Coagulation (final) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Hemostasis

A

Normal hemostasis is a balance btw clot generation, thrombus formation, andcounter-regulatory mechanisms that inhibit uncontrolled thrombogenesis or premature thrombus degradation

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2
Q

3 Goals of Hemostasis

A

to limit blood loss from vascular injury
maintain intravascular blood flow
promote revascularization after thrombosis

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3
Q

What are the 2 stages of Hemostasis?
Describe each…

A

Primary: Immediateplatelet deposition at the endovascular injury site
Leads to the initial platelet plug formation
Only adequate for minor injury
Secondary: clotting factors activated
Stabilized clot formed and secured with crosslinked fibrin

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4
Q

What is the Vascular Endothelial Role?

A

Vascular endothelial cells have antiplatelet, anticoagulant, and profibrinolytic effects that inhibit clot formation

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5
Q

Describe the anti-clotting mechanisms of endothelial cells

A

-are negatively charged to repel platelets
-produce platelet inhibitors such as prostacyclin and nitric oxide
-excrete adenosine diphosphatase, which degrades -adenosine diphosphate (ADP), a platelet activator
-increase protein C, an anticoagulant
-produce Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI), inhibiting factor Xa & TF-VIIa complex
-Synthesize tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)

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6
Q

____ play a critical role in hemostasis and are derived from ____

A

Platelets and megakaryocytes

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7
Q

Nonactivated platelets circulate as ____ with a lifespan of ____

A

discoid anuclear cells and 8-12 days

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8
Q

normally, ~ ____ of platelets are consumed to ____ with ____ new platelets formed daily

A

10%
support vascular integrity
1.2-1.5 X10^11

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9
Q

2 important things about the platelet membrane

A

1) contains numerous receptors
2) has a surface canicular system, which increases membrane surface area

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10
Q

Describe the process of platelets undrgoing hemostasis

A

Damage to endothelium exposes the underlying extracellular matrix (ECM), which contains collagen, von Willebrands factor, and other platelet-adhesive glycoproteins
Upon exposure to ECM, platelets undergo 3 phases of alteration:
-adhesion
-activation
-aggregation

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11
Q

Describe Adhesion of platelets

A

Adhesion: occurs upon exposure to ECM proteins

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12
Q

Describe activation of platelets
What are 2 types of storage granules in platelets?

A

Activation: stimulated when platelet interacts w/collagen & tissue factor (TF), causing the release of granular contents
Plts contain 2 types of storage granules: alpha granules and dense bodies
-Alpha granules: contain fibrinogen, factors V & VIII, vWF, Plt-derived growth factor & more
-Dense bodies: contain ADP, ATP, calcium, serotonin, histamine, epinephrine

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13
Q

Describe aggregation of platelets

A

Aggregation: occurs when the granular contents are released, which recruit and activate additional platelets, propagating plasma-mediated coagulation. Activated glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on plt surface bind fibrinogen, promoting fibrin crosslinking

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14
Q

Each stage of the platelet cascade requires what?

A

Assembly of membrane-bound activation tenase-cmplexes

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15
Q

Each tenase complex is composed of

A

1) a substrate (inactive precursor)
2) an enzyme (activated coagulation factor)
3) 3) a cofactor (accelerator or catalyst)
4) 4) calcium

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16
Q

Describe the intrensic pathway

A

Beginning w/XIIa, it was initially thought to occur only in response to endovascular contact with negatively-charged substances (glass, dextran)

Current understanding is the intrinsic pathway plays a more minor role in theinitiation of hemostasis, and is more an amplification system to propagate thrombin generation initiated by the extrinsic pathway

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17
Q

Describe the extrensic pathway

A

The Extrinsic pathway is the initiation phase of plasma-mediated hemostasis
Begins endothelial injury, exposing TF to the plasma
TF forms an active complex with VIIa (TF/VIIa complex)
TF/VIIa complex binds to and activates factor X, converting it to Xa
TF/VIIa complex also activates IX→ IXa in the intrinsic pathway
IXaand calcium convert factor X to Xa (intrinsic pathway)
Factor Xa begins the final common pathway

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18
Q

Describe the intrinsic pathway hemostasis initiation

A

Upon contact with a negatively charged surface, factor XII becomes activated
Factor XIIa converts XI to XIa
(IXa + VIIIa +plt-membrane phospholipid + Ca++) converts factor X to Xa
Xa initiates the final common pathway

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19
Q

Describe intrinsic pathway propogation

A

Activated Thrombin (IIa) activates factors V, VII, VIII and XI to amplify extrinsic thrombin generation
This process activates the platelets, leading to propagation of the FCP(final common pathway)

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20
Q

Describe the common pathway

A

Factor X becomes Xa and binds with Va to form “prothrombinase complex”
Prothrombinase complex rapidly converts prothrombin (II) into thrombin (IIa)
Thrombin attaches to the platelets and converts fibrinogen (I) to fibrin (Ia)
Fibrin molecules crosslink to form a mesh that stabilizes the clot
Thrombin cleaves fibrinopeptides A & B from fibrinogen to generate fibrin monomers, which polymerize into fibrin strands to form basic clot
Finally, factor XIIIa crosslinks the fibrin strands to stabilize and make an insoluble clot, resistant to fibrinolytic degradation

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21
Q

Vascular injury exposes ____, initiating ____ pathway. ____ pathway further amplifies thrombin and fibrin generation. Platelets adhere to ____, become activated and ____ additional platelets

A

TF
extrensic
intrinsic
collagen
recruit

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22
Q

What is the key step to regulating hemostasis?

A

Thrombin generation

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23
Q

What does the common pathway depict?

A

Thrombin generation and firbin formation
*both intrinsic and extrinsic tenase-complexes facilitate the formation of the prothrominase complexes

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24
Q

What is the function of prothrombinase complex?

A

Converts PT (II) into thrombin (IIa)

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25
Q

What are the 4 major Coagulation counter mechanisms?

A

Fibrinolysis
tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
protein C system
Serine Protease inhibitors (SERPINs)

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26
Q

Describe fibrinolysis

A

endovascular TPA & urokinase convert plasminogen to plasmin
Plasmin breaks down clots enzymatically, and degrades factors V & VIII

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27
Q

Describe TFPI

A

forms complex w/Xa that inhibits TF/7a complex, along with Xa; Downregulating the extrinsic pathway

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28
Q

Describe the protein C system

A

inhibits factors 2 (II), 5a (Va) & 8a (VIIIa)

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29
Q

What are the SERPINs?

A

Antithrombin (AT) inhibits thrombin, factors 9a (IXa), 10a (Xa), 11a (XIa), 12a (XIIa)
Heparin binds to AT, causing a conformational change that accelerates AT activity
Heparin cofactor II inhibits thrombin alone

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30
Q

Preoperative assessment factors for coagulation

A

1) identify and correct hemostatic disorders
2) bleeding hx is more effective predictor of bleeding
3) inquire: frequent epistaxis, bleeding gums, easy bruising?
4) hx of excess bleeding with procedures or blood transfusion?
5) family hx
6) use of blood thinners (ASA, NSAID, Vit E, Ginko, Ginger, Garlic supp
7) coexisting disease (renal, liver, thyroid, bone marrow)

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31
Q

If a bleeding disorder is suspected in the preop assessment, what are the standard first-line labs?

A

PT, aPTT

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32
Q

Common bleeding disorders

A

Von Willebrand’s
Hemophilia
Drug-induced bleeding
Liver disease
Chronic renal disease
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Trauma-induced coagulopathy

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33
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder? What percent of the population is affected?

A

Von Willebrand’s- effects 1% of the population

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34
Q

Describe the MOA of a deficiency in vWF

A

Deficiency in vWF, causing defective plt adhesion/aggregation
vWF plays critical role in plt adhesion & prevents degradation of factor 8 (VIII)

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35
Q

In vWF, are routine labs helpful?
how will labs look?
Which tests are more beneficial?

A

No
normal: platelets and PT, prolonged: aPTT d/t deficiency in factor 8
better tests: vWF level, vWF plt-binding activity, factor 8 level, plt function assay

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36
Q

What treatment is vWF responsive to?

A

DDAVP in mild cases (it increases vWF)

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37
Q

for patients with vWF, intraoperative bleeding may require administration of what?

A

vWF, and factor 8 concentrates

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38
Q

What are the 2 types of Hemophilia?
is this inherited or not?

A

A: factor 8 (VIII) deficiency; occurs in 1 in 5,000
B: factor 9 (IX) deficiency; occurs in 1 in 30,000
2/3 of cases are inherited, 1/3 present as new mutation w/o family hx

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39
Q

How does hemophlia commonly present?

A

in childhood as spontaneous hemorrhage involving joints and muscles

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40
Q

Labs in hemophilia

A

Normal PT, plts, bleeding time
PTT is prolonged

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41
Q

In patients with bleeding disorders, especially hemophilia, who should be consulted?

A

Hematology

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42
Q

What may be indicated pre-operatively for patients with hemophilia?

A

DDAVP and factors 8 and/or 9

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43
Q

What is the most significant cause of intraoperative bleeding?

A

Anticoagulant medications
Heparin
Warfarin
Direct Oral Anticoags (DOAC
Beta lactam ABx
Nitroprusside
NTG
NO
SSRI

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44
Q

What are common supplements that increase the risk of bleeding?

A

Cayenne, Garlic, Ginger, Ginkgo Biloba, grapseed oil, st johns wart, Turmeric, Vitamin E

Good Grief Girls, St. John’s Grape’s Turned Very Crimson

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45
Q

When should common herbal supplements be stopped prior to surgery?

A

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46
Q

The ____ is the primary source of which factors?

A
  • Liver
  • 1,2,5,7, 9, 10, 11, 12 (I, II, V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII)
    along with proteins C & S, and antithrombin

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47
Q

How can liver disease lead to hemostatic issues?

A

Impaired synthesis of coagulation factors
Quantitative and qualitative platelet dysfunction
Impaired clearance of clotting and fibrinolytic proteins

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48
Q

Lab findings in liver disease

A

-Prolonged PT and PTT
***lab values only reflect the lack of pro-coagulation factors, NOT accounting for concurrent lack of anti-coagulation factors
TEG and ROTEM are valuable guidelines

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49
Q

Chronic liver patents often display a ________ ________ as well as ________ amount of ________ production
What should we still consider with these patients?

A

rebalanced hemostasis, sufficient, thrmobin
although rebalanced, they are very susceptible to disruption in coagulation

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50
Q

CKD patients have baseline ______ d/t what 2 things?

A

Anemia!
-lack of erythropoietin
-platelet dysfunction

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51
Q

what 2 things can shorten bleeding times in CKD?

A

dialysis and correction of anemia

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52
Q

Tx of platelet dysfunction includes

A

Cryoprecipitate (rich in vWF)
DDAVP
Conjugated estrogens given pre-operatively x 5 days

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53
Q

What is DIC

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Pathological hemostatic response to TF/7a complex causing excessive activation of the extrinsic pathway, which overwhelms the anticoagulant mechanisms and generates intravascular thrombin
Coagulation factors & platelets become depleted during widespread microvascular thrombotic activity, causing multi-organ dysfunction

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54
Q

DIC may be precipitated by

A

trauma, amniotic fluid embolus, malignancy, sepsis, or incompatible blood transfusion

slide 27

55
Q

Lab findings in DIC

A

↓Plts, prolonged PT/PTT/Thrombin time,↑soluble fibrin & fibrin degradation products

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56
Q

How to manage DIC

A

correct underlying condition, administration of appropriate blood products

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57
Q

What is trauma induced coagulopathy?

A

Independent acute coagulopathy seen in trauma pts, which is thought to be related to activated protein C decreasing thrombin generation
-Hypoperfusion: driving factor for protein C activation
-The endethelial glycocalyx, which contains proteoglycans, degrades. Proteoglycan-shedding results in “auto-heparinization”
Platelet dysfunction contributes to the increased bleeding

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58
Q

What is a common cuase of trauma-related death?

A

Uncontrolled hemorrhage

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59
Q

Why do coagulopathies occur?

A

acidosis, hypothermia, and/or hemodilution

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60
Q

What are the most common inherited prothrombotic diseases caused by?

A

A mutation in factor V or PT

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61
Q

___________ mutation leads to _____________ resistance.
What popualtion is this present in?

A

Factor V Leiden mutation, activated protein C
***present in 5% caucasion population

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62
Q

___________ mutation causes _______ Concentration, leading to _____________

A

Prothrombin, increased PT, hypercoagulation

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63
Q

What is Thrombophilia?
How does is manifest?

A

Inherited or acquired predisposition for thrombotic events
Manifests as venous thrombosis
Highly susceptible to Virchow’s triad

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64
Q

What is Virchow’s Triad?

A

Blood stasis, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability

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65
Q

what is anti-phospholipid syndrome?
Characterized by?

A

autoimmune disorder w/antibodies against the phospholipid-binding proteins in the coagulation system.
Characterized byrecurrent thrombosis and pregnancy loss
Often require life-longanticoagulants

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66
Q

What are other common prothrombotic states?

A

Oral contraceptives, pregnancy, immobility, infection, surgery & trauma greatlyincrease the risk of thrombosis in thesepopulations

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67
Q

HIT is a mild to moderate ____ associated with ____

A

thrombocytopenia
heparin

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68
Q

When does HIT occur?

A

5-14 days after heparin treatment

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69
Q

HIT results in a ____ count reduction as well as activation of the ____ platelets and potential thrombosis

A

platelet
remaining

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70
Q

autoimmune-mediated response occurring in up to ____ pts receiving heparin

A

5%

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71
Q

Ifpt has received a prior heparin dose, thrombocytopenia or thrombosis may occurwithin ____ day of subsequent dose

A

1

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72
Q

Which patients are at higher risk of HIT?
What type of heparin carries a greater risk of HIT?

A

women, pts receiving high heparin doses such as w/CPB
unfractionated

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73
Q

If HIT is suspected what needs to happen?
What is contraindicated?

A

D/C heparin, convert to alternative anticoag
Warfarin: contraindicated b/c it decreasse Protein C and S synthesis

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74
Q

How is HIT diagnosis confirmed?

A

HIT antibody testing

75
Q

When are antibodies from HIT typically cleared from the circulation?

A

3 months

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76
Q

To find PT, ____ is mixed with ____ and the number of seconds is measured until a clot forms

A

Plasma and TF

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77
Q

What does PT assess? What does it reflect? What is it used to monitor?

A

Assesses integrity of extrinsic & common pathways.
Reflectsdeficiencies in factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 10 (II, V VII, X)
Used to monitor vit K antagonists s/a Warfarin
—>(factors 2, 7 & 10 are vit K dependent)

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78
Q

aPTT measures seconds until clot forms after mixing ____ with ____, ____, and ____ of the intrinsic pathway

A

plasma
phospholipid
Ca
activator

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79
Q

aPTT assesses what?
which factors is it more sensitive to?
aPTT is used to measure the effect of ____

A

Assesses integrity of intrinsic and common pathways
More sensitive to deficiencies in factor 8 & 9 (VIII, IX) than others
May be used to measure effect of Heparin

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80
Q

anti-factor Xa activity assay is also known as what?
____ is combined wth ____ and an ____ substrate that releases a colorimetric signal after factor ____ is cleaved

A

Factor Xa inhibition test
plasma
Xa
artificial
Xa

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81
Q

Anti-factor Xa activity assay provides functional assessment of ____’s anticoagulant effect
can also be used to assess effect of ____, ____, and factor ____ inhibitors

A

Heparin’s
LMWH, fondaparinux, factor Xa

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82
Q

Platelet count is a standard component of ____ testing
Normal plt count?
Is POC testing available?

A

coagulation
greater than 100,000plts/microliter
yes

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83
Q

Activated clotting time: variation of ____ blood clotting time, with the additiona of ____ activator to accelerate clotting time

A

whole
clotting

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84
Q

ACT addresses which pathway?
What is it used to measure?
what is normal?
IS POC analyzation available?

A

both intrinsic and extrensic
responsiveness to heparin
107 +/- 13 seconds
Yes

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85
Q

Heparin Concentration Measurement: ____-concentration is the most popular POC method to determine perioperative heparin concentration

A

Protamine

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86
Q

With heparin concentration measurement:
1mg protamine will inhibit ____ heparin
as increasing amounts of protamine are added to heparinezed blood, time to clot ____ until protamine concentration>heparin concentration
it estimates plasma ____concentration

A

1mg
decreases
heparin

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87
Q

____ Coagulation Tests: Measures all aspects of clot formation from early fibrin generation to clot retraction & fibrinolysis. Coagulation diagrams generated.

A

Viscoelastic

Slide 34

88
Q

Viscoelastic Coagulation Tests:
allows for more precise ____ ____ administration
Examples: ____ and ____

A

blood product
TEG (thromboelastogram)
ROTEM (rotational thromboelastrometry)

Slide 34

89
Q

Picture of a TEG

A

Slide 35

90
Q

____ Inhibit platelet aggregation and/or adhesion
What are the 3 main classes?

A

Anti-platelet agents
cyclooxygenase inhibitors
P2Y12 receptor antagonists
platelet GIIb/IIIa R antagonists

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91
Q

Cyclooxygenase Inhibitors: Block ____ from forming ____, which is important in plt aggregation
what are 2 examples and how long do their anti-plt effects last?

A

cox1
TxA₂
ASA, 7-10 days after d/c
NSAID’s 3 days

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92
Q

P2Y12 receptor antagonists: Inhibit ____→preventing ____ expression
What are 3 ex’s and how long do their anti-plt affects last?

A

P2Y12-R
GIIb/IIIa
clopidogrel: 7days after d/c
ticlodipine: 14-21 days after d/c
ticagerelor & cangrelor <24h activity

Slide 36

93
Q

Platelet GIIb/IIIa R antagonists: prevent ____ & ____ from binding to GIIb/IIIa-R
Examples?

A

vWF
Fibrinogen
Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

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94
Q

Vitamin K antagonists: Inhibit synthesis of Vit-K dependent factors…which are?

A

2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S

Slide 37

95
Q

What is the most common vitamin K antagonist?
its the DOC for ____ and ____
It has a long half life of ____, can take ____ days to reach therapeutic INR of ____
usually requires ____ until therapeutic effect achieved
Frequent lab monitoring required such as ____ and ____
Reversable with ____

A

warfarin
afib and valve replacements
40h, 3-4d
2-3
heparin
PT and INR
vitamin K

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96
Q

Heparin: Binds to antithrombin→ ____ inhibits soluble thrombin and Xa
What are 3 examples?

A

directly
unfractionated heparin
LMWH
Fondaparinux

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97
Q

Unfractionated Heparin
____ HL, given IV

Fully reversable w/____
Close monitoring required

A

short
protamine

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98
Q

LMWH
____HL, dosed BID SQ
No coag testing needed
Protamine only ____ effective

A

Longer
partially

Slide 38

99
Q

Fondaparinux
Much ____ HL ( ____-____hrs), dosed once/day
Protamine ____ effective

A

Longer (17-21hrs)
not

Slide 38

100
Q

direct ____ inhibitors: bind/block ____ in both soluble and fibrin-bound states
What are some examples?

A

thrombin, thrombin (hehe)
hirudin, argatroban, bivalirudin, and dabigatran (pradaxa)

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101
Q

Hirudin is naturally found in ____

A

Leeches

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102
Q

Argatroban: synthetic, reversibly binds to thrombin. HL 45 min.
Monitored intraop w/____ or ____

A

PTT or ACT

Slide 39

103
Q

____ is a synthetic direct thrombin inhibitor with the shortest HL of DTI’s
It is the DOC for ____ impairment

A

Bivalirudin
renal or liver

Slide 39

104
Q

Dabigatran is the ____ DOAC
It is approved for ____ prevention and non-valvular ____

A

1st
CVA and afib

Slide 39

105
Q

What is DOAC

A

Direct Oral Anti-coagulants

Slide 40

106
Q

DOAC’s are a newer class introduced over the last ____ years
have ____ pharmacokinetics/dynamics
____ drug interactions
dosed ____ w/o lab monitoring
efficacy is similar to ____ but much shorter ____
fewer ____ events, ____, and lower mortality than warfarin

A

10
predictable
fewer
daily
warfarin, half life
embolic events, intracranial hemorrhage

Slide 40

107
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitor that is a DOAC: ____
Direct Xa inhibitors that is a DOAC: ____, ____, and ____

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)
Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), Apixaban (Eliquis), Edoxaban (Savaysa)

Slide 40

108
Q

thrombolytics are used to ____ blood clots
can be given ____ or directly into ____
most are ____ ____ that convert plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down fibrinogen to fibrin

A

dissolve
IV, site of blockage
serine proteases

Slide 41

109
Q

What are 2 categories or thrombolytics? examples of each?

A

Fibrin-Specific: Alteplase (tPA), Reteplase, Tenecteplase
Non-Fibrin-Specific: Streptokinase * not widely used d/t allergic reactions

Slide 41

110
Q

Surgery is contraindicated within ____ days of thrombolytic treatment

A

10

Slide 41

111
Q

Absolute and relative contraindications for thrombolytics

A

Slide 42

112
Q

procoagulants are used to ____ blood loss
What are the 2 classes?

A

mitigates
anti-fibrinolytics
factor replacements

Slide 43

113
Q

antifibrinolytics have 2 subclasses: ____ and ____

A

Lysine analogues
SERPIN

Slide 43

114
Q

Lysin analogues: ____ and ____
MOA?

A

Epsilon-amino-caproic acid (EACA) & Tranexamic Acid (TXA)
Binds & inhibits plasminogen from binding to fibrin→impairing fibrinolysis

Slide 43

115
Q

What are the factor replacements (4)? and how does each one work?

A

Recombinant VIIa (RfVIIa): ↑’s thrombin generation via intrinsic & extrinsic paths
Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC): contain vitamin-K factors
Fibrinogen Concentrate: derived from pooled plasma. Standard concentration.
Cryoprecipitate & FFP: Cheaper & contain more coag factors, but less specific composition

Remember:Factor Replacements R Put Forth Carefully

Slide 43

116
Q

pre-op guidelines: warfarin
low risk patients should d/c ____ prior to surgery and restart ____ post-op
high risk patients should stop ____ prior and bridge w/ ____ or ____

A

5d, 12-24hrs post op
5d, UFH or LMWH

Slide 44

117
Q

Pre-op guidelines: heparin
UFH dc ____ prior to surgery and resumed ( ____ ) greater than or equal to 12 hours post op
LMWH should be dc’d ____hr prior to surgery and resumed ____ postop

A

4-6hr, no bolus
24hrs prior, 24h postop

Slide 44

118
Q

Pre-op guidelines: ASA (not as defined)
mod/high risk: ____
low risk: stop ____ prior to surgery

A

continue
7-10d

Slide 44

119
Q

pts post-coronary stent placement
bare-metal stents–> delay elective surgery ____ after placement
drug-eluding stents–> delay active surgery ____ after placement

A

6 weeks
6 months

Slide 44

120
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia on anti-coags

A

Slide 45

121
Q

warfarin reversal may be required for excessive ____ or ____
what is the DOC for emergent coumadin reversal (even though HL is short)?
Concurrent ____ required to restore carboxylation of vit-k dep factors by the liver for more sustained correction

A

bleeding, emergent surgery
PCC: prothrombin complex concentrates
vit k

Slide 46

122
Q

What is the reversal for direct thrombin inhibitors?
Half life is ____

A

no reversal
half life is relatively short

Slide 46

123
Q

We just said direct thrombin inhibitors do not have a reversal, but there is 1 exception! which drug has a reversal and what is the reversal?

A

dabigatran (pradaxa)–>antidote: idarucizumab

Slide 46

124
Q

DOAC factor Xa inhibitors may be reversed by ____ which is a derivative of Xa

A

Andexanet

Slide 46

125
Q

Which labs are required to monitor for each drug and possible reversal for each

Pic

A

Slide 47

126
Q

What are the names of each Factor?

A

I: fibrinogen
II: prothrombin
III: tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor, TF)
IV: Ca ions
V: labile factor
VII: stabile factor
VIII: antihemophillic factor
IX: plasma thromboplastin component
X: stewart prower factor
XI: plasma thromboplastin antecedent
XII: hageman factor
XIII: fibrin stabilizing factor

Slide 10