Mechanisms of disease Flashcards

1
Q

Give four other complications of gallstones and explain why they occur.

A

Biliary colic and jaundice – due to impaction of a stone in the common bile duct leading to biliary obstruction.

Pancreatitis – inflammation of the pancreas due to impaction of a gallstone distal to the opening of the pancreatic duct.

Cholecystitis – inflammation of the gallbladder caused by impaction of a stone in the neck of the gall bladder or cystic duct.

Gallstone ileus – this is intestinal obstruction by a gallstone that has entered the gut through a fistulous connection with the gallbladder.

Mucocele - an over distended gallbladder filled with mucoid material. Usually non- inflammatory, it results from outlet obstruction of the gallbladder and is commonly caused by an impacted stone in the neck of the gallbladder or in the cystic duct.

Predisposition to carcinoma of the gallbladder – pathogenesis unclear but could be due to repeated trauma to gallbladder epithelium resulting in increased epithelial turnover and increased risk of mutations occurring during DNA replication.

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2
Q

What are the 4 types of chemotherapy agents?

A

Antimetabolites- mimic normal substrates involved in DNA replication

Alkylating agents - cross-link the two strands of the DNA helix.

Antibiotics - inhibits DNA topoisomerase, which is needed for DNA synthesis, while bleomycin causes double-stranded DNA breaks.

Plant-derived drugs - blocks microtubule assembly and interferes with mitotic spindle formation.

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3
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Transient ischaemic attack, usually secondary to microemboli originating from the heart or carotid or vertebral arteries.

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4
Q

What is Scrofula?

A

TB nodes in cervical region.

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5
Q

Local complications of inflammation

A
  • Swelling e.g. airway (acute epiglottis), enclosed spaces - acute bacterial meningitis -> raised intracranial pressure -> ischaemia +/-coning
  • Inappropriate inflammation e.g. hypersensitivity reactions
  • Exudation of fluid e.g. pericardial space following MI -> tamponade (prevents pumping of heart) • Loss of fluid, shock e.g. burns
  • Prolonged pain and loss of function
  • Digestion of host tissues by harmful enzymes released by neutrophils e.g. vascular damage in glomerulonephritis.
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6
Q

What is a saddle embolus?

A

A large embolus straddling the pulmonary artery bifurcation.

This results in blockage of pulmonary arterial blood flow to the lungs and sudden death.

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7
Q

What is the name of the process that distal nerve fibres undergo following damage?

A

Wallerian degeneration.

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8
Q

Summarise the laboratory diagnosis of alcoholic liver disease

A

Acute alcoholic liver disease – a hepatic picture is seen.

Chronic alcoholic liver disease – fulminant liver failure is seen.

Raised bilirubin, raised alkaline phosphatase, raised gamma GT (glutamyl transpeptidase).

(NB: See raised alkaline phosphatase and gamma GT with damage to bile canaliculus (these are plasma membrane enzymes)).

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9
Q

Which benign tumours cause a high serum calcium and how?

A

Which benign tumours cause a high serum calcium and how? Primary parathyroid adenomas produce hyperparathyroidism. There is an increase in parathyroid hormone which results in:

  • Raised serum ionised calcium and bone resorption
  • Hypophosphataemia
  • Increased excretion of calcium and phosphate in the urine

Classically the symptoms are of painful bones (fractures), renal stones, Abdominal groans (constipation, peptic ulcers, pancreatitis, gallstones) and psychic moans (depression, lethargy, seizures).

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10
Q

What is a Ranke complex?

A

This is seen in ‘healed’ primary tuberculosis comprising of a ghon focus and an ipsilateral calcified hilar node.

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11
Q

What are the six hallmarks of cancer?

A

Self-sufficient growth signals: e.g. HER2 gene amplification (breast cancer)

Resistance to anti-growth signals: e.g. CDKN2A gene deletion
(cyclin dependant kinase inhibitor ) (Melanoma)

Grow indefinitely: e.g. Telomerase gene activation (most cancers)

Induce new blood vessels: e.g. Activation of VEGF expression (many cancers)

Resistance to apoptosis: e.g. BCL2 gene translocation (lymphoma)

Invade & produce metastases: e.g. E-cadherin mutation (gastric cancer)

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12
Q

What are the stages of scar formation?

A

Seconds - minutes: haemostasis

Minutes - hours: acute inflammation

1-2 days: chronic inflammation

3 days: granulation tissue forms

7-10 days: early scar

Weeks – 2 years: scar maturation

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13
Q

Which stem cells divide permanently in order to replenish losses?

A

labile stem cells

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14
Q

How does Helicobacter pylori cause gastritis?

A

Causes gastritis by stimulating production of pro-inflammatory cytokines and by directly injuring epithelial cells and increasing acid secretion.

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15
Q

Acute appendicitis is a mysterious disease. Its cause is poorly understood. What predisposing factors have been described?

A

Presence of seeds or pinworms in the appendix.

Impaction of the neck of the appendix by a faecolith.

Lymphoid hyperplasia within the wall of the appendix (occurs in childhood and some viral infections such as adenovirus and measles).

Tumour within the appendix.

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16
Q

What is a pressure sore and why do they occur?

A

Pressure sores (also known as bed sores, pressure ulcers and decubitus ulcers (decubitis is the act of lying down)) are ulcerated areas of skin caused by continuous pressure from the weight of the body on that area resulting in skin ischaemia .

They are most common over bony prominences (where the bones are close to the skin) such as heels, sacrum, elbows, hips, back of the head and shoulders.

There is compression of the skin and underlying tissues and blood vessels can be damaged.

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17
Q

What makes cells monoclonal?

A

A collection of cells is monoclonal if they all originated from a single founding cell.

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18
Q

Why does LDL have a longer half life than other lipoproteins?

A

LDLs do not have apoC or apoE so are not efficiently cleared by liver (Liver LDL-Receptor has a high affinity for apoE).

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19
Q

What are the 3 different types of cell signalling?

A

Autocrine – the same secreting and responding cell

Paracrine – secreting cell and responding cell are different

Endocrine- Endocrine organs synthesise hormones-conveyed through blood stream- target organs distant from site of synthesis

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20
Q

What is a corneal arcus and what is its significance?

A

A greyish-white ring opacity at the periphery of the cornea. They are due to lipid infiltration of the corneal stroma.

They can occur in healthy elderly people when they have no significance. If they occur in younger people they are an indication of hypercholesterolaemia, especially homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia.

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21
Q
A
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22
Q

What are the main cellular and non-cellular constituents of granulation tissue?

What is its function?

A

Granulation tissue – cellular constituents: macrophages, other inflammatory cells, fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, endothelial cells; non-cellular constituents: exudate fluid, fibrin, extracellular matrix proteins (e.g. collagen).

Function of granulation tissue – tissue repair and walling off the wound to try to prevent any infection present from spreading. New vessels bring cells and substances for healing. Granulation tissue contracts and helps close the wound.

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23
Q

List four of the possible complications of meningitis.

A

Cerebral abscess Subdural empyema

Cerebral thrombophlebitis

Cerebral infarction due to obliterative endarteritis of local arteries

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

Neurological damage including:

  • Sensorineural hearing loss
  • Cranial nerve palsies
  • Epilepsy
  • Learning and behavioural difficulties
  • Focal neurological deficits

Obstructive hydrocephalus due to subarachnoid adhesions blocking flow of CSF. This can result in neurological damage.

Adrenal haemorrhage (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome) causing adrenocortical insufficiency – pathogenesis unclear

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24
Q

Summarise the laboratory diagnosis of hepatitis

A

Laboratory diagnosis:

  • Raised serum ALT, AST and LDH. These are cytosolic hepatocellular enzymes and their presence in the blood indicates poor hepatocyte integrity.
  • Raised bilirubin (often conjugated) – indicates poor biliary excretory function.
  • Decreased albumin, raised PT (reliant on factors 2,7,9,10 produced by the liver), raised ammonia – these findings indicate poor hepatocyte function.
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25
Q

In a lung suffering from a pulmonary embolism, what colour will the tissue be?

A

It will be red.

The lung has a dual blood supply.

Occlusion of the main blood supply causes an infarct.

The collateral arterial supply is insufficient to rescue the tissue but does allow blood to enter the dead tissue creating a red infarct.

Also the lung has loose stroma which allows bleeding to occur into the infarct.

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26
Q

What is Acute ITP?

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura – an idiopathic condition that presents with a purpuric rash and low platelets. Patients produce autoantibodies against platelet membrane glycoproteins. The onset is abrupt but often preceded by a viral illness. It usually resolves spontaneously in 6 months.

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27
Q

Are there any tumour markers of value in monitoring cancers of the large intestine?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA).

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28
Q

What are the complications of fibrous repair?

A

Formation of adhesions : Compromising organ function or blocking tubes, e.g., intestinal obstruction following abdominal surgery

Loss of function: Due to replacement of specialised functional parenchymal cells by scar tissue, e.g., healed myocardial infarction with non-contracting area of myocardium

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29
Q

Chemical mediator groups

A

VASOACTIVE AMINES

Histamine: Mast cells, basophils + platelets

Serotonin (5-HT): Platelets

VASOACTIVE PEPTIDES

Bradykinin: From plasma precursor kininogen, causes: ↑ vascular permeability, dilatation of blood vessels and pain

Prostaglandins: From membrane phospholipids by cyclo-oxygenase, vasodilatation

Factors from neutrophils and platelets:

C3a, C5a, IL-1, f​

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30
Q

What is DIC?

A

It is characterised by activation of coagulation resulting in formation of microthrombi in the microcirculation. There is consumption of clotting factors and platelets and activation of fibrinolysis. This in turn leads to haemorrhage.

The following processes come into play:

  • Microthrombi formation causing tissue ischaemia .
  • Haemorrhage – this may be very severe and is seen from mucous membranes and into the skin or internal organs including the brain.
  • Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia – as red blood cells squeeze through vessels narrowed by microthrombi.
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31
Q

Why do aortic aneurysms occur?

A

The media of the aorta is weakened by atheroma and no longer has elastic recoil as elastin fibres are destroyed by atherosclerosis.

Laplace’s law – for a given pressure, increased radius requires increased wall thickness to accommodate a stable wall tension.

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32
Q

4 main systemic effects of inflammation

A

1. Pyrexia

  • Bacterial endotoxins
  • Pyrogenic cytokines, e.g. TNF, IL-2, from macrophages and neutrophils, act on anterior hypothalamus, ↑ synthesis of prostaglandin E2 (why aspirin reduces fever)

2. Leucocytosis (↑ WCC)

– Macrophages + endothelial cells release colony-stimulating factors so BM produces more leucocytes

– IL-1 and TNFa accelerate release from BM

– Bacterial infections = ↑neutrophils

– viral = ↑lymphocytes

3. Acute phase response in liver

Constitutional symptoms (malaise, anorexia, nausea)

– acute phase proteins: fibrinogen, CRP (C-reactive protein), alpha1 antitrypsin, Haptoglobin, Serum amyloid A protein

– reduced protein synthesis

4. Shock = circulatory failure (clinical syndrome)

• Due to spread of microorganisms and toxins (septic shock). Often fatal

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33
Q

What is the difference between lobar and bronchopneumonia?

A

Lobar pneumonia affects all or part of a lobe with other areas generally normal.

Bronchopneumonia is especially seen in young and old patients. It has a patchy distribution and generally involves more than one lobe.

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34
Q

How is Hodgkin’s disease staged?

A
  1. Single node/groups
  2. Two or more groups on the same side of the diaphragm
  3. Disease both sides of the diaphragm
  4. Involvement of extralymphatic organs, e.g. liver, lung, bone marrow
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35
Q

Name the 4 growth factors

A
  • Epidermal growth factor
  • Vascular endothelial growth factor
  • Platelet-derived growth factor
  • Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
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36
Q

What is the molecular defect in this Heterozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia?

A

Underproduction or malproduction of LDL clearance receptor in the liver.

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37
Q

What causes Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

Defective conversion of procollagen to tropocollagen

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38
Q

Name the 4 cancer screen programmes in the UK

A

Cervical Screening - 25-64 year old women

Breast Screening - 50 -70 year old women every 3 years

Bowel Cancer Screening - 60-69 year old men and women.

Bowel scope screening programme - 55 year olds

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39
Q

Which malignancies are associated with Helicobacter pylori gastritis?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma.

MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) lymphoma.

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40
Q

What is a polyp?

A

A growth, usually benign, with a stalk, protruding from a mucus membrane.

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41
Q

Neutrophil extravasation (emigration) different receptors/chemical mediators at each stage:

A

ROLLING: selectins expressed by endothelial cells bind to carbohydrate ligands (sLex) on neutrophils. Increased by several cytokines secreted by macrophages, mast cells and endothelial cells e.g. IL-1 and TNF

ADHESION: integrins expressed by neutrophils bind to integrin ligands on the endothelium. C5a, leukotriene B4, IL-1 and TNF increase expression.

DIAPEDESIS: chemotaxins e.g. C5a, leukotriene B4, bacterial peptides stimulate neutrophils to migrate through the inter-endothelial cell junctions

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42
Q

What are the two main processes seen in necrosis?

A
  1. Denaturation of intracellular proteins
  2. Enzymatic digestion by lysosomes inherent to the dying cell and lysosomes of leukocytes that are part of the inflammatory reaction
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43
Q

What is gangrene?

A

The clinical term used to describe visible necrosis.

May be wet, dry, or gaseous

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44
Q

What are myofibroblasts and what is their function?

A

Fibroblasts that develop a contraction phenotype.

They resemble smooth muscle cells and are intermediate between fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells.

They contract and help close the wound

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45
Q

What is vascular endothelial growth factor?

A
  • Potent inducer of blood vessel development (vasculogenesis) and role in growth of new blood vessels (angiogenesis) in tumours, chronic inflammation and wound healing
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46
Q

What are the 4 stages of haemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm

Primary haemostasis - formation of unstable platelet plug

Secondary haemostasis - stabilisation of plug with fibrin (blood coagulation system)

Dissolution of clot and vessel repair (fibrinolysis)

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47
Q

What is a pipelle biopsy?

A

A process for taking a biopsy of the endometrium using a plastic tube (the pipelle ) inserted through the cervical os and which uses suction to obtain endometrial tissue.

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48
Q

What are the 4 roles of neutrophils in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils migrate to site of injury by chemotaxis

Phagocytose and kill microorganisms

Eliminate foreign material and necrotic tissue

Produce growth factors for repair

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49
Q

Briefly describe how breast cancer is graded.

A

Bloom-Richardson grading system which assesses tubule (glandular) formation, nuclear pleomorphism and mitotic rate within the tumour, i.e. how well differentiated the tumour is.

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50
Q

Describe what is meant by the term acid fast

A

Retains stains even on treatment with a mixture of acid and alcohol.

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51
Q

Which three alterations must occur before carcinoma cells can invade surrounding tissue?

A

altered adhesion, stromal proteolysis and motility

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52
Q

How are prostatic carcinomas graded?

A

Gleason grading – based on the pattern of glandular differentiation.

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53
Q

What is the name of a benign tumour of glandular epithelium?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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54
Q

What is the hallmark of reversible cell injury?

A

Swelling of the cell

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55
Q

What are growth factors?

A
  • Local mediators involved in cell proliferation
  • Coded by proto oncogenes
  • Polypeptides that act on the cell surface
  • Local hormones
  • They stimulate cell proliferation but may also affect cell locomotion, contractility, differentiation and angiogenesis.
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56
Q

What occurs in healing by secondary intention?

A

Considerable wound contraction must take place to close wound

Substantial scar formation, new epidermis often thinner than usual

Takes longer than healing by primary intention

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57
Q

What are the mechanisms of vascular leakage?

A

Endothelial cell contraction: Chemical mediators e.g. histamine, C5a, NO

Endothelial cell injury: Direct e.g. trauma, chemicals, microbial toxins or ndirect e.g. toxic oxygen species and proteolytic enzymes from neutrophils

Structural re-organisation of cytoskeleton: Cytokine mediated e.g. interleukin-1, TNF

Transcytosis: VEGF induces ↑ channels in endothelial cells

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58
Q

What is a Pleomorphism?

A

Variation in size and shape, occurs in neoplastic cells and nuclei.

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59
Q

What is anaplasia?

A

Lack of differentiation (‘to form backwards’).

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60
Q

Main steps involved in invasion of extracellular matrix

A
  • Detachment of tumour cells from one another by unzipping of the anchor protein E-cadherin.
  • Degradation of the extracellular matrix by collagenase attacking the collagen fibres of the basement membrane
  • Loss of adhesion of cells from integrins: this process should induce apoptosis but fails to in tumour cells.
  • Migration of tumour cells through the extracellular matrix.
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61
Q

What are the clinical features of ulcerative colitis?

A

Inflammation is limited to mucosa and submucosa

Crypt abscesses common

Distorted crypt architecture very common

Significant increased risk of colon cancer

Often most severe in distal colon

Colectomy often indicated

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62
Q

4 main systemic effects of acute inflammation

A

Pyrexia

Leucocytosis (↑ WCC)

Acute phase response in liver

Shock = circulatory failure (clinical syndrome)

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63
Q

What happens during primary haemostasis?

A
  1. Formation of primary haemostat plug
  2. Platelets adhere to subendothelial structures via von Willebrand factor (VWF)
  3. adhere to each other (aggregation)
  4. form a platelet plug held to together by insoluble fibrin
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64
Q

How is asbestos thought to cause cancer?

A

It is an initiator and a promoter (it is proinflammatory).

It generates free radicals. It absorbs toxic elements onto the fibres.

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65
Q

Name the 3 irreversible nuclear changes

A

pkynosis

karyorrhexis

karyolysis

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66
Q

What is ‘proud flesh’? If necessary how is it treated?

A

Hypertrophy of granulation tissue that grows above the surface of the surrounding skin and blocks reepithelialisation . It is treated by cautery or surgical removal.

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67
Q

Summary of role of neutrophils in acute inflammation

A
  1. Neutrophils migrate to site of injury by chemotaxis
  2. Phagocytose and kill microorganisms
  3. Eliminate foreign material and necrotic tissue
  4. Produce growth factors for repair
  5. Activated neutrophils may release toxic metabolites and enzymes causing damage to normal host tissue
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68
Q

What is platelet-derived growth factor?

A
  • Stored in platelet alpha granules and released on platelet activation
  • Also produced by macrophages, endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells and tumour cells
  • Causes migration and proliferation of fibroblasts, smooth muscle cells and monocytes
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69
Q

Which other staging methods are used for other specific cancers?

A

Dukes staging for colorectal cancers

Ann Arbor staging for lymphomas

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70
Q
  1. Rare type of cancer that usually affects the bones of children and adolescents –
  2. Benign tumour of cartilage –
  3. Often produces CEA –
  4. Commonest cause of cancer death in the UK –
  5. Has a known association with Aspergillus flavus –
  6. Tumour that can produce 5HT –
  7. Tumour that is usually benign in the ovary and malignant in the testis –
  8. Associated with EBV –
  9. Malignant tumour of blood vessels –
  10. A cancer of the skin that rarely metastasises –
  11. Malignant tumour of skeletal muscle –
  12. Benign tumour of melanocytes –
  13. Produces vanillyl mandelic acid –
  14. Another name for nephroblastoma –
  15. Tumour, often within the skin and frequently associated with HIV infection –
  16. Tumour of the thyroid gland that can produce calcitonin -
  17. Common tumour of the bladder–
  18. Associated with asbestos exposure –
  19. Often produces human chorionic gonadotropin –
  20. Type of lung tumour most often associated with ectopic production of ADH –
A
  1. Rare type of cancer that usually affects the bones of children and adolescents – Ewing’s sarcoma
  2. Benign tumour of cartilage – chondroma
  3. Often produces CEA – colon cancer
  4. Commonest cause of cancer death in the UK – lung cancer
  5. Has a known association with Aspergillus flavus – hepatocellular carcinoma
  6. Tumour that can produce 5HT – carcinoid tumour
  7. Tumour that is usually benign in the ovary and malignant in the testis – teratoma
  8. Associated with EBV – Burkitt’s lymphoma
  9. Malignant tumour of blood vessels – angiosarcoma
  10. A cancer of the skin that rarely metastasises – basal cell carcinoma
  11. Malignant tumour of skeletal muscle – rhabdomyosarcoma
  12. Benign tumour of melanocytes – naevus
  13. Produces vanillyl mandelic acid – phaeochromocytoma
  14. Another name for nephroblastoma – Wilm’s tumour
  15. Tumour, often within the skin and frequently associated with HIV infection – Kaposi’s sarcoma
  16. Tumour of the thyroid gland that can produce calcitonin - medullary carcinoma
  17. Common tumour of the bladder– transitional cell carcinoma
  18. Associated with asbestos exposure – malignant mesothelioma
  19. Often produces human chorionic gonadotropin – choriocarcinoma
  20. Type of lung tumour most often associated with ectopic production of ADH – small cell carcinoma
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71
Q

What is Trousseau’s syndrome? Why does it occur?

A

It is the increased risk of thromboembolism in disseminated cancers.

It occurs as tumours produce inflammation and tissue injury causing release of procoagulants.

Some also produce and release mucin which is also a procoagulant.

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72
Q

What are oncogenes?

A

are abnormally activated versions of normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Only one allele of each proto-oncogene needs to be activated to favour neoplastic growth.

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73
Q

What does healing by “first intention” mean?

A

Healing by first intention - the healing that is seen in a clean wound opposed by sutures. The wound consists of a narrow space and there is limited epithelial and soft tissue destruction.

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74
Q

By what mechanisms can malignant tumours cause high serum calcium and which tumours can do this?

A
  1. Ectopic secretion of PTH-related protein in a paraneoplastic syndrome:
  • Paraneoplastic syndrome = a disease or symptom that is the consequence of the presence of cancer in the body, but is not due to the local presence of cancer cells. These phenomena are mediated by humoral factors (by hormones or cytokines) excreted by tumour cells or by an immune response against a tumour.
  • Seen in carcinomas of breast, lung (especially squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma), kidney and ovary. • = humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy.
  1. Destruction of bone tissue:
  • Primary tumours of bone, e.g. multiple myeloma, leukaemia.
  • Diffuse skeletal metastases, e.g. breast cancer.
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75
Q

Examples of some antiinflammatories

A

Aspirin / NSAIDs e.g. naproxen, meloxicam

Antihistamines

Corticosteroids

Leukotriene antagonists e.g. Montelukast

TNF alpha antagonists e.g. Infliximab

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76
Q

Complement system

A
  • Inactive enzymatic proteins (e.g. C3a, C5a) made in liver, present in blood
  • Activated by variety of mechanisms: proteolytic enzymes from necrotic cells, anitgen-antibody complexes in infection, gram -ve bacterial (classic and alternate pathways, respectively) and by products of kinin and fibrinolytic systems.
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77
Q

What is a scar?

A

Healing with the formation of fibrous connective tissue.

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78
Q

Are there any blood tests that might help in identifying sarcoidosis?

A

Serum calcium concentration and serum angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) levels are both raised in sarcoidosis.

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79
Q

What does triple negative mean and what implications does this have for the treatment of the patient?

A

Triple negative cancers do not express oestrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR) or Her2 receptors.

Therefore, these cancers do not respond to endocrine treatment or treatment with Herceptin (trastuzumab). However, they often show a better response to chemotherapy than some other breast cancers.

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80
Q

What does mitochondrial membrane damage result in?

A

i. Loss of the electron transport chain (inner mitochondrial membrane)
ii. Cytochrome C leaking into cytosol (activates apoptosis)

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81
Q

Why is DVT often asymptomatic?

A

Because collateral venous channels open up to aid circulation.

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82
Q

What is a blastoma

A

tumours arise from precursor cells and are composed of cells with immature characteristics seen in developing (embryonic) stages. Generally a tumour of infants /children. eg nephroblastoma, neuroblastoma, pulmonary blastoma, retinoblastoma

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83
Q

What is the cause of liquefactive necrosis?

A

degradation of tissue by enzymes

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84
Q

What types of giant cell do you know and when are they commonly seen?

A

Langhans type giant cells – seen in tuberculosis.

Touton giant cells – seen in lesions containing a lot of fat.

Foreign body giant cells – generated in response to the presence of a large foreign body

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85
Q

The illustration below comes from the patient’s liver biopsy. What is indicated by the arrow?

A

An apoptotic cell (also called Councilman bodies in the liver).

86
Q

What is the cause of coagulative necrosis?

A

protein denaturation

87
Q

How does bone heal?

A

Haematoma: fills gap and surrounds injury

Granulation tissue forms: cytokines activate osteoprogenitor cells

Soft callus: at 1 week, fibrous tissue and cartilage within which woven bone forms

Hard callus: after several weeks, initially woven bone –weaker and less organised than lamellar bone but can form quickly

Lamellar bone: replaces woven bone, remodelled to direction of mechanical stress, bone not stressed is resorbed and outline is re-established

88
Q

What is the mechanism by which a pulmonary embolism causes death?

A

Respiratory compromise – there is a non-perfused but ventilated area of lung, i.e. a ventilation-perfusion mismatch which results in hypoxaemia.

Haemodynamic compromise – there is an increased resistance to pulmonary blood flow due to obstruction of the pulmonary vessels by the embolus. This results in acute right sided heart failure (acute cor pulmonale).

89
Q
  • Vasodilatation:
  • Increased vascular permeability:
  • Neutrophil chemotaxis, recruitment and activation:
  • Phagocytosis:
  • Fever:
  • Itching + Pain:
A
  • Vasodilatation: histamine, prostaglandins, bradykinin, NO
  • Increased vascular permeability: histamine, bradykinin, C5a + C5b, NO leukotrienes
  • Neutrophil chemotaxis, recruitment and activation: C5a, LTB4, bacterial peptides
  • Phagocytosis: Fc (e.g. IgG antibody) and C3b = opsonins
  • Fever: IL-1, TNF, prostaglandins
  • Itching + Pain: bradykinin, serotonin and prostaglandins
90
Q

Which three cell types are most commonly seen in the inflammatory infiltrate of rheumatoid arthritis?

What are the main functions of these cells?

A

Lymphocytes – specific immune response, cytokine production.

Macrophages – phagocytosis, cytokine production.

Plasma cells – antibody production.

91
Q

What is tamoxifen?

A

Tamoxifen is one of a class of drugs called selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERMS). It is antioestrogenic and used to treat women who have had oestrogen receptor positive breast cancers. In these tumours it antagonises the oestrogen receptor and blocks the proliferative action of oestrogen.

However, within the endometrium, tamoxifen has some oestrogenic activity and acts as an agonist at oestrogen receptors (as it acts as an antagonist at some receptors and an agonist at others it is a partial agonist). It can therefore cause endometrial hyperplasia.

92
Q

Patients with ulcerative colitis may develop complications in organs or tissues other than the gastrointestinal system.

Which organs/tissues can be involved and what complications can occur in them?

A

Skin – erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum.

Liver – pericholangitis , sclerosing cholangitis, hepatitis, cirrhosis.

Eye – iritis, uveitis, episcleritis.

Joints – ankylosing spondylitis, arthritis

93
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic inflammation?

A

Characterised by the microscopic appearances which are much more variable than acute inflammation.

Granulation tissue.

94
Q

What type of necrosis will be seen microscopically in the heart?

A

Coagulative necrosis.

95
Q

What is a Myeloma

A

Malignant tumour of plasma cells.

96
Q

What major side effects does tamoxifen have?

A
  • Endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma.
  • Increased risk of DVT and PE.
97
Q

What is the sequence of events that led to a deep vein thrombosis?

A

Limited calf muscle contraction during immobility which reduces the milking action of the calf muscles. This leads to stasis of blood within the veins and then thrombosis.

This may be compounded by other risk factors such as smoking, obesity, pregnancy, the oral contraceptive pill, and dehydration (which can be induced by drinking alcohol).

98
Q

What is fat necrosis?

A

destruction to adipocytes as a consequence of trauma or secondary release of lipases from damaged pancreatic tissue

99
Q

What are microscopic features seen within the joints in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Chronic inflammatory synovitis.

Erosion of articular cartilage.

100
Q

How are fibrillar collagens made?

A

Polypeptide alpha chains synthesised in ER of fibroblasts and myofibroblasts

Enzymatic modification steps including vitamin C dependent hydroxylation

Alpha chains align and cross-link to form procollagen triple helix

Soluble procollagen is secreted

After secretion procollagen cleaved to give tropocollagen

Tropocollagen polymerises to form microfibrils and then fibrils

101
Q

What is the cause of fibrinoid necrosis?

A

deposits of “immune complexes” together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels

102
Q

3 changes in tissue in acute inflammation

A
  1. Changes in blood flow - ↑ blood flow
  2. Exudation of fluid into tissues
  3. Infiltration of inflammatory cells

1 and 2 = Vascular phase 3 = Cellular phase

103
Q

Describe the four pathological stages of lobar pneumonia.

A

1. Congestion – the lobe is heavy, red and boggy. There is vascular congestion. Proteinaceous fluid, scattered neutrophils and many bacteria are present in the alveoli.

2. Red hepatisation – occurs after a few days. The affected lung has a liverlike consistency. The alveolar spaces are packed with neutrophils, red cells and fibrin. There is a fibrinous or fibropurulent exudate (pus) on the adjacent pleura.

3. Grey hepatisation – the lung tissue is dry, grey and firm. Red cells get lysed, fibrous exudate persists within alveoli.

4. Resolution – the exudate is enzymatically digested and resorbed or expectorated. The basic architecture of the lung is left intact.

104
Q

Which women are screened as part of the UK breast screening program?

A

Women aged between 47 and 73 years.

They are screened with two view mammograms (x-rays of the breast). Every three years.

105
Q

What regulates the cell cycle?

A

Progression through the cell cycle, and particularly the G1/S transition, is tightly regulated by proteins called cyclins and associated enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs). CDKs become active by binding to and complexing with cyclins.

106
Q

How does a keloid scar differ from a hypertrophic scar?

A

A hypertrophic scar is a raised scar but one that doesn’t grow beyond the boundaries of the original wound. It can regress.

A keloid scar grows beyond the edges of the wound and doesn’t regress.

107
Q

What is a Ghon focus?

A

A calcified tuberculous granuloma in the lung.

108
Q

What is the cause of caseous necrosis?

A

amorphous debris surrounded by histocytes resulting in granulomatous formation

109
Q

If left to heal by itself, what type of healing occurs?

A

Healing by secondary intention.

110
Q

What does the term hemiplegia mean?

A

Paralysis of one side of the body

111
Q

Summarise the laboratory diagnosis of myocardial infarction

A

We measure blood levels of intracellular macromolecules that leak out of fatally injured myocardial cells through damaged cell membranes.

Now we measure primarily cardiac troponin T (TnT). Other proteins that can be measured are troponin I (TnI), creatine kinase (CK, CK-MB), lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and myoglobin.

Troponins are proteins that regulate contraction of muscle.

They are increased in the blood at 2-4 hours post-MI and peak at 48 hours. They remain elevated for 7-10 days

112
Q

What is a berry aneurysm?

A

A common form of intracranial aneurysm, they are congenital or secondary to blood vessel injury.

They commonly occur within the circle of Willis and the adjacent arteries. After rupture, the blood accumulates in the subarachnoid space.

113
Q

What are the inducers of apoptosis?

A

growth factor withdrawal

loss of matrix attachment

glucocorticoids

viruses

free radicals

ionising radiation

114
Q

Main steps involved in invasion of the stroma

A
  • The cells must degrade basement membrane and stroma to invade. This involves altered expression of proteases, notably matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs).
  • Malignant cells take advantage of nearby non-neoplastic cells, which together form a cancer niche.
  • These normal cells provide some growth factors and proteases.
  • Altered motility involves changes in the actin cytoskeleton. Signalling through integrins is important and occurs via small G proteins such as members of Rho family.
115
Q

What does the grading system measure?

A

This is broadly based on how a tumour resembles its parent tissue.

116
Q

What causes Alport syndrome?

A

Usually X-linked disease, therefore patients usually male

Type IV collagen abnormal

Dysfunction of glomerular basement membrane, cochlea of ear and lens of eye

Presents with haematuria in children/adolescents progressing to renal failure

117
Q

Why is obesity is a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Peripheral fat converts adrenal androgens to oestrogens and therefore obese women have higher levels of serum oestrogens than thinner women.

High levels of oestrogen cause proliferation of the endometrium.

118
Q

Neutrophil extravasation

A
  1. Vascular stasis causes neutrophils to line up along endothelium = MARGINATION
  2. Roll along endothelium = ROLLING
  3. Stick avidly to endothelium = ADHESION
  4. Emigrate through the endothelium= MIGRATION / DIAPEDESIS
119
Q

Who is currently offered bowel cancer screening in the UK and how often?

A

Men and women aged 60-69 years, every two years.

120
Q

RA patients develop subcutaneous lumps on the extensor aspect of their forearms.

What are these lumps and how do they appear microscopically?

A

Rheumatoid nodules.

There is fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by a giant cell granulomatous reaction.

121
Q

Tests of haemostasis

A

Full blood count (platelets)

Prothrombin time (PT) - measures the EXTRINSIC PATHWAY (factors VII, X, V, II and fibrinogen)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) - measures the INTRINSIC PATHWAY

(factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VIII, IX, X, XI and XII. ).

122
Q

How do venous thrombi appear morphologically?

A
  1. soft
  2. gelatinous
  3. deep red - deoxygenated
  4. higher cell content
123
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Dysplasia is a precancerous condition: cells which are very similar to cancer cells grow in an organ but have not yet acquired the ability to invade into tissue or metastasize

124
Q

Complement system proteins

A
  • C3b that functions as an opsonin
  • C5a that attracts neutrophils.
  • C5-9 complex (“membrane attack complex”) that attaches to the cell causing lysis by cell membrane perforation.
125
Q

What is fatty liver?

A

Fatty liver, also known as fatty liver disease (FLD), is a REVERSIBLE condition where large vacuoles of triglyceride fat accumulate in liver cells via the process of steatosis.

126
Q

What is happening at a cellular level to increase the risk of sudden death of ischaemic heart disease?

A

There is myocyte hypertrophy but no increase in capillary numbers, therefore there is increased oxygen demand but no increase in oxygen supply. This results in relative anoxia.

Also there is often deposition of fibrous tissue (interstitial fibrosis) in the myocardium in ventricular hypertrophy and this can cause arrhythmias and cardiac failure.

127
Q

How does atrophy differ from

i. Involution
ii. Hypoplasia

A

Atrophy is the shrinkage of a tissue or organ due to an acquired decrease in size and/or number of cells.

i. Involution is the normal programmed shrinkage of an organ, e.g. during embryogenesis
ii. Hypoplasia is the congenital underdevelopment or incomplete development of an organ

128
Q

What causes Chronic Cholecystitis?

A

Repeated obstruction by gall stones

Repeated acute inflammation leads to chronic inflammation

Fibrosis of gall bladder wall

Chronic inflammatory cells

129
Q

Killing mechanisms of phagocytosis

A

Oxygen-dependent

– Oxygen derived free radicals are released into the phagosome

– Toxic oxygen species (Superoxide) is converted to hydrogen peroxide by myeloperoxidase from neutrophil granules (H2O2-myeloperoxidase-halide system –> hypochlorite)

– Oxygen or respiratory burst

Oxygen-independent

– Enzymes e.g. lysozyme, protease, nuclease, phospholipase from neutrophil granules can form holes in microbial membranes

130
Q

Define Sepsis

A

Sepsis is the body’s overwhelming and life-threatening response to infection that can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death. In other words, it’s your body’s over active and toxic response to an infection

131
Q

What is the link between gallstones and hepatic abscess?

A

Ascending cholangitis – the bile duct becomes inflamed usually as a result of biliary obstruction complicated by bacterial infection. The bacterial infection can then spread into the liver where an abscess forms.

132
Q

What is the agent in cigarette smoke which is carcinogenic?

A

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, e.g. benzo[a]pyrene are most often implicated.

133
Q

Which organism most commonly causes lobar pneumonia?

A

More than 90% are due to Streptococcus pneumoniae.

134
Q

What types of anaemia can occur?

A
  1. Iron deficiency due to chronic external haemorrhage (hypochromatic, microcytic).
  2. Anaemia of chronic disease: • Low serum iron and low erythropoietin secondary to cytokine production. • Normocytic and normochromic or hypochromic and microcytic. • There is normal stored iron.
  3. Myelophthisic anaemia – seen with space occupying lesions that destroy bone marrow.
  4. Aplastic anaemia secondary to irradiation or drugs.
  5. Megaloblastic anaemia secondary to folate acid antagonists (antimetabolites).
  6. Immunohaemolytic anaemia secondary to reaction to tumour or drugs.
135
Q

Which factors turn off the coagulation system?

A

Antithrombin III

  • serine protease inhibitor
  • Inhibits thrombin and 10a

Protein C

  • Vit K dependent zymogen, activated into serine protease by thrombin binding to endothelial receptor thrombomodulin
  • Cleaves co factors Va and VIIIa
  • Protein S is a co factor of Protein C
136
Q

What is the Mantoux test?

A

A screening test for tuberculosis. It is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction where purified Mycobacterial tuberculosis protein derivative is injected intradermally. 48-72 hours later patients who have been exposed to the bacteria develop a delayed hypersensitivity reaction seen as inflammation in the dermis.

137
Q

What are ‘B’ symptoms in Hodgkin’s disease and what is their significance?

A

Fever, night sweats, weight loss. They indicate a worse prognosis.

138
Q

What is a traumatic neuroma? What symptoms might it produce?

A

A lesion that occurs after a nerve has been severed when there is poor alignment of the cut ends of the nerve or if distal tissue has been amputated.

It is the result of a disordered proliferation of axons which results in a tangled mass of axons.

It can cause a painful nodule.

139
Q

What is mesothelioma

A

A malignant tumour of cells lining the pleura, peritoneum or pericardium.

140
Q

Describe the processes involved in healing by second intention

A

The clot dries and forms a scab.

The scab contracts as it dries and shrinks. Granulation tissue forms and contracts.

The epidermis regenerates and grows in from the sides and then from the base up.

There is fibrous repair of the dermis.

The scar matures.

141
Q

What are the clinical and pathological features of familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

Patients develop (at birth or soon after) 500-2,500 colonic adenomas that carpet the mucosal surface. May also have polyps elsewhere in the gastrointestinal tract, e.g. ampulla of Vater, stomach. Most polyps are tubular adenomas. Progression to colon cancer occurs in approximately 100% of patients by the age of 50 years. The disease needs early detection and prophylactic colectomy – also in siblings and first degree relatives

142
Q

What is a paradoxical embolus?

A

A venous embolus that causes systemic artery infarction by passing through an interatrial in interventricular defect

143
Q

What is a neoplasm

A

A neoplasm is “An abnormal growth of cells that persists after the initial stimulus is removed”

144
Q

What is classic haemophilia?

A

defect in Factor VIII

FVIII (‘antihaemophilic factor’) not a protease, but stimulates the activity of FIXa, a serine protease.

Normal activity of FVIII increased by proteolysis by thrombin and FXa. Positive feedback amplifies clotting signal, accelerates clot formation.

Reduced/absent FVIII results in reduced/absent clotting and prolonged bleeding.

Treatment with recombinant FVIII

145
Q

What effects should this have on the tumour? Why?

A

Should have a suppressive effect on tumour growth as it acts as an antagonist at the oestrogen receptor (ER) and decreases cell replication.

146
Q

How and why do giant cells form?
.

A

They form by fusion of macrophages.

They arise as a result of frustrated phagocytosis

147
Q

Name the cell type involved in squamous cell carcinoma and what causes a predisposition

A

keratinocytes

Actinic keratosis

148
Q

How are VTEs prevented?

A

Patient information - hydration and early mobilization

Risk assessment for VTE and bleeding

Anti-embolism stockings (AES)

Intermittent pneumatic compression

Foot impulse devices

Subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

Direct oral anticoagulants

149
Q

How do xanthomas appear microscopically?

A

As groups of foam cells in the dermis and tendons.

150
Q

How do cancer cells evade destruction in the circulation?

A

shear force and turbulence

surveillance and attack from immune cells (NK Cells)

lack of substratum, entrapment in capillary bed

151
Q

Where can an embolus have come from?

A
  • Cardiac mural thrombi especially in association with a myocardial infarction or atrial fibrillation
  • Thromboemboli arising in arteries over atheromatous plaques within carotid arteries, the aortic arch or vertebral arteries
  • Calcific material or vegetations from heart valves
  • Fragments of atrial myxoma
  • The venous system if there is a patent foreman ovale
152
Q

What are the characteristics of Benign Neoplasms?

A

Typically well defined, rounded pushing outer edge, with capsule or pseudocapsule

Expansile growth, local effects on the organ or adjacent tissues may be significant

Microscopically cells resemble the tissue of origin closely

153
Q

Vascular phase chemical mediators

A
  • HISTAMINE – Mast cells, basophils + platelets
  • Serotonin (5-HT) – Platelets
  • Vasoactive amines

Immediate early response

Response to many injurious stimuli e.g.physical damage immunologic reactions, C3a, C5a, IL-1, factors from neutrophils and platelets

Cause vascular dilatation, ↑ venular permeability (endothelial cell contraction) + pain

154
Q

What are some of the light microscopic changes to the NUCLEUS that can be expected to be seen in IRREVERSIBLE cell injury?

A

Pyknosis → karyorrhexis → karyolysis

155
Q

What process has occurred?

Why is the intestine this colour?

Explain why might this have happened?

A

What process has occurred?

Haemorrhagic (red) infarction.

Why is the intestine this colour ?

Because numerous vascular anastomoses are present within the small bowel. Occlusion of the main blood supply causes an infarct.

The collateral arterial supply is insufficient to rescue the tissue but does allow blood to enter the dead tissue creating a red infarct.

Explain why might this have happened?

Due to loss of blood supply which can be caused by:

  • Embolism from an atrial or ventricular mural thrombus
  • Thrombosis of a mesenteric artery secondary to atherosclerosis
  • Intestinal adhesions wrapped around the bowel occluding the blood supply
  • Volvulus with resulting occlusion of blood supply​
156
Q

What is Pott’s disease?

A

TB in vertebrae.

157
Q

What is a melanoma?

A

Melanoma – malignant tumour of cells derived from neural crest

158
Q

Starling’s law

A

Movement of fluid across vessel wall governed by a balance of forces hydrostatic and colloid osmotic pressure between intravascular and extravascular space.

159
Q

What is Heparin?

A
  • naturally occurring anticoagulant
  • potentiates effect of antithrombin III
  • mixture of glycosaminoglycan chains extracted from porcine mucosa
  • antidote = protamine sulphate
160
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

Consists of:

Developing capillaries

Fibroblasts and myofibroblasts

Chronic inflammatory cells

161
Q

What happens to a blood vessel after sustaining injury?

A

Constricts to limit blood loss (mechanism not fully understood)

Secretes von Willebrand factor which initiates platelet plug formation

162
Q

ENDOGENOUS chemical mediators

A

Vasoactive amines, e.g. histamine, serotonin

Vasoactive peptides, e.g. bradykinin

Chemokines (large family of chemotactic proteins) and cytokines (messengers) e.g. IL-1, TNF. Made by WBCs, particularly macrophages.

Arachidonic acid metabolites from plasma membrane phospholipids e.g. prostaglandins and leukotrienes e.g. LTB4. Anti-inflammatory drugs (e.g. aspirin, NSAIDS, corticosteroids) work by inhibiting their synthesis.

Nitric oxide

163
Q

Why does sepsis cause shock?

A

Massive activation of inflammation, widespread vasodilatation, loss of fluid from the vascular spaces into the extracellular space

164
Q

What diseases are the result of defective collagen synthesis?

A

Scurvy

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

Osteogenesis imperfecta

Alport syndrome

165
Q

Cellular Events Leading to Atherosclerosis

A

1. Chronic endothelial injury

  • Raised low density lipoprotein (LDL)
  • Hypertension
  • Haemodynamic stress
  • ‘Toxins’ e.g., cigarette smoke

2. Endothelial dysfunction

  • Platelet adhesion and release of platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
  • Monocyte accumulation within intima with release of growth factors and cytokines
  • T lymphocytes attracted to area

3. Smooth muscle emigration from media into intima

4. Macrophages and smooth muscle cells engulf accumulated, oxidised lipid and form foam cells

5. Smooth muscle proliferation in response to cytokines and growth factors, collagen and matrix deposition,** **neovascularistaion

166
Q

What is Miliary tuberculosis?

A

This is disseminated tuberculosis, wide spread dissemination of tuberculosis throughout the human body resulting in tiny lesions (1–5 mm) which are especially seen on chest x-ray where they appear as tiny spots distributed throughout the lung fields. They resemble millet seeds hence ‘miliary’ tuberculosis. Miliary TB may infect any number of organs, including the lungs, liver, and spleen.

167
Q

What are the sic types of necrosis?

A

There are six types of necrosis:

Coagulative necrosis

Liquefactive necrosis

Caseous necrosis

Fat necrosis

Fibroid necrosis

Gangrenous necrosis

168
Q

Which cells help guide the sprouting axons to the muscle?

A

Schwann cells

169
Q

What is healing by primary intention?

A

Incised, closed, non-infected and sutured wounds

Disruption of basement membrane continuity but death of only a small number of epithelial and connective tissue cells

Minimal clot and granulation tissue

170
Q

What is the complement system?

A

Inactive enzymatic proteins (e.g. C3a, C5a) made in liver, present in blood

Activated by variety of mechanisms: proteolytic enzymes from necrotic cells, anitgen-antibody complexes in infection, gram -ve bacterial (classic and alternate pathways, respectively) and by products of kinin and fibrinolytic systems.

The complement cascade generates:

  • C3b that functions as an opsonin
  • C5a that attracts neutrophils.
  • C5-9 complex (“membrane attack complex”) that attaches to the cell causing lysis by cell membrane perforation.
171
Q

6 types of necrosis

A

Coagulative necrosis is characterized by the formation of a gelatinous (gel-like) substance in dead tissues in which the architecture of the tissue is maintained, and can be observed by light microscopy. Coagulation occurs as a result of protein denaturation, causing albumin to transform into a firm and opaque state. This pattern of necrosis is typically seen in hypoxic (low-oxygen) environments, such as infarction. Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in tissues such as the kidney, heart and adrenal glands. Severe ischemia most commonly causes necrosis of this form.

Liquefactive necrosis (or colliquative necrosis), in contrast to coagulative necrosis, is characterized by the digestion of dead cells to form a viscous liquid mass. This is typical of bacterial, or sometimes fungal, infections because of their ability to stimulate an inflammatory response. The necrotic liquid mass is frequently creamy yellow due to the presence of dead leukocytes and is commonly known as pus. Hypoxic infarcts in the brain presents as this type of necrosis, because the brain contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes and lipids, and cells therefore can be readily digested by their own enzymes.

Gangrenous necrosis can be considered a type of coagulative necrosis that resembles mummified tissue. It is characteristic of ischemia of lower limb and the gastrointestinal tracts. If superimposed infection of dead tissues occurs, then liquefactive necrosis ensues (wet gangrene)

Caseous necrosis can be considered a combination of coagulative and liquefactive necrosis, typically caused by mycobacteria (e.g. tuberculosis), fungi and some foreign substances. The necrotic tissue appears as white and friable, like clumped cheese. Dead cells disintegrate but are not completely digested, leaving granular particles. Microscopic examination shows amorphous granular debris enclosed within a distinctive inflammatory border. Granuloma has this characteristic.

Fat necrosis is specialized necrosis of fat tissue, resulting from the action of activated lipases on fatty tissues such as the pancreas. In the pancreas it leads to acute pancreatitis, a condition where the pancreatic enzymes leak out into the peritoneal cavity, and liquefy the membrane by splitting the triglyceride esters into fatty acids through fat saponification. Calcium, magnesium or sodium may bind to these lesions to produce a chalky-white substance. The calcium deposits are microscopically distinctive and may be large enough to be visible on radiographic examinations.To the naked eye, calcium deposits appear as gritty white flecks.

Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis usually caused by immune-mediated vascular damage. It is marked by complexes of antigen and antibodies, sometimes referred to as “immune complexes” deposited within arterial walls together with fibrin.

172
Q

How is bowel cancer screened?

A

Faecal occult blood (FOB) test kits are sent to the person’s home. After completing the test the person sends the kit to a laboratory for analysis.

173
Q

What is chronic granulomatous disease

A

Genetic deficiency in one of components of NADPH oxidase responsible for generating superoxide.

Engulfment of bacteria does not result in activation of oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms.

X-linked or autosomal recessive.

Chronic suppurative granulomas (collections of macrophages surrounded by mononuclear cells) or abscesses affecting the skin, lymph nodes, sometimes lung and liver and osteomyelitis.

Neutrophils and macrophages affected.

174
Q

How is T status determined in malignant melanoma

A

Tumor depth (T), as described by Breslow’s thickness (expressed in millimeters)

175
Q

What is inherited angio-oedema?

A

Extremely rare autosomal dominant inherited deficiency of C1-esterase inhibitor (component of compliment system) – there is decreased function or decreased levels of the enzyme.

Patient experiences attacks of non-itchy cutaneous angio-oedema (rapid oedema of dermis, subcutaneous tissue, mucosa and submucosal tissues) (no urticaria/hives), may last up to 72 hours.

176
Q

What used to treat patients who’re bleeding while on warfarin?

A
  1. Vitamin K to overcome the vitamin K antagonism and allow synthesis of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
  2. Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC – a mix of factors II, VII, IX and X) if immediate reversal needed
177
Q

Summarise the laboratory diagnosis of acute pancreatitis

A

Raised serum amylase in first 24 hours.

Raised serum lipase from 72-96 hours. In 10% see glycosuria.

Hypocalcaemia possible – due to precipitation of calcium salts in fat necrosis

178
Q

How do we end up with Hydropic Swelling?

A

Hypoxia impairs oxidative phosphorylation resulting in decreased ATP. Low ATP disrupts key cellular functions including the Na+/K+ pump, resulting in sodium and water buildup in the cell.
The excess water due to excess sodium is what causes the cell to swell

179
Q

4 stages of the Vascular phase – changes in blood flow

A
  1. Transient vasoconstriction of arterioles
  2. Followed by vasodilatation of arterioles and then capillaries -> ↑ blood flow
  3. ↑ vascular permeability -> exudation of protein-rich fluid into tissues and slowing of circulation
  4. Vascular stasis (because blood is more viscous due to increased concentration of red cells in vessels from leaked fluid)
180
Q

What is a Ghon complex?

A

A calcified tuberculous granuloma in the lung together with granulomas in a hilar lymph node.

181
Q

What is Warfarin?

A
182
Q

Mechanisms of vascular leakage

A

Endothelial cell contraction

-Chemical mediators e.g. histamine, C5a, NO

Endothelial cell injury

  • Direct e.g. trauma, chemicals, microbial toxins
  • Indirect e.g. toxic oxygen species and proteolytic enzymes from neutrophils

Structural re-organisation of cytoskeleton

-Cytokine mediated e.g. interleukin-1, TNF

Transcytosis

-VEGF induces ↑ channels in endothelial cells

183
Q

Types of exudate

A

Purulent e.g. meningitis

Haemorrhagic/serosanguinous eg malignancies

Serous eg: blister

Fibrinous: eg: fibrinous pericarditis

184
Q

4 Clinical features of acute inflammation

A
  1. RUBOR (redness)
  2. TUMOR (swelling)
  3. CALOR (heat)
  4. DOLOR (pain)
  5. FUNCTIO LAESA (loss of function)
185
Q

What is the name of the cell seen Hodgekin disease?

Why are there so many present?

A

Eosinophil. The malignant cells (Reed Sternberg cells) release factors that attract them.

186
Q

What are the clinical features of Crohn’s disease?

A

Discontinuous distribution

Affects any part of the gastrointestinal system

‘Cobblestone’ appearance to bowel mucosa classically seen

Granulomas often present

Anal lesions common

Bowel fistulae likely

187
Q

What are the functions of macrophages?

A

Phagocytosis and destruction of debris & bacteria

Processing and presentation of antigen to immune system

Synthesis of cytokines.- IL, TNF

Control of other cells by releasing: EGF, FGF, PDGF (fibrosis and angiogenesis)

188
Q

What is the difference between a white infarct and a red infarct?

A

WHITE INFARCT:

  • caused by arterial insufficiency
  • not reperfused
  • single blood supply

RED INFARCT:

  • caused by venous insufficiency
  • reperfused
  • dual blood supply
189
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

Organised collection of epithelioid cells.

190
Q

What are the problems with warfarin?

A
  1. difficulties in determining dose – this has to be done empirically in each patient with frequent monitoring the INR (measure of prothrombin time).
  2. narrow therapeutic window
  3. drug/diet interactions
  4. delay in efficacy as pre-existing factors is still available for use.
191
Q

What is Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

A genetically inherited disorder.

The liver produces a version of the protein α1- antitrypsin that is incorrectly folded.

This cannot be packaged by the endoplasmic reticulum and accumulates within this organelle and is not secreted by the liver.

The systemic deficiency of the enzyme means that proteases within the lung can act unchecked and patients with the condition develop emphysema as lung tissue is broken down.

192
Q

What is Pyknosis?

A

The irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis.

193
Q

What is a BCG?

A

Bacillus Calmette-Guérin

This is a vaccine against tuberculosis that is prepared from a strain of the attenuated (virulence-reduced) live bovine tuberculosis bacillus, Mycobacterium bovis that has lost its virulence in humans.

194
Q

What are the possible outcomes of thrombosis?

A

Lysis - complete dissolution of thrombus

Propagation - progressive spread of thrombosis

Organisation - growth of fibroblasts and capillary proliferation (similar to granulation tissue), which result in the attachment of the thrombus to the vessel wall

Recanalisation - one or more channels formed through organising thrombus, bloodflow re-established but usually incompletely

Embolism - part of thrombus breaks off travels through bloodstream lodging at distant site

195
Q

What is epidermal growth factor?

A
  • Mitogenic for epithelial cells, hepatocytes and fibroblasts
  • Produced by keratinocytes, macrophages and inflammatory cells
  • Binds to epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR)
196
Q

2 Hallmarks of acute inflammation

A
  1. EXUDATE of [oedema] FLUID
  2. INFILTRATE of [inflammatory] CELLS
197
Q

To what complications of aneurysm?

A

Embolism of atheroma or thrombus to the legs causing acute ischaemia .

Aortic dissection causing acute aortic occlusion or aortic rupture.

Aorto-caval or aorto -duodenal fistulae.

198
Q

What is Virchows Triad?

A

Virchow’s triad describes the three broad categories of factors that are thought to contribute to thrombosis.

Hypercoagulability

Hemodynamic changes (stasis, turbulence)

Endothelial injury/dysfunction

199
Q

What is the definition of an ulcer?

A

Ulcer = breach in mucosa to level of submucosa or deeper.

200
Q

What does the staging system measure?

A

Extent of tumour at the primary site (T status).

Regional metastasis (Lymph nodes-N status)

Distant metastasis (M status)

201
Q

What is a stroke?

A

A rapid onset of cerebral deficit (usually focal) lasting more than 24 hours or leading to death, with no cause apparent other than a vascular one.

202
Q

Types of fluid in extravascular space

A
  • Transudate = low protein content e.g. heart failure (increased hydrostatic pressure but vessel intact and don’t leak plasma proteins so colloid osmotic pressure static)
  • Exudate = high protein content, e.g. acute inflammation
203
Q

One risk factor is particularly common in haemorrhagic stroke. What is it?

A

Hypertension

204
Q

Are there any other tests that can be performed on lymph nodes that might help distinguish between sarcoidosis and TB?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain – stains mycobacteria.

Polymerase chain reaction – a process that can be used to identify small amounts of DNA. In this case mycobacterial DNA.

Culture of the tissue – in an attempt to grow mycobacteria.

205
Q

Characteristics of chemical mediators

A
  • Modulate the inflammatory response
  • Short-lived
  • Endogenous (derived from plasma proteins, leucocytes and local tissues) or exogenous (e.g. endotoxin from gram negative bacteria)
  • Every mediator has an inhibitor
206
Q

What are the three types of stem cells?

A

Unipotent

Most adult stem cells

Only produce one type of differentiated cell, e.g. epithelia

Multipotent

Produce several types of differentiated cell, e.g. haematopoietic stem cells

Totipotent

Embryonic stem cells

Can produce any type of cell and therefore any tissues of the body

207
Q

Compare reversible and irreversible cell injuries

A
208
Q

How do arterial thrombi appear morphologically?

A
  1. pale
  2. granular
  3. lines of Zahn
  4. lower cell content
209
Q

Describe what happens when a person inhales Mycobacterium tuberculosis from the bacteria arriving in the lung to the formation of granulomas.

A
  • MTB enters macrophages by endocytosis
  • MTB replicates within phagosome. It can do this as it blocks the fusion of phagosome and lysosome. It then proliferates in pulmonary alveolar macrophages and airspaces. Bacteraemia develops and there is seeding of multiple sites (the illness at this stage is asymptomatic or gives symptoms of a mild flu-like illness)
  • Approximately 3 weeks after infection T helper cell response against MTB is mounted that activates macrophages to become bactericidal (T helper cells produce IFNγ)
  • Activated macrophages produce TNF (tumour necrosis factor), this recruits monocytes which differentiate into ‘epithelioid histiocytes’ forming granulomas. In many this contains the illness.
  • In some infection progresses. The immune response results in tissue destruction due to caseation and cavitation.
210
Q

Which markers are of value in the diagnosis of testicular tumours and which types of testicular tumours result in high levels of these markers?

A
  • α-fetoprotein (AFP) – non-seminomatous germ cell tumours especially yolk sac tumour.
  • Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) – non-seminomatous germ cell tumours; marked elevation if choriocarcinomatous elements are present; approximately 15% of seminomas have syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells and a minimal increase in HCG levels.
211
Q

What is a peptic ulcer?

A

Ulceration due to imbalance of acid and pepsin attack and mucosal defence.
Sites- antrum, first part of duodenum
Causes- Helicobacter pylori (HP gastritis), hyperacidity
Drugs-NSAID, genetic

212
Q

What are the three stages of plaque development?

A

Fatty streak

Simple plaque

Complicated plaque