ↑CO₂
  • ↑HR
  • ↑RR
  • Jaw muscle spasm
  • Peaked T waves
  • Acidosis
  • Muscle rigidity
51
Q

What are the late signs of malignant hyperthermia?

A
  • Hyperthermia
  • Rhabdo & cola-urine
  • ↑CPK
  • VTach/Vfib
  • Acute renal failure
  • DIC
52
Q

What is initial Dantrolene dosing?
What is the max dose?

A

20 mg + 3 G mannitol
Mix with 60 mL sterile water

  • Initial: 2.5mg/kg.
  • Max: 10mg/kg
53
Q

How is MH testing done?

A
  • Muscle biopsy and halothane + caffeine contracture test.
54
Q

Which of the following best characterizes myasthenia gravis?

A. Delayed Muscle Relaxation.
B. Fatiguability of skeletal muscle with repetitive use.
C. Rigidity after exposure to volatile anesthetics.
D. Muscle weakness that improves with repeated effort.

A

B. Fatiguability of skeletal muscle with repetitive use.

55
Q

What are treatments indicated for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Immunoglobulin injections and DMARDS.
B. Plasmapheresis and thymectomy.
C. Corticosteroids and DMARDS.
D. Alternating heat and cold therapies.

A

C. Corticosteroids & DMARDs

56
Q

Signs and symptoms of scleroderma include: (select 2)

A. Small bowel hypomotility
B. Decreased pulmonary compliance
C. Diffuse pitting edema
D. Diarrhea

A

A. Small bowel hypomotility
B. Decreased pulmonary compliance

57
Q

Which anesthetic plan is ideal for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus?

A. Avoid the use of volatile anesthetics
B. Prepare patient for possible post-operative ventilator use.
C. Administer metoclopramide
D. Order a pre-operative CBC & ECG.

A

D. Order a pre-operative CBC & ECG.

This is a dumb question

58
Q

Preoperative findings of Duchenne muscular dystrophy include:

A. Decreased serum creatine kinase
B. Gastrointestinal hypermotility
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Sinus bradycardia

A

C. Kyphoscoliosis

59
Q

Sensory vs. motor nerves

A

most motor function is fast
c fibers slow
susceptibility to local anesthetics - can block pain but not block movement

60
Q

Cervical plexus is located where?

A

In the posterior triangle of the neck, halfway up the sternocleidomastoid muscle and withing the prevertebral layer of cervical fascia

goes from C1-C4
interscalene groove is right next to the phrenic nerve - can cuase hemidiaphragm paralysis

61
Q

What is the Stellate ganglion and why do we care?

A

The stellate ganglion is a collection of sympathetic nerves found anterior to the neck of the first rib.

It gives off sympathetic nerve branches to the brachial plexus, which lies laterally, as well as tributaries to the subclavian and vertebral arteries and the brachiocephalic trunk.

can block the nerve instead of putting on beta blockers

62
Q

Horner’s Syndrome: what is it and why do we care?

A

Horner’s syndrome causes ptosis, miosis, and facial anhidrosis (absence of sweating) d/t disruption fo sympathetic nerve supply

Results from paralysis of the ipsilateral sympathetic cervical chain (stellate ganglion)

When trying to block the stellate ganglion can accidentally block the phrenic nerve

63
Q

Interscalene block will be cervical vertabrae ___

A

C5-C7 The space between the scalene muscles is called the interscalene groove. This space is palpable behind the lateral head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and adjacent to the C6 lateral tubercle, also known as Chaissaignac’s tubercle.

64
Q

Upper extremity innervation

A
65
Q

The Brachial Plexus

A
66
Q

Brachial Plexus blocks

A
67
Q

Axillary nerve block (where and what nerve)

A

Put in the back of the shoulder
Axillary N.
spinal roots C5 and C6
Sensory: Upper and lateral cutaneous nerve of arm which innervates the skin over the lower deltoid
Motor: innervates the teres minor and deltoid

68
Q

Axilla nerve block (where and what nerve)

A

Nerve roots – C5-C7.
Inject in the axilla
Try to catch Musculocutaneous N. and intercostobrachial N.
Motor: muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm (coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the brachialis).
Sensory: gives rise to the lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm, which innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm.

69
Q

Median nerve innervation

A

Nerve roots: C6 – T1 (also contains fibers from C5 in some individuals)

Motor functions: Innervates the flexor and pronator muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm (except the flexor carpi ulnaris and part of the flexor digitorum profundus, innervated by the ulnar nerve). Also supplies innervation to the thenar muscles and lateral two lumbricals in the hand.

Sensory functions: Gives rise to the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the lateral aspect of the palm, and the digital cutaneous branch, which innervates the lateral three and a half fingers on the anterior (palmar) surface of the hand.

70
Q

Radial nerve

A

Nerve roots – C5-T1.

Sensory – Innervates most of the skin of the posterior forearm, the lateral aspect of the dorsum of the hand, and the dorsal surface of the lateral three and a half digits.

Motor – Innervates the triceps brachii and the extensor muscles in the forearm.

71
Q

Ulnar nerve innervation

A

Spinal roots: C8-T1.

Motor functions: Two muscles of the anterior forearm – flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of flexor digitorum profundus
Intrinsic muscles of the hand (apart from the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals)

Sensory functions: Medial one and half fingers and the associated palm area.

72
Q

Innervation of the hand

A
73
Q

Lower Extremity Sensory Innervation

A
74
Q

Lumbar plexus extension

A

The anterior rami of the L1-L4 spinal roots divide into several cords. These cords then combine together to form the six major peripheral nerves of the lumbar plexus. These nerves then descend down the posterior abdominal wall to reach the lower limb, where they innervate their target structures.

A useful memory aid for the branches of the lumbar plexus is: I, I Get Leftovers On Fridays. This stands for the Iliohypogastric, Ilioinguinal, Genitofemoral, Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, Obturator and Femoral.

75
Q

Iliohypogastric Nerve

A

The iliohypogastric nerve is the first major branch of the lumbar plexus. It runs to the iliac crest, across the quadratus lumborum muscle of the posterior abdominal wall. It then perforates the transversus abdominis, and divides into its terminal branches.
Roots: L1 (with contributions from T12).

Motor Functions: Innervates the internal oblique and transversus abdominis.

Sensory Functions: Innervates the posterolateral gluteal skin in the pubic region.

76
Q

Ilioinguinal Nerve

A

The ilioinguinal nerve follows the same anatomical course as the larger iliohypogastric nerve. After innervating the muscles of the anterior abdominal wall, it passes through the superficial inguinal ring to innervate the skin of the genitalia and middle thigh.
Roots: L1.

Motor Functions: Innervates the internal oblique and transversus abdominis.

Sensory Functions: Innervates the skin on the superior antero-medial thigh. In males, it also supplies the skin over the root of the penis and anterior scrotum. In females, it supplies the skin over mons pubis and labia majora.

77
Q

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous

A

This nerve has a purely sensory function. It enters the thigh at the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament, where it provides cutaneous innervation to the skin there.
Roots: L2, L3

Motor Functions: None.

Sensory Functions: Innervates the anterior and lateral thigh down to the level of the knee.

78
Q

Obturator Nerve

A

Roots: L2, L3, L4.
Motor Functions: Innervates the muscles of the medial thigh – the obturator externus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus and gracilis.

Sensory Functions: Innervates the skin over the medial thigh.

79
Q

Femoral Nerve

A

Roots: L2, L3, L4.
Motor Functions: Innervates the muscles of the anterior thigh – the illiacus, pectineus, sartorius and quadriceps femoris.

Sensory Functions: Innervates the skin on the anterior thigh and the medial leg.

80
Q

Sacral Plexus

A

The sacral plexus is a network of nerve fibers that supplies the skin and muscles of the pelvis and lower limb. It is located on the surface of the posterior pelvic wall, anterior to the piriformis muscle.

The plexus is formed by the anterior rami (divisions) of the sacral spinal nerves S1, S2, S3 and S4. It also receives contributions from the lumbar spinal nerves L4 and L5.

81
Q

Sciatic Nerve

A

The sciatic nerve is a major nerve of the lower limb. It is a thick flat band, approximately 2cm wide –

the largest nerve in the body.

Nerve roots: L4-S3.
Motor functions:
Innervates the muscles of the posterior thigh (biceps femoris, semimembranosus and semitendinosus) and the hamstring portion of the adductor magnus (remaining portion of which is supplied by the obturator nerve).
Indirectly innervates (via its terminal branches) all the muscles of the leg and foot.

Sensory functions: No direct sensory functions. Indirectly innervates (via its terminal branches) the skin of the lateral leg, heel, and both the dorsal and plantar surfaces of the foot.