Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What is the anatomical relationship between the following joints?

a. The elbow in relation to the shoulder joint?
b. The elbow in relation to the metacarpalphalangeal joint?
c. The shoulder in relation to the sterno-clavicular joint?
d. The sterno-clavicular joint in relation to the acromioclavicular

joint?

A

What is the anatomical relationship between the following joints?

a. The elbow in relation to the shoulder joint?

Distal

b. The elbow in relation to the metacarpalphalangeal joint?

Proximal

c. The shoulder in relation to the sterno-clavicular joint?

Lateral

d. The sterno-clavicular joint in relation to the acromioclavicular

joint?

Medial

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2
Q

Name two long bones, one short bone, and one flat bone in the upper limb:

Long bone = Humerus, Ulna, Radius, metacarpals;

Short Bone = any of the Carpal bones;

Flat bone = Scapula

A

Name two long bones, one short bone, and one flat bone in the upper limb:

Long bone = Humerus, Ulna, Radius, metacarpals;

Short Bone = any of the Carpal bones;

Flat bone = Scapula

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3
Q

What factors are responsible for the appearance of tuberosities, tubercles, ridges and grooves on a typical long bone?

Tuberosities, tubercles and ridges

Grooves

A

What factors are responsible for the appearance of tuberosities, tubercles, ridges and grooves on a typical long bone?

Tuberosities, tubercles and ridges – mechanical forces resulting from

attachment of muscles, tendons and ligaments to bone.

Grooves – pressures from adjacent structures e.g. nerves and blood vessels

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4
Q

State the 3 mechanical functions of bones?

A

State the mechanical functions of bones?

Provide the rigid framework that supports the body.

Protect vulnerable internal organs (e.g. brain, heart, lungs, womb – developing pregnancy (pelvis) etc.).

Make body movements possible by providing anchoring points for muscles and by acting as levers at the joints.

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5
Q

What is the function of red bone marrow and erythropoietin?

A

What is the function of red bone marrow and erythropoietin?

Production of erythrocytes (erythropoiesis) occurs in red bone marrow.

Erythropoietin is released from the kidney when blood oxygen levels are low (e.g., anaemia) to stimulate red blood cell production

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6
Q

Joints may also be classified by their structure. Give the distinctive features of cartilaginous and fibrous joints and give an examples of each.

A

Joints may also be classified by their structure. Give the distinctive features of cartilaginous and fibrous joints and give an examples of each.

fibrous joints e.g the suture between the bones of the skull- tight union dense connective tissue. Fixed.

cartilaginous joints e.g. the intervertebral discs of the spine, pubic symphysis allow for more movement between 2 bones than a fibrous joint but not as much as a highly mobile synovial joint.

synovial joints e.g. knee joint

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7
Q

Why do childrens fractures heal more quckly than adult fractures?

A

Why do childrens fractures heal more quckly than adult fractures?

In children the periosteum is relatively thicker, stronger and more active than in an adult.

The periosteum is a vascular membrane and is a major source of blood supply to the bone.

In children the supply of blood and oxygen is better.

The periosteum can be intact even when a bone has fractured because in children it is thicker thus helping reduce (align) the fracture fragments, allowing more rapid union.

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8
Q

What are the three main components of ALL synovial joints and what are the functions of synovial fluid?

A

What are the three main components of ALL synovial joints and what are the functions of synovial fluid?

Articular surfaces cornered by hyaline cartilage, separated by joint cavity

Synovial membrane (lining cavity) that secretes synovial fluid

Protective capsule surrounds the joint

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9
Q

A man is trapped under a car, there are no tools to help free him but a witness tries to move the car. However despite significant effort the individual cannot move the car at all. What type of muscle contraction is occurring in the bicep during this scenario?

A

A man is trapped under a car, there are no tools to help free him but a witness tries to move the car. However despite significant effort the individual cannot move the car at all. What type of muscle contraction is occurring in the bicep during this scenario?

Isometric contraction, as the muscle is exerting a force but is at a constant length.

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10
Q

Describe the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction and why it is called the sliding filament theory. Describe the action of the cross bridges that cause a power stroke. What is the role of calcium and ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation? –

Include these keywords in your description: actin, myosin, myosin head, ATP, ADP+P, power stroke, cross bridges, tropomyosin, troponin, Ca2+, sarcoplasm, sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

The M line provides an attachment for myosin filaments and the Z line provides attachment for actin filaments. When the muscle is relaxed the protein, tropomyosin blocks the myosin binding site on the actin

Ca2+ binds to troponin on the actin myofilament, which undergoes a conformational change, this causes tropomyosin to move and reveal binding sites on actin for the myosin head groups.

The extended myosin heads bind to the actin and the bound ADP and phosphate molecule are released. The resulting formation is called a crossbridge.

The release of the ADP and phosphate cause the myosin heads to change back to their relaxed shape, so pulling the actin filaments toward the centre of the sarcomere. This movement is called the powerstroke.

The binding of another ATP molecule to the myosin heads trigger the release of myosin heads from the actin attachment sites.

The myosin heads acts as an ATPase. The breakdown of ATP to ADP and a single phosphate releases energy which extends the myosin head again.

If there is calcium present and there is a supply of ATP the cycle will repeat again. After the action potential has passed, the calcium channels close, calcium is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, this allows troponin to return to its previous state and the muscle relaxes.

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11
Q

Bisphosphonates in the long-term treatment of osteoporosis can cause femoral fractures (high stress area) as they block osteoclast activity. Why is this the case?

A

This is rare but is a known but paradoxical side effect.

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are coupled together and continually turn over bone, replacing old bone with new bone.

This is important in maintaining bone strength as the bone matrix doesn’t then fatigue over time and fracture.

The uncoupling of this activity eventually leads to poorer quality bone being layed down and micro fractures that eventually may cause overt fracture.

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12
Q

A 12-year-old boy is referred urgently by his GP. He has developed a limp. He has hip and knee pain too. There is no history of trauma, in fact he is rather overweight and sedentary. It’s got gradually worse over the last month. On examination he is holding his hip in passive external rotation and is out toeing on walking. He can weight bear to a degree. Although the hip can be passively externally rotated, internal rotation is very painful. The junior doctor orders an x-ray of his hip.

What might the doctor suspect?

What x-ray might he order?

A

What might the doctor suspect?

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis. During growth especially growth spurts the forces across the epiphyseal plate change resulting in increased chance of fracture and slippage.

Line of klein

What x-ray might he order?

Frog leg lateral xray of the hip. It is most sensitive at picking up the SUFE

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13
Q

A 6 year old boy has developed a mildly painful hip and is limping. He is not pyrexial and there has been no trauma. There are no other joints involved. It’s been some weeks. It’s mildly painful on rotation of the hip.

What key disease is important to exclude?

Perthes Disease

What other conditions can present with limp?

septic arthritis

proximal femoral osteomyelitis

proximal femoral fracture

acute or chronic slipped upper femoral epiphysis ( age of child main

difference)

transient synovitis ( often associated with a viral infection)

A

A 6 year old boy has developed a mildly painful hip and is limping. He is not pyrexial and there has been no trauma. There are no other joints involved. It’s been some weeks. It’s mildly painful on rotation of the hip.

What key disease is important to exclude?

What other conditions can present with limp?

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14
Q

It has been claimed that the cyclist Lance Armstrong changed the muscle fiber typing in his leg muscles via a training regime. In sprint and endurance cycling which fiber types would give you benefits and why?

A

It has been claimed that the cyclist Lance Armstrong changed the muscle fiber typing in his leg muscles via a training regime. In sprint and endurance cycling which fiber types would give you benefits and why?

Sprint cycling – fast fibers for short intense cycling the high levels of mitochondria and rich blood supply will be helpful

Endurance cycling- Slow fibers and they resist fatigue

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15
Q

In sprint and endurance athletes which sources of energy might you expect to be utilized by the skeletal muscle?

A

In sprint and endurance athletes which sources of energy might you expect to be utilized by the skeletal muscle?

Sprint- creatine phosphate for short bursts, followed by anaerobic conditions utilizing the glycolytic pathway

Endurance- in general oxidative phosphorylation is utilized but in defined periods, glycolytic pathways but be utilized.

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16
Q

What does the term claudication mean?

A

What does the term claudication mean?

Pain in the leg is induced by exercise, typically caused by obstruction of the arteries

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17
Q

Explain the difference between the two types of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Explain the difference between the two types of skeletal muscle contraction?

Isotonic- where the muscle changes length under a constant force

Isometric- where the muscle maintains a constant length whilst exerting a

force.

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18
Q

What are the 4 sources of energy that muscles can utilize for contraction?

A

What are the 4 sources of energy that muscles can utilize for contraction?

Local ATP stores

Creatine phosphate

Glycolytic pathway

Oxidative phosphorylation

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19
Q

Which ion channels are involved in generating an action potential?

A

Which ion channels are involved in generating an action potential?

Voltage-dependent sodium channels

and

voltage-dependent potassium channels

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20
Q

What do you understand by the terms absolute refractory period and relative refractory period of a nerve fibre?

A

What do you understand by the terms absolute refractory period and relative refractory period of a nerve fibre?

The absolute refractory period is the period immediately following an action potential during which it is impossible to cause it to fire another AP no matter how strong a stimulus is applied.

The relative refractory period is the period which follows the absolute refractory period, during which a nerve fibre will fire a second action potential, but needs a stronger stimulus than usual to do so. In other words it is a period during which the threshold is raised.

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21
Q

Callum, aged 12, was paying football. He did a penalty and as he did so felt a sudden pain in the front of his thigh. He limped off the pitch. He localised his pain to his groin and upper thigh and pain on hip flexion and knee extension.

Which muscle is likely to be damaged?

A

Rectus femoris.

In adolescence the muscles and tendons are strong but the growth plates of the bones are still open and therefore a weak point. They are unmineralised and are still cartilaginous. Therefore these injuries can result in tendon avulsion. In children the muscles and tendons are not strong enough to damage the tendon or bone and generally don’t have the contractile force for muscletears. (If they fall / have a force applied across a bone they fracture.

In adults the growth plates have fused and the bone is therefore no longer vulnerable. The muscle contraction is strong enough to cause Muscle tears and this occurs rather than a tendon avulsion.

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22
Q

In what tissues is creatinine kinase found?

A

In what tissues is creatinine kinase found?

CK is found in the mitochondria and cytoplasm (sarcoplasm) of skeletal muscle (predominantly), cardiac muscle, brain, and other visceral tissues

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23
Q

In what conditions might the creatinine kinase level be raised in the blood?

A

In what conditions might the creatinine kinase level be raised in the blood?

Increased CK is predominantly used to diagnose neuromuscular diseases and acute myocardial infarction. Myocarditis also.

Neuromuscular disorders include: myopathies, muscular dystrophy, rhabdomyolysis, drug-induced myopathies, euroleptic malignant syndrome, malignant hyperthermia, and periodic paralyses.

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24
Q

Why do we use cardiac troponin as a measure of damaged cardiac muscle now and not the cardiac specific creatinine kinase (CKMB)?

A

CK-MB makes up 5-7% of CK in skeletal muscle. Therefore, skeletal muscle injury can sometimes cause elevated CK-MB levels, leading to misinterpretation.

CK can also be elevated in the absence of neuromuscular diseases or cardiac injury, such as after strenuous exercise, intramuscular injection, and with renal disease. There is also a wide range of normal depending on muscle mass. Because of this, the sensitivity and specificity are not as high as for troponin levels.

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25
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

What is a motor unit?

A motor unit is a motor neuron an (efferent lower motor neuron )and the muscle cells it innervates. This can be few or many cells (2000). The synapse between the LMN and the muscle cell is called the NM junction.

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26
Q

What’s the difference between the motor units of the quadriceps femoris and the flexors of the hand

A

What’s the difference between the motor units of the quadriceps femoris and the flexors of the hand

Large Motor Unit and small Motor Unit - power vs agility.

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27
Q

What causes mucles wasting?

A

What causes mucles wasting?

Continual synthesis and breakdown of proteins in muscle is part of the normal metabolism and homeostasis. Disuse alters the metabolism. With disuse There is a reduction in synthesis of muscle protein. The driving force for atrophy seems to be reduction in synthesis. Rather than an increase in protein breakdown.

With disuse there is a decrease in muscle mass and a reduction in the crosssectional area of muscle fibres. There is no decrease in numbers of fibres.

Conversely increase in contractile load increases muscle mass and strength.

Insulin resistance within the muscle secondary to disuse has a role in driving atrophy as well as other less well understood molecular mechanisms.

This is different from wasting secondary to nerve damage – do not get confused. LMN damage causes atrophy hypotonia fasciculation and weakness and hyporeflexia

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28
Q

Explain the terms spatial summation and temporal summation.

A

Explain the terms spatial summation and temporal summation.

Spatial summation- the recruitment of more motor units within a muscle so the muscle contracts with more force

Temporal summation- increase in the frequency of action potentials from a single motor unit towards a muscle.

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29
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for producing the toxin that leads to tetanus?

Describe the action of the tetanus toxin in the body.

Name 2 general mechanisms by which muscles and neurones can communicate.

A

Which bacterium is responsible for producing the toxin that leads to tetanus?

Clostridium tetani

Describe the action of the tetanus toxin in the body.

The toxin blocks inhibitory motor feedback control which leads to unopposed or excessive stimulation of muscle contraction.

Name 2 general mechanisms by which muscles and neurones can communicate.

Neuromuscular junction and neurotransmitters

Crosstalk- release of signalling molecules such as cytokines, neurotrophins or insulin-like growth factors.

30
Q

Describe the process by which the action potential is transmitted from the nerve across the neuromuscular junction to the post-synaptic membrane?

A

Describe the process by which the action potential is transmitted from the nerve across the neuromuscular junction to the post-synaptic membrane?

The arrival of an action potential at the synaptic bouton triggers opening of voltage-gated calcium ion channels in the membrane which allows entry of some calcium ions. The increase in intracellular [Ca2+] causes vesicles containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach) to move to the membrane, fuse with it and release the acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.

The acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to nicotinic receptors on the muscle membrane. The channel has very little selectivity and its purpose is simply to raise the membrane potential to allow the propagation of the excitatory post-synaptic action potential in the muscle

31
Q

Describe the role of Ca2+ in the control of excitation-contraction in skeletal muscle?

A

Describe the role of Ca2+ in the control of excitation-contraction in skeletal muscle?

Ca2+ is required to initiate the interaction of the myosin and actin, although Ca2+ interacts with regulatory processes rather than the filaments themselves.

Ca2+ binds to the TnC subunit of troponin which in the absence of Ca2+ inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin by blocking the binding site.

Rises in intracellular Ca2+, from Ca2+ release of the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, initiate a conformational change in troponin structure and a release of the filament binding sites so contraction can occur.

32
Q

What was the characteristic syndrome produced by thalidomide?

A

What was the characteristic syndrome produced by thalidomide?

Thalidomide syndrome consisted of absence of limbs (Amelia), gross defects of the limbs (meromelia)

33
Q

Define the term Amelia?

Define the term Meromelia?

A

Define the term Amelia?

Absence of limbs

Define the term Meromelia?

Gross defects of the limbs

34
Q

What is the most common type of clubfoot, and how common is it?

A

What is the most common type of clubfoot, and how common is it?

The most common type of clubfoot is talipes equinovarus

Occurs in approximately 1/1000 new-born infants

35
Q

Describe the feet of infants born with this birth defect?

A

Describe the feet of infants born with this birth defect?

Soles of the feet are turned medially and the feet are sharply plantar flexed.

The feet are fixed in the tiptoe position, resembling the foot of a horse.

36
Q

Name and describe the main treatment technique for clubfoot?

A

Name and describe the main treatment technique for clubfoot?

Ponseti method

Involves the baby’s foot being gently manipulated into a better position and then being put in a cast. This is repeated weekly for around 8 weeks. After this the Achilles tendon is often cut to help release the foot. Special boots are then worn to keep foot in right position until the child reaches age 4/5.

37
Q

What is a myotome?

A

A particular group of muscles sharing nerve from spinal cord segment or brain stem

38
Q

Cervical nerves C5, C6 and C7 emerge above the corresponding numbered vertebra, while cervical nerve C8 emerges below vertebra C7.

Explain why this is so…

A

Cervical nerves C5, C6 and C7 emerge above the corresponding numbered vertebra, while cervical nerve C8 emerges below vertebra C7. Explain why this is so.

There is an extra spinal nerve between the 1st cervical vertebrae and the skull, so there 7 cervical vertebrae & 8 cervical nerves. From T1 down, the spinal nerves exit below their corresponding vertebra.

39
Q

The AER marks the boundary between the dorsal and ventral ectoderm. This forms an axial line. What does this mean in terms of sensory nerve supply to the limb

A

The AER marks the boundary between the dorsal and ventral ectoderm. This forms an axial line. What does this mean in terms of sensory nerve supply to the limb.

There is considerable overlap between adjacent dermatomes in terms of nerve supply so damage to one dorsal spinal root does not lead to anaesthesia to the entire dermatome as that area is innervated by other adjacent nerves e.g. C4,5,6 .

The line of junction between 2 dermatomes supplied from discontinuous spinal levels is known as the axial line.

There is no overlap in nerve supply at the axial line as this marks the embryonic boundary between flexor and extensor compartments (C5 not near T1).

40
Q

What is syndactyly?

A

What is syndactyly?

Skin webbing between her fingers. Fusion of fingers or toes. Syndactyly is most frequently observed between the third and fourth fingers and second and third toes

41
Q

Is syndactyly common?

A

Is syndactyly common?

Syndactyly (fusion of digits) is the most common type of limb defect. It varies from cutaneous webbing of the digits to synostosis (union of phalanges).

42
Q

Does syndactyly occur more often in the hands or the feet?

A

Does syndactyly occur more often in the hands or the feet?

It is more common in the foot than the hand

43
Q

What is the embryologic basis of syndactyly?

.

A

What is the embryologic basis of syndactyly?

This defect occurs when separate digital rays fail to form in the 5th week, or the webbing between the developing digits fails to break down between the sixth and eighth weeks. As a consequence separation of the digits does not occur.

Results from a lack of differentiation between two or more digits. Normally the mesenchyme in the periphery of the hand and foot plates condenses to form the primordial of the fingers and toes and the thinner tissue between them breaks down. In some cases, there is also fusion of the bones.

44
Q

What is the dermatome are you testing when you touch the distal ventral aspect of the little finger?

A

What is the dermatome are you testing when you touch the distal ventral aspect of the little finger?

C8

45
Q

What dermatome level are you testing when you touch the belly button (umbilicus)?

A

What dermatome level are you testing when you touch the belly button (umbilicus)?

T10

46
Q

When you test sensation in the regimental badge area, what cord levels are you testing and subsequently what major brachial plexus nerve?

A

When you test sensation in the regimental badge area, what cord levels are you testing and subsequently what major brachial plexus nerve?

Axillary nerve, C5, C6

47
Q

Explain polydactyly?

A

Explain polydactyly?

Supernumery (extra) fingers or toes; often an extra digit is incompletely formed and lacks proper muscle fixation. In the hand, the extra digit is either on the ulnar or radial side rather than central; in the foot it on the fibular side

48
Q

What is the structural difference between “cutaneous syndactyly” and “osseous syndactyly”?

A

Cutaneous syndactyly:

Webbing of the skin between the fingers and toes results from failure of this tissue to break down

Osseous syndactyly:

In some cases there is also a fusion of the bones

49
Q

What is the structural defect underlying congenital dislocation of the hip (CHD)?

A

What is the structural defect underlying congenital dislocation of the hip (CHD)?

Underdevelopment of acetabulum and head of femur

50
Q

CHD is associated with breech presentation (i.e. buttocks rather than head delivered first). Speculate on why this might be so?

A

CHD is associated with breech presentation (i.e. buttocks rather than head delivered first). Speculate on why this might be so?

Breech presentation may place undue pressure on the developing hip joint:

fails to complete normal development.

51
Q

What is mesenchyme?

A

What is mesenchyme?

This is primitive undifferentiated connective tissue. The proliferation of mesenchyme enables lengthening of the limbs

52
Q

What is the function of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER)?

A

What is the function of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER)?

Stimulates outgrowth of limb and maintains undifferentiated state in mesenchyme immediately underlying it.

This enables proliferation and lengthening of the limb bud. The AER ensures limb growth is proximal to distal. Lastly it induces development of the digits in the hands and feet.

It disappears when it is no longer needed (regresses).

53
Q

Explain what happens if the AER is disrupted and give one mechanism causing its disruption.

A

Explain what happens if the AER is disrupted and give one mechanism causing its disruption.

No limb growth/shortened limbs; interference affecting blood vessels of AER

54
Q

What does the remnant of the notochord become and what is its clinical relevance?

A

What does the remnant of the notochord become and what is its clinical relevance?

It becomes the nucleousus propulsus (the jelly ) in the middle of the intervertebral discs between the spinal vertebrae If this herniates and presses on an exiting spinal nerve, then this is often called a “slipped disc “in lay terms.

This happens commonly at L4/5. If this happened at L4/5 then usually the L5 root nerve is most affected, typically causing pain radiating down the leg to the big toe and weakness of extensor pollicis longus.

55
Q

What are the key surface anatomy anchors when looking at the dermatomes of the trunk?

A

What are the key surface anatomy anchors when looking at the dermatomes of the trunk?

T4 nipples

T6 xiphistermun

T10 umbelicus

T12 pubis

56
Q

Label dermatomes C5 to T1 and L1 to S3 on the following diagrams.

A
57
Q

Indicate by shading precisely where you would test these nerves in a suspected lesion (e.g., radial nerve, dorsum of the hand, first web space).

A
58
Q
A
59
Q
A
60
Q
A
61
Q
A
62
Q

Where does pectoralis major attach?

Which movements does pectoralis major control?

A

Where does pectoralis major attach?

clavicle, sternum & adjacent costal cartilages and the lateral lip of the intertubercular groove

Which movements does pectoralis major control?

Adducts & medially rotates the shoulder and acts as an accessory breathing muscle​

63
Q

Where does pectoralis minor attach?

Which movements does pectoralis minor control?

A

Where does pectoralis minor attach?

Attaches to ribs 3-5 and the coracoid process

Which movements does pectoralis minor control?

Depresses & protracts the scapula ‘divides’ axillary artery into 3 parts​

64
Q
A
65
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A
66
Q

What is the difference between deep veins and superficial veins?

A

Deep veins accompany major arteries and carry the same name as their corresponding artery.

Superficial veins do NOT run with arteries and are subcutaneous.

67
Q
A
68
Q

Why is the shoulder joint inherently unstable?

A

Why is the shoulder joint inherently unstable?

  • Glenoid cavity shallow
  • Disproportion of articular surfaces
  • Multiplanar movements
  • Lax capsule
69
Q

Rotator Cuff Muscles

A

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres Minor

Subscapularis

70
Q
A