Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Name and describe the 4 main planes

A

Cardinal Planes:
Coronal plane: Cuts the body into front and back
Saggital plane: Cuts the body into left and right. Median plane is down the middle, others are para-saggital planes
Axial (transverse/cross-sectional/horizontal): Cuts the body into upper and lower sections

Oblique plane: Any plane not parallel to the three cardinal planes

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2
Q

What is the anatomical position?

A

Feet together, toes forward. Palms forward. Standing upright, head and eyes forward with arms by the sides.

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3
Q

What is caudal?

A

Inferior

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4
Q

What do proximal and distal mean? (2 different contexts)

A

Limbs: Proximal is closer to the trunk, distal is further away
Circulation: Proximal is upstream, distal is downstream. Most things (except lymph and venous blood) flow proximal to distal

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5
Q

Flexion/Extension

A

Flexion: Bending, or decreasing angle between bones/body parts
Extension: Straightening (hyperextension is movement beyond necessary to straighten

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6
Q

Abduction/Adduction

A

Abduction: Movement apart, or away from median plane.
Adduction: Moving together or towards median plane

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7
Q

Elevation/Depression

A

Elevation: Moving superiorly
Depression: Moving inferiorly

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8
Q

Protraction/Retraction

A

Protraction: Moving anteriorly
Retraction: Moving posteriorly

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9
Q

Curcumduction

A

To draw in a circle- combo of flexion, abduction, extension and adduction, to form a circle distally

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10
Q

Supination/Pronation

A

Supination: Rotation of the palm to face anteriorly
Pronation: Rotation of the palm to face posteriorly

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11
Q

Opposition/Reposition

A

Opposition: Thumb moves across palm to finger pad
Reposition: Returning thumb to anatomical position

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12
Q

Dermatome

A

Area of skin mainly supplied by cutaneous branches (nerves reaching the skin) of a single spinal nerve.

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13
Q

Myotome

A

Group of muscles from a single somite (paired structures in embryos) supplied by a single spinal nerve.

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14
Q

Dorsiflexion

A

Flex foot

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15
Q

Plantiflexion

A

Point foot

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16
Q

Give three patterns of myotomal supply (with examples)

A

Muscles with the same action have the same segmental supply (eg. all hip flexors come from L2 and L3)

Opposing muscles have subsequent segmental supplies (eg. knees extended by L3/4, flexed by L5/S1)

The distal end of a joint is supplied by a segment one level lower than the proximal end (eg. knee movement is L3-S1, ankle movement is L4-S2)

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17
Q

Fascie:

A

Layers of connective tissue throughout the body- deep fascia is dense and fibrous, surrounding muscles, groups of muscles, blood vessels and nerves.

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18
Q

What is the clinical significance of deep fascia?

A

It is unyielding, so:

  • When muscles in each compartment contract, they are forced to compress the veins and force blood to circulate
  • They contain and direct the spread of infection- eg. a scratch in one compartment with an infected nail can contain tendonitis to that compartment
  • They can lead to compartment syndrome. Emergent when happens suddenly as can constrict the blood supply and cause ischaemia (eg. broken leg and central bone canal leaks) Non emergent in exertional compartment syndrome (athletes)
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19
Q

Describe 4 bone types

A

Long: Carry weight, levers for movement
Short: Provide compactness, elasticity, limited motion
Flat: Protection, areas for muscle attachment
Irregular: Complex, form dictates function

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20
Q

How do the pectoral and pelvic girdles differ?

A

Shoulder attached mainly with muscle, so is very mobile, while lower limb sacrifices mobility for stability

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21
Q

Describe 4 areas of the upper limb

A

Pectoral girdle: Scapula, clavicle, acromion. Connects upper limb to trunk
Arm: Humerus. From shoulder to elbow
Forearm: Radius and ulna. From elbow to wrist
Hand: Carpals, metacarpals and phalanges. Distal to wrist

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22
Q

Describe 4 areas of lower limb:

A

Hips and Pelvis: Ilium, Ischium and pubis. Connects lower limb to trunk and vertebral column
Thigh: Femur and patella. Between hip and knee
Leg: Tibia and fibula. Between knee and ankle
Foot: Tarsals, metatarsals and phalanges. Distal to ankle.

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23
Q

What are the 2 phases of the gait cycle?

A

Stance and swing

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24
Q

What are the 3 stages of the stance phase?

A

Heel strike, foot progression, toe off

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25
Q

What are 3 main gait disorders, their presentation and origins?

A

Antalgic Gait: Shortened stance phase, (resulting in a limp). Usually due to pain
Cerebellar Ataxia: Slowness of pace and wide stance. Due to loss of balance and coordination. Central neuroplogical problem
High Steppage Gait: Weakness of dorsiflexion, so high stepping gait with no heel strike phase. Central neuro, peripheral nerve or muscular problem

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26
Q

What is the profile of MS disease in NZ?

A

Account for 25% of health costs, 1/4 adults affected.

Includes arthritis, osteoporosis, injuries, low back pain, spinal disorder, deformities.

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27
Q

What are the layers of the skin?

A

Epiderpis

  • Stratum Corneum
  • Stratum lucidum
  • Stratum granulosum
  • Stratum spinosum
  • Stratum germinativum

Basal Lamina

Dermis

  • Papillary layer
  • Reticular layer

Subcutaneous Layer/Hypodermis

Investing Fascia

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28
Q

What is the function of epidermal derivatives (hair, sweat glands, sebacious glands, nail)

A

The first 3 provide epithelial cells when healing

Also some protection, secretion etc.

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29
Q

How does the arrangement of skin help its function?

A

The reticular layer of the dermis is key to skin.

It contain collagen, with tropocollagens in a quasi-crystalline arrangement to aid tension
It also contain elastin, with tropoelastin in a complex arrangement to withstand stretch and relaxation (tension)

The two fibres have a 3D basket weave pattern aligned with the skin tension lines (Langer’s Lines). This is important for wound healing and hypertrophic scars

Therefore, when the fibres are gradually loaded, they extend quickly as they stretch, but stretch little more once straightened, even at higher loads. It works kind of like the laundry rack at home- they stretch out until you can’t extend them further

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30
Q

How are tendons and ligaments arranged?

A
Closely packed parallel bundles of collagen, compressed and elongated fibroblasts, sparse capillaries/
Some elastic fibres, more prominent in ligaments.
Tendon sheaths (inner epitendineum, outer parietal) allow sliding, with space between containing synovial fluid
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31
Q

What are the mechanical properties of tendons/ligaments, and how can they change?

A

Normally, they resist tension with minimal (only 2%) elongation, as the collagen fibres are already straightened out.
If tension is lost, they are rapidly remodelled.
Applying lateral pressure leads to remodelling with formation of fibrocartilage to improve compression resistance. If the pressure is removed they can return to their previous composition

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32
Q

What are the physical properties of hyaline cartilage and how are these maintained?

A

They resist compression very well due to their proteoglycan aggregates. These repel each other.
While they only need a small amount of input for maintenance, coompletely unloaded joints rapid, significant loss of PGs. This is prevented by passive movement of unloaded joints

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33
Q

What is the trouble with hyaline cartilage?

Describe two conditions involving this tissue

A

It is very poor at regenerating, resulting in chronic conditions difficult to treat.
Rheumatoid arthritis: A.I. disease. Antibodies destroy cartilage, severe inflammation
Osteo-arthritis (degenerative arthritis): Assoc. with age, pathological if onset premature. Caused by increased mech. stress to regions with low PG (mainly peripheral)

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34
Q

What are fibrocartilage and elastic cartilage?

A

FC: Resists tension and compressive forces
EC: Supports flexible structures, contains elastic fibres with type 2 collagen.

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35
Q

What happens when tendons and ligaments are remodelled?

A

The collagen becomes less regular
The tenocytes/fibroblasts become rounded instead of elongated
There is increased PG and H2O secretion

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36
Q

What is lost when adding and removing pressure to tendons/ligaments?

A

The PGs formed are easy to lose, but hard to regain- it takes a long time for a second application of pressure to result in cartilage formation

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37
Q

Where is hyaline cartilage found?

A

Most articulating bones, costal area in ribs

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38
Q

How does the high PG content of hyaline cartilage help withstand pressure?

A
  • CS and KS GAGs with -ve charges are attached to core proteins, which attach via link proteins to HA. These -ve charges repel
  • H2O binds to HA between the PGs, which is hard to compress
  • -ve charges on the GAGs also bind to collagen fibres, making the tissue very stiff
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39
Q

How do you test PG content of cartilage?

A

The 2 second creep modulus: When a probe is pushed into cartilage for 2 seconds, how much does it depress?
The greater the PG content, the greater the resistance to pressure

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40
Q

How does PG content change across a layer of articular cartilage along a joint?

A

There is more PG content in the middle, as the edges of the joint are used less.

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41
Q

How can you prevent articular cartilage loss?

A

Either weightbearing or passive movement of unloaded joints- it only really remodels when weight and movement are removed.

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42
Q

What is special about the rabbit’s ankle?

A

The region of the tendon around the sesamoid part of the ankle is similar to fibrocartilage as it is under pressure. Due to this, it has a high concentration of CS in aggrecan. This is opposed to the low concentration of GAGs in other regions of the tendon, with low levels of DS in decorin PGs

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43
Q

What does bone resist and why?

A

Bone resists tension, pressure and torsion, as its collagen is arranged in lammelae with differing direction, and it has hydroxyapatite in its matrix

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44
Q

What is special about the arrangement of cancellous bone?

A

The trabeculae are aligned with the direction of force, to transfer these from the middle to the compact outer shell of the bone

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45
Q

What is special about the arrangement of compact bone?

A

It is found more in the articulating edges and shell of the bones, with greater thickness in areas with greater pressure.
The osteons are arranged paralled to the direction of compressive forces

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46
Q

Compare the bone of fetuses with adult bone

A

Fetuses have fine cancellous bone only, with collagen in a woven pattern
Adults have coarse cancellous bone, and compact bone. Their collagen is arranged in lamellae.

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47
Q

What structures and composition would you expect to allow resistance to tension?

A
  • High collagen content
  • Woven structures, or lamellar sheets
  • Slight bending in the collagen, to allow straightening
  • Elongated cells
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48
Q

What structures and composition would you expect to allow resistance to compression?

A
  • High PG content
  • Retention of H2O
  • Presence of Hydroxyapatite
  • Rounded cells
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49
Q

What forces would you expect a tissue with elongated cells, densely aligned collagen, and low to mid PG to resist?

A

Tension in 1-2 directions (either tendon/ligament or fascia)

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50
Q

What forces would you expect a tissue with rounded cells, a high PG content and fine woven collagen to resist?

A

Compression

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51
Q

What forces would you expect a tissue with elongated cells and a moderately dense woven collagen network, as well as elastic fibres, to withstand?

A

Tension in 3 directions, while allowing recoil

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52
Q

What forces would you expect a tissue with rounded cells, lamellated collagen and hydroxyapatite to withstand?

A

Tension, compression and torsion

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53
Q

What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?

A

Ligaments can have more prominence of elastic fibres, and more PGs

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54
Q

What are the 3 meninges, and their associated spaces? What do they do?

A

Outermost is the epidural space, containing fat, arteries and veins. It’s a good place for local anaesthetic as it is near the main nerves and fairly large
The dura mater is very tough
The subdural space is a virtual space where some veins cross over, so if shrinkage of the CNS occurs, the veins can burst, causing an hemorrhage.
The arachnoid mater is shimmery and weblike
The subarachnoid space contains the most CSF of anywhere in the body, and can also hemorrhage
The pia mater adheres tightly to the spinal cord and roots themselves.
On the edges of the roots, the three combine to form the epineurium, surrounding the nerves themselves

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55
Q

What are the 3 rami of the spinal nerves?

A

The posterior ramus (smallest) innervates the back muscles
The Ramus Communicans connects the spinal cord with the ANS
The anterior ramus innervates the front muscles and organs

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56
Q

What is the conus medularis and cauda equina?

A

Conus medularis is the cone shaped ending to the spinal cord proper. The cauda equina descends past this, in a trail of spaghetti-like nerves.

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57
Q

What are the filium terminale?

A

The filium terminale internum is when the pia mater comes together past the conus medularris, and forms a single fiber above the lower limit of the subarachnoid space
The Filium terminale externum occurs when the arachnoid mater joins with this fiber and continues down to be attached to the coccyx. It can be identified as it is bluer/whiter and tighter than the other fibres.

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58
Q

Where is a spinal tap usually done and why?

A

It is usually done around L3 as there is little chance of hitting the spinal cord if done after the conus medullaris ends.

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59
Q

How is the arachnoid mater held in place?

A

There are denticulate ligaments between it and pia/dura, to prevent the expansion and contraction of AM and keep the volume and pressure of CSF constant.

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60
Q

What and where is the fascia lata?

A

A dense layer of connective tissue surrounding and compartmentalizing the thigh.
Superiorly it attaches to the pubic tubercle, pubis and inquinal ligament.
Laterally attaches to the iliac crest
Posteriorly to sacrum, coccyx and ischial tuberosity.
Extends to the knee where it becomes continuous with fascia in the leg
1 Opening: Saphenous to allow the saphenous vein to enter beneath the fascia lata (inf. to inguinal ligament)

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61
Q

What is the ITB?

A

Iliotibial Band.

A lateral fusion of the TFL muscle tendon and fascia lata, attaching to the lateral tibia.

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62
Q

What and where is the femoral triangle?

A
A space in the superior thigh.
Superior border: Inguinal ligament
Lateral border: Sartorius
Medial border: adductor longus
Deep border: Iliopsoas & Pectineus
Superficial border: Skin and fascia lata

Contains Femoral nerve, artery, vein, and lymph vessels. Femoral sheath contains all but femoral nerve. Subcompartment (femoral canal) contains the lymph, with femoral ring at the proximal end.

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63
Q

What are the muscles of the anterior compartment of the thigh and their Or/In ?

A

Rectus femoris: border between hip and femur, to superior patella
Vastus lateralis: greater trochanter to superior patella
Vastus medialis: top of femur (dip) to superior patella
Vastud intermedius: Along the upper 2/3 of femur to superior patella
Sartorius: ASIS to medial tibia
(TFL- ASIS to greater trichantor)

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64
Q

What are the functions, innervation and blood supply of the anterior thigh muscle compartment?

A

All extend the knee, sartorius and rectus femoris also flex the hip
Innervated by Femoral nerve
Blood supply from Femoral artery
Drained by femoral vein & saphenous vein

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65
Q

What are the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh and their Or/In?

A

Adductor Magnus: From Pubis to shaft of femur
Adductor Brevis: From Pubis to upper third of femur
Adductor Longus: From pubis to middle third of the femur
Gracilis: From pubis to superior medial tibia
Pectineus: from upper pubis to inferior to lesser trochanter

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66
Q

What is the function of the medial compartment of the thigh and their innervation and blood supply?

A

Adduction of the thigh, although some flex the hip

Supplied by Obdurator nerve, femoral artery, femoral and saphenous veins

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67
Q

Where are the femoral and obdurator nerves’ locations?

A

From L2-4 in the spinal cord

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68
Q

What is the femoral nerve profile?

A

Levels L2-4
Branches into saphenous nerve
Supplies iliopsoas, pectineus, sartorius, vastus and rectus femoris muscles
Supplies anterior thigh and medial leg/food (sensation)

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69
Q

What is the obturator nerve profile?

A

Levels 2-4
No branches
Supplies obturator externus, abductor and gracilis muscles
Supplies medial thigh (sensation)

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70
Q

What is the adductor canal?

A

A gap underneath the middle third of sartorius, allowing the femoral vessels to reach the popliteal fossa to become the popliteal vessels. Inlet is the apex of the femoral triagle, outlet is adductor hiatus in adductor magnus.

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71
Q

How can the thigh be useful clinically?

A
  • Fem vein = direct line to the heart for cannulation (putting in lines) and taking RHS heart blood pressure and blood samples
  • Femoral artery good for taking pulses and angiography
  • Femoral nerve block using femoral artery as a landmark (to relieve pain)
  • Femoral hernia can occur when digestive tract extends into femoral ring and even through saphenous opening
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72
Q

What are the two types of HUMAN bone?

A
Rapid Expansion (fetal, fracture callus, pathologically induced)
Leisurely consolidating/remodelling
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73
Q

What are the two types of Rapid Expansion bone and their descriptions?

A

Fine cancellous bone can be:

  • Membrane bone, where mesenchymas connective tissue takes on bone-growing properties, with woven collagen fibrils in random orientations
  • Cartilage bone, where trabeculae forming have a core of calcified cartilage surrounded by woven bone. This is then replaced by adult bone
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74
Q

What are the two adult bone types, and their descriptions?

A
  • Cancellous bone. Lamellar bone in trabeculae with marrow between. Osteocytes in lacunae, no more than .4mm in diameter
  • Compact bone. Lamellar bone arranged in haversian canals, with vessels and nerves in the middle. Surrounded by fibrous periosteum.
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75
Q

How does bone grow?

A

Appositional growth: Osteogenic cells divide, with one becoming an osteoblast. These secrete matrix, which then hardens. Osteocytes linked by canaliculi, with osteogenic cells remaining at the periosteum and endosteum of bones.

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76
Q

How do osteons form? (2 ways)

A

Primary: Bone grows appositionally, with ridges forming around the vessel that then fuse together. The peri (now endosteum) grows inwards, surrounding the vessel.
Secondary: Osteoclasts dig a cutting cone into the bone, while blood vessels and endosteum follow. Note, the blood vessel loops back out, giving the new canal two vessels in cross section.

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77
Q

How do osteoclasts break down bone?

A

Firstly, they secrete acids, causing decalcification and removing hydroxyapatite.
Then, they secrete enzymes called acid hydrolases (to work in the acidic conditions). These digest the newly exposed collagen.
Any surrounding osteoblasts move out of the way of osteoclasts.

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78
Q

How does the shape of an osteoclast aid its function?

A

They have a collar attaching them to surrounding bone, preventing their secretions from leaking
They also have a ruffled border to increase SA
They sit in hoships lacunae.

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79
Q

How is bone resorption controlled by hormones?

A

PTH increases osteoblast and clast activity (but clast to a greater degree) and decreases bone mass
Calcitonin decreases osteoclast activity, ruffles, numbers and movement
Calcium supplements reduce PTH
Hormone therapy, biphosphates, cathepsin K inhibitors decrease osteoclast activity
Denosumab inhibits osteoclast formation
Sclerostin stops production of bone, so antisclerostin aids bone formation

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80
Q

What are the receptors involved in osteoclast formation>

A

RANK receptors are on osteoclast precursors
RANKL ligands are on osteoblasts
When the two link, the osteocyte is encouraged to mature
OPG is a ligand that can bind, preventing maturation of osteoclasts

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81
Q

How do long bones grow in length? How does this change over a lifetime?

A

Growth occurs in epiphyseal plate, a hyaline cartilage area in the epiphysis of long bones
One side of the plate accumulates cartilage, the other side has cartilage hypertrophing, and then dying.
Osteoblasts and blood vessels then migrate in, converting the dead tissue to bone.
Until the age of 18, these processes occur in equal amounts, but then the growth stops and resorption continues, closing the plate and stopping further growth.

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82
Q

What is the process of healing fractures of bone?

A

Osteogenic cells in the broken end of the peri/endosteum divide, producing osteoblasts that turn into chondrocytes due to lack of blood supply. These put down cartilage in a collar around the fracture for support, which is then remodelled into bone when the blood vessels arrive.
Internally, secondary osteon formation causes the bone to knit back together.

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83
Q

How do metal plates and screws both help and hinder bone formation?

A

They can give external support and prevent callus formation, as they hold bits of bone together. However, it takes a longer time for the fracture to heal and the bone formed is weaker.

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84
Q

How do dermal papillae (pegs) aid the skin’s function?

A

They provide greater grip between the epidermis and dermis

They give a higher surface area for nutrient diffusion

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85
Q

How is skin anisotropic?

A

The collagen weave isn’t uniform in all directions, meaning the skin stretches more in some directions than others.

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86
Q

How is skin damaged?

A

Thermal, abrasive and puncturing wounds

Surgical incisions

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87
Q

How do different wounds heal?

A

Superficial (to the dermis) wounds heal with little to no scarring
Deep wounds heal with scarring and sometimes contraction.
1. Hoemostasis and haemotoma
2. Inflammation (redness and oedema)
3. Matrix formation (fibroblasts, collagen and elastin form)
4. Neovascularisation
5. Re-epithelialization
6. Wound contraction and remodelling

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88
Q

What is a scar, and what is the difference between normal, hypertrophic and keloid scars?

A

Scars are collagen patches intended to aid wound strength. The collagen is aligned along lines of stress,
In hypertrophic scars, the collagen is in a random orientation surrounded by oriented bands. It is raised red, itchy and stays within the confines of the wound. They remain indefinitely, and may contract.
Keloid scars are also red, itchy and raised, but are invasive. They occur anytime after injury, often recur, do not contract or regress, and commonly occur on the trunk, back, face and earlobes.

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89
Q

What are tension lines of the skin and how do they have an impact on surgical incisions?

A

These are lines along which the collagen is more tense, with elastic fibres running parallel to these lines.
This means that when the skin is cut, the elastic fibres will pull the wound closed rather than stretching it open, aiding scar formation and preventing hypertrophic scars.
This is of particular import in joints.

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90
Q

What are the muscle compartments of the leg?

A

Anterior, lateral, posterior

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91
Q

What are the muscles and their origins/insertions in the ant and lat compartments?

A

Anterior:

  • Tibialus anterior (Superior lateral tibia/IO membrane to superior medial cuneiform and 1st MT)
  • Extensor digitorum longus (Lateral condyle of tibia, sup. med. tibia and IO membrane to lateral 4 toes)
  • Extensor halucis longus (Middle ant. fib. and IO membrane to base of distal great to phalanx)
  • Peroneus Tertius (inf. ant. fibula and IO membrane to base of 5th metatarsal)
Lateral:
Peroneus Longus (Sup. lat. fibula to inferior medial cuneiform)
Peroneus Brevis (inf. Lat. fibula to inf. 5th MT)
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92
Q

What is the function of the muscles of the anterior and lateral compartments of the leg?

A

Ant:

  • TA: dorsiflexion and inversion
  • EDL: Dorsiflexion
  • EHL: Extends big toe
  • PT: Eversion

Lateral:
Both eversion.

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93
Q

What is the nervous supply of the anterior and lateral leg?

A

Anterior compartment: Deep peroneal nerve

Lateral compartment: Superficial peroneal nerve

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94
Q

What is the vascular supply of the anterior and lateral leg?

A

Anterior compartment: Anterior tibial artery

Lateral compartment: Peroneal artery

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95
Q

What are the 4 retinaculi, what do they hold and where do they stretch?

A

Sup. Extensor Retinaculum: From inferior tibia to fibula, sup. to malleoli. Binds ant. compartment tendons
Inf. Extensor Retinaculum: Y shaped, from upper calcaneus to medial malleolus and plantar aponeurosis.

Sup. peroneal retinaculum: Above lateral malliolus to lateral calcaneus
Inf. peroneal retinaculum: Continuous with cruciate crural ligament, attached to lateral surface of calcaneus. Some fibers fixed to peroneal trochlea, making a septum between the lateral tendons
These hold the lateral muscle tendons down.

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96
Q

What cutaneous regions do the superficial and deep peroneal nerves supply?

A

Deep: Wedge between 1st and 2nd toes
Superficial: medial superior food

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97
Q

What is the innervation of the foot?

A

Lateral: Sural nerve
Medial: Sup. peroneal nerve
1st and 2nd toes: Deep peroneal nerve
Medial: Saphenous nerve

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98
Q

What is the main arterial supply of the foot?

A

The Dorsalis Pedis artery

This branches off the popliteal artery’s anterior tibial artery

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99
Q

What are the two main muscles of the dorsal foot?

A

Extensor digitorum brevis (inf. Ext. Retinaculum to middle of lateral 4 toes
Extensor Hallucis Brevis: Inf. Ext. reticulatum (with the insertion of EDB) to base of great toe.

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100
Q

What is the presentation of compartment syndrome and how is it treated?

A

5 Ps: Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness, Paresthesia and Paralysis

Treat by opening affected and nearby muscle compartments.

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101
Q

What are the two joints and three bones associated with the knee?

A

The patellofemoral joint (patella and femur)

The tibiofemoral joint (tibia and femur)

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102
Q

What is contained within the articular (joint) cavity of the knee? What is excluded?

A

The synovial cavity includes the articular surfaces of the three bones, the suprapatellar bursae, and the menisci (medial fused, lateral not)
Superficial to this, but within the fibrous joint cavity, are the cruciate ligaments.
Superficial to the fibrous membranes are the MCL and LCL, as well as the prepatellar and infrapatellar bursae.

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103
Q

What are the 5 ligaments of the knee joints, their orientations and functions?

A

Prepatellar tendon: continuation of quadriceps tendon, from inf. patella to tibial tuberosity. It moves superiorly to inferiorly to extend the leg.,
MCL and LCL: Medial runs from med. femoral epicondyle to medial tibia. Prevents valgus (tibia moving laterally and femur medially) LCL runs from lat. femoral epicondyle to fibula head. Medial attached to fibrous capsule, lateral discrete. Prevents varus (tibia moving medially and femur laterally)
Cruciate ligaments: Anterior goes from ant. tibial spine to lateral condyle. Prevents anterior translation of tibia. Posterior goes from posterior tibial spine to medial epicondyle. Prevents posterior translation of tibia.

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104
Q

What is the significance of the difference between the lateral and medial sides of the knee joint?

A

The structures on the medial sides are all fused together, so it’s more likely that injuries on the medial side will involve multiple structures. The lateral side is more flexible.

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105
Q

What are the bursae of the knee joint, and how do they become inflamed?

A

Suprapatellar bursa: between quads tendon and femur, continuous with knee joint. Where fluid accumulates during knee joint effusion
Prepatellar bursa: Anterior to patella, inflamed with excessive kneeling etc.
Infrapatellar bursae: Superficial and deep to patellar ligament, inflamed when kneeling upright.

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106
Q

What are the menisci and their functions within the knee?

A

They are two wedges of fibrocartilage within the tibiofemoral joint, absorbing shock and improving joint articulation. The medial meniscus is more likely to be injured than lateral as it is adherent to the joint capsule and MCL

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107
Q

What is the vascular supply of the knee?

A

The knee receives blood superiorly from the femoral, lateral femoral circumflex and popliteal vessals
Inferiorly it receives blood from the anterior tibial and circumflex peroneal arteries.

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108
Q

What is pes anserinus and terrible triad?

A

Pes anserinus- insertion of sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus on med. prox. tibia. They can be used to reconstruct a torn Anterior cruciate ligament
Terrible triad is an injury resulting from valgus force. The three structures involved are the MCL, ACL and medial meniscus

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109
Q

What are the borders of the gluteal region, and the important features of the pelvic bones?

A

Posterior to pelvis, bordered superiorly by iliac crests and inferiorly by gluteal folds
The ilium has the ASIS, iliac spine proper and AIIS
The Ischium has the ischial tuberosity and ischial spine (which is important for pain relief during childbirth)
The pubis has the pubic tubercule.

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110
Q

What are the ligaments of the bony pelvis and what do they do?

A
Sacrospinous ligament (sacrum to ischial spine)
Spinotuberous ligament (sacrum to ischial tuberosity)
These bind the bones of the pelvis together and separate the hold of the pelvis into the greater and leser sciatic foramina.  Greater is superior, allowing passage of nerves and vessels TO lower limb, while the inferior lesser allows passage FROM the lower limb.
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111
Q

What are the 3 superficial muscles of the gluteal region, what are their origins/insertions, nerve supply and functions?

A

Gluteus maximus: Sacrum and iliac crest to the ITB and lateral femur . Supplied by inferior gluteal nerve. Extensor of the hip and lateral thigh rotator
Gluteus medius and minimus: Ilium to greater trochanter. Supplied by superior gluteal nerve. Abducts and internally rotates thigh

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112
Q

What are the 5 deep external rotators of the gluteal region, their origins/insertions, nerve supply and functions?

A
  • Piriformis: Sacrum to greater trochanter.
  • Gemellus superior and inferior, Obturator internis: Ischium to greater trochanter
  • Quadratis femoris: Lateral ischial tuberosity to intertrochanteric crest.
    All are supplied by sacral plexus, and externally rotate the thigh
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113
Q

What are the 3 bursae associated with gluteus maximus?

A
  • Trochanteric bursa: between GM and greater trochanter
  • Ischial bursa: between GM and ischial tuberosity
  • Gluteofemoral bursa: Between ITB and vastus lateralis
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114
Q

What are the muscles of the posterior thigh, their origins, insertions, nerve supply and functions?

A
  • Biceps femoris: Ischial tuberosity (long) and linea aspera (short) to head of fiibula. externally rotates leg
  • Semitendinosus: ischial tuberosity to sup. med. tibia in pes anserinus. Internally rotates leg
  • Semimembranosus: Ischial tuberosity to med. condyle of tibia. Internally rotates leg
  • Adductor magnus: Ischial tuberosity to linea aspera, adductor tubercle, supracondylar ridge.
    All extend thigh
    All innervated by tibial nerve
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115
Q

What are the arteries and nerves of the gluteal region?

A

The internal iliac artery branches to give the superior and inferior gluteal nerves, while the sciatic is simply a large nerve.
There are plexuses superior and inferior to the piriformis muscle.

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116
Q

What are some common problems with the muscles of the hips?

A

Trendelenburg gait- hip drop on affected side due to non-functional hip abductors. Results in leaning and swinging when walking
Trochanteric bursitis occurs when the gluteal bursae become inflamed from extra use
Hamstring injuries can tear the muscle, or pull off the ischial tuberosity’s bone completely
Piriformis sydrome occurs due to compression of the sciating nerve against the piriformis, causing numbness, tingling and pain.

117
Q

How can the gluteal muscles be used?

A

It is an excellent place for intra-muscular injections, as it has a large area and can avoid the sciatic nerve on the lateral side.

118
Q

What are some important anatomical features of the hip joint?

A

The pubis, ischium and ilium form a cuplike structure laterally called the acetabulum. It has a lunate surface forming 3/4 of a circle covered in hyaline cartilage, with a transverse acetabular ligament running along the bottom There is an acetabular fossa medially, containing fat, and a ligament that was once an artery
This structure is collared by fibrocartilage, called the acetabular labrum, deepening the acetabulum.

119
Q

What ligaments are involved in the joint capsule of the hip?

A

Iliofemoral ligament: Provides sup. ant. support, from AIIS to intertrochanteric line, preventing hyperextension
Pubofemoral ligament: Provides inferior anterior support, from pubis to joint capsule. Prevents over abduction
Ischiofemoral ligament: Posterior reinforcement, from ischial acetabular labrum to greater trochanter. Prevents hyper-extension
Ligamentum teres: From acetabular notch to fovea in femoral head.

120
Q

What are the muscles and nerves responsible for the different movements of the hip?

A

Flexion: Quads, sartorius and iliopsoas. Supplied by femoral nerve from L2-3
Extension: Hamstrings and Gluteus maximus, supplied by inf. gluteal nerve and tibial nerve from L4-5
Adduction: Adductors, gracilis and pectineus. Supplied by obturator nerve (except pectineus) from L4
Abduction: Gluteus medius and minimus. Supplied by the sup. gluteal nerve from L5-S1

121
Q

What is the arterial supply of the hip, and what does this mean for fractures?

A

The medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries (branches off profunda femoris off femoral) anastomose with sup. and inf. gluteal arteries around the neck of femur, running into the capsule of the bone itself around the neck.
This means that if the hip is fractured, if this area is not damaged the fracture will heal, whereas if the blood supply is disrupted a replacement will be necessary.

122
Q

What is a motor unit?

A

A single alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibres it innervates

123
Q

What are the two types of muscles, and what is the size principle?

A

Type 1 muscles are slow, whereas type 2 are fast.
The size principle states that small oxidative motor units are recruited first, whereas the few largest are recruited last. This allows varying strengths of contraction, and a synchronized contraction between them

124
Q

What are the features of the neuromuscular junction’s anatomy?

A

The motor end plate is on the muscle fibre, so it is postsynaptic/
On the postsynaptic membrane there are ACh receptors in the crests of the junctional folds, whereas further down in the pits there are voltage gated sodium channels.

125
Q

What is the sequence of pre-synaptic events that occur at the presynaptic membrane?

A
  • Vesicles are filled with ACh cluster, and then docked at the presynaptic membrane where they are primed and wait until Ca2+ activates them
  • Action potential reaches nerve terminal
  • Ca2+ channels are opened, allowing Ca2+ influx
  • Ach is released by exocytosis, where it diffuses across the cleft and binds to ACh receptors
  • The ACh is taken up by local release, fast recycling mechanisms, or by slow mechanisms using endosomes.
126
Q

What is the sequence of post-synaptic events that occur at the post-synaptic membrane?

A
  • ACh binds, causing the opening of voltage-gated AChR channels, causing many Na+ ions to enter and depolarising the cell, propagating an action potential.
  • This occurs until acetylcholinesterase unbinds the ACh from the membrane, and K+ channels open, allowing the membrane to repolarise.
127
Q

What is the End plate current vs. potential?

A

End plate potential is the total change in membrane potential caused by the AP. End plate current is the direction and strength of the current formed by the influx of ions.

128
Q

What is the difference in time course between EPP and EPC and why?

A

EPC has a shorter amount of buildup to its max, due to the fact that it doesn’t have to wait for a change in muscle membrane polarisation.
EPP has a relatively longer arc to max depolarisation, as to measure it relies on the whole motor unit being depolarised.
Likewise, the EPP also has a longer repolarisation curve

129
Q

What is the overall sequence of events in a neuromuscular action potential?

A

AP reaches nerve terminal
Opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Increased Ca2+ triggers exocytosis of ACh
ACh binds to post-synaptic channels, which open
Influx of Na2+ and efflux of K+
Depolariation of end plate
Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels
Na+ influx… and so on as it is propagated down the muscle fibre

130
Q

What are some pre-sympathetic issues that can be had by neuromuscular junction?

A

Diabetes
Lambert-Eaton syndrome
Some natural toxins
These prevent fusion and release of ACh vesicles

131
Q

What are some post-sympathetic issues that can be had by the neuromuscular junction?

A
Myasthenia Gravis- AI disease where antibodies against AChR are produced, so less functional receptors and AP inhibition.  Mainly affects facial muscles.  Treated with anti-AChE or immunosuppressants.
Alpha toxins (snake venom, crurare)- blocks ACh binding sites
132
Q

How is AChE used to recycle ACh?

A

Enzyme AChE is anchored to collagen in basement membranes
Hydrates ACh to form Choline and Acetate
Acetate/choline is diffused back into the membrane and reabsorbed

133
Q

Where is the popliteal fossa and what does it contain?

A

It’s a space behind the knee bordered by the hamstrings (superiorly) and the gastrocnemius’ two heads (inferiorly)
Contains Popliteal artery, popliteal vein, tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve. The artery is the deepest structure in the fossa. This means it is most likely to be injured in a knee dislocation.

134
Q

What are the muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg, and their origins, insertions and functions?

A

Gastrocnemius. Medial head starts at medial condyle of femur, lateral at latera. Both run to the calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon. Plantarflex ankle, flex knee
Soleus: Superior 1/3rd fibula to posterior calcaneus via calcaneal tendon. Plantarflex ankle
Plantaris: Superior to lateral condyle of femur to medial achilles tendon. Plantarflex ankle

135
Q

What are the muscles of the deep posterior compartment of the leg, and their origins, insertions and functions?

A

Tibialis posterior: Posterior tibia, fibula and IO membrane to navicular (bones in medial foot). Plantarflex ankle, invert foot
Flexor digitorum longus: Middle tibia to distal phalanges. Flex toes, plantarflex ankle
Flexor Hallucis longus: Inferior fibula and IO membrane to distal gt. toe. Flexes gt. toe, plantarflexes ankle
Popliteus: Lat condyle and meniscus of femur to post. sup. tibia. Medially rotates tibia.

136
Q

What is the innervation and vasculation of the posterior compartment of the leg?

A

Supplied by posterior tibial artery (which then bifurcates into medial and lateral plantar arteries)
Innervated by tibial nerve (which bifurcates into the medial and lateral plantar nerves)

137
Q

What is the arrangement of structures around the medial malleolus of the fibula?

A

The tendons and blood vessels of the deep post. compartment wind around it in this order (anterior to posterior):
Tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, vein, tibial nerve, flexor hallucis longus tendon.
Remember using mnemonic:
Tom, Dick, And Very Naughty Harry

138
Q

How can the achilles tendon be injured?

A

At MTJ, tendon itself, or its attachment to the calcaneus. Results in an inability to push off.

139
Q

What is the trend in movement and stiffness as you move from the superior to inferior vertebral column?

A

At the cervical area flex/extension is 40 dgrees, lateral flexion is 40 and rotation is 40
Thoracic: f/e is 40, lat. f is 20 and rotation is 40
Lumbar: f/e is 40, lat. f. is 20 and rot. is less that 5.
The vertebral column is much more stiff as it approaches the pelvis compared to the superior aspect

140
Q

What are the 4 curvatures of the vertebral column and the issues that can be associated with it? How do our curvatures change as we age?

A

The cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral curvature.
An increased thoracic curvature = kyphosis
An increased lumbar curvature= lordosis
A lateral curve in the AP plane of the spine = scoliosis
When we are born, our spines are fairly straight. As we begin walking, our lumbar cure develops

141
Q

What are the components of the vertebral column?

A

Vertebral body: most ant. structure with posterior depression for spinal cord. Contains central rough area of early cartilage/collagen
Vertebral arch: C shaped bone surrounding spinal cord. Separated into pedicels (anterior) and laminae (posterior) by the superior/inferior articular processes
Spinous process: A-P oriented prominence on the posterior-most curve of the arch
The arch forms the vertebral foramen, to contain the spinal cord.

142
Q

What are intervertebral discs and what is their function?

A

They sit between vertebral bodies. Formed by sheats of collagen inserted into the bone adjoining it. The collagen forms concentric layers. In the middle there is a pulpy, HA and PG rich mass called the nucleus pulposus, which functions as a ball-bearing.

143
Q

What is a slipped disc and how can this happen? What are the changes involved in the vertebral column as we age?

A

A slipped disc happens when there is a crack in the annulus fibrosus- the nucleus pulposus leaks out and onto the nerve roots for the lower limb, causing back pain.
As we age: collagen gets stiffer, our nucleus pulposus gets less watery, and our cartilage endplates on the articular surfaces of the bones becomes calcified.

144
Q

What are the 5 ligaments f the vertebral column?

A

Anterior longitudinal (covers whole spinal cord anteriorly)
Posterior longitudinal (underneath anterior longitudinal but thinner)
Supraspinous: placed behind the spinal cord, runs the length
Ligamentum flavum: Goes between the arch to superior and inferior processes. Coloured yellow due to elastin to help maintain posture
Interspinous ligaments: From spinal process to process

145
Q

What are the superficial and intermediate muscles of the back and their functions?

A

Superficial: Latissimus dorsi- from processes to limbs, assoc. with limb movement
Intermediate: Serratus Posterior Inferior- processes to lower ribs, assoc. with deep ventilation

146
Q

What are the deep muscles of the back and their functions?

A

Iliocostalis- long muscle from ilium to ribs
Longissimus- prom processes to ribs
Spinalis- from upper back to processes
(These form the erector spinae- important for remaining upright)
Multifidus: transverse, linking the processes

147
Q

How is the spinal cord innervated and vascularized?

A

Nerves and vessels to the discs only enter in the superficial third, so much of it has no nerve or blood supply
There are up to 3 levels of overlap between vertebtrae nerves, so it’s difficult to find the source of any pain etc.

148
Q

Why do thoracic and lumbar vertebrae have different rotation abilities?

A

Thoracic axises are in the vertebral body, while lumbar is on the process. As the vertebrae themselves aren’t able to move out of alignment- rather the muscles- the lumbar has less rotation.

149
Q

What are the fundamental differences between the pelvic and pectoral girdles?

A

The pelvic girdle is made of 3 bones fused together, attached to the axis by incredibly strong ligaments
The pectoral girdle is made of 2 non-fused bones with synovial joints, and small points of contact with the axis

150
Q

What are the 3 movement types of the pectoral girdle?

A

Retraction and protraction
Elevation and depression
Superior and inferior rotation (named based on where the glenoid points)

151
Q

What is the clavicle and what is its function?

A

It is a long bone sitting subcutaneously between the sternum and acromion of the scapula. It forms a strut for the transfer of forces from the limb to the axial skeleton, and as a consequence it breaks often. It has multiple attachments for ligaments and muscles, including the deltoid, trapezoid and pectoralis major.

152
Q

What is the scapula and its function?

A

It is a triangular, flat bone, covering the postero-lateral ribs from 2-7. It has 3 angles: superior, inferior and the glenoid fossa (lateral) and 3 borders: superior, medial, lateral). It contains 3 protuberances (the coracoid, acromion and spine), and 3 surfaces: supraspinous fossa, infraspinous fossa, and subscapula fossa

153
Q

What are the 2 main joints of the pectoral girdle?

A
  • Sternoclavicular (AC)

- Acromioclavicular (AC)

154
Q

What is the SC joint and how is it strengthened?

A

It is a saddle-shaped synovial joint between the clavicle and the sternum. It contains an intra-articular disc (fibrocartilaginous) between its two joint cavities, which functions like the menisci of the knee- cushions, aids movement, and stabilizes the joint.
There are main ligaments stabilizing it: The anterior and posterior sternoclavicular ligaments, of which the p is stronger to prevent backwards dislocation. Additionally, the interclavicular ligament links the two clavicles over the jugular notch, and the costoclavicular ligament braces it to the first rib. The subclavicus muscle runs adjacent to this ligament, where it braces the clavicle and can depress it

155
Q

What is the AC joint and how is it strengthened?

A

A synovial joint between the lateral clavicle and the medial acromion. It also ccontains an intra-articular disc, although it is wedge shaped (like the knee). The joint capsule is fairly loose, and is made up of the sup. and inf. acromioclavicular ligaments. The conical shaped coracoclavicular ligament gives further support.
It also receives support from the trapezoid muscle.

156
Q

What is the posterior axial skeleton to pectoral girdle muscle?
What is its O/I, nerve supply and movements?

A
  • Trapezius muscle: Supplied by accessory nerve, from spinous processes until T12 to spine of the scapula. Retracts scapula. (sup. only elevates, inf. only depresses, mid. only retracts and sup. and mid. cause sup. rotation.
157
Q

What are the posterior axial skeleton to pectoral girdle muscles?
What are their O/Is, nerve supply and movements?

A

Levator scapulae: Upper cervical spinous processes to sup. angle of scapula. Elevates scapula
Rhomboid min./maj. Upper thoracic processes to med. border of scapula. Retracts scapula
Both supplied by dorsal scapular nerve

158
Q

What is the posterior axial skeleton to humerus muscle?

What is its O/I, nerve supply and movement?

A

Latissimus dorsi: Iliac crest, sacrum, vertebrae to T7 to ant. humerus. Adducts and internally rotate humerus. Can depress scapula by pulling humerus.
Supplied by thoracodorsal nerve.

159
Q

What is the axial skeleton to humerus anterior muscle? What is its O/I, nerve supply and movement?

A

Pectoralis major: Has 2 heads, running from the clavicle and the sternum/costal cartilage to the lateral intertubercular groove on the anterior humerus.
Adducts and internally rotates humerus, can protract the scapula by pulling humerus
Supplied by the lat. and med. pectoral nerves

160
Q

What are the axial skeleton to pectoral girdle muscles, their O/Is, nerve supplies and movement?

A

Subclavius: From rib 1 to clavicle. Braces clavicle, innervated by C5
Pectoralis minor: From ribs 3-5 to the coracoid. Depresses scapula, innervated by medial pectoral nerve
(NB pectoralis minor overlies the brachial plexus, so compressing it can numb the limb
Serratus anterior: Run from ribs 1-8 to medial border of scapula. Protracts scapula, lower fibers superiorly rotate scapula. Works with rhomboids to stabilize the pectoral girdle. Innervated by long thoracic nerve

161
Q

What is ‘winged scapula’ and how does it occur?

A

It happens when the long thoracic nerve is severed, causing the serratus anterior to lo longer hold the scapula tight to the body. Results in scapulae with winged appearances.

162
Q

What muscles elevate the scapula?

A
  • Levator scapulae
  • Rhomboids
  • Upper trapezius
163
Q

What muscles depress the scapula?

A
- Lower serratus anterior
Anteriorly: 
-Subclavius
- Pec minor
- Lower pec major
Posteriorly:
- Lower lat dorsi
- Lower trapezius
164
Q

What muscles protract the scapula?

A
  • Both pectoralis

- Serratus anterior

165
Q

What muscles retract the scapula?

A
  • Rhomboids
  • Middle trapezius
  • Upper lat dorsi
166
Q

What muscles inferiorly rotate the scapula?

A
Anterior:
- Both pectoralis
Posterior:
- Levator scapulae
- Rhomboids
- Lat dorsi
167
Q

What muscles superiorly rotate the scapula?

A
  • Upper trapezius and lower trapezius

- Serratus anterior

168
Q

What is the axilla?

A

An area in the upper trunk where the major nerve and vascular supply to the limb travel through

169
Q

What form the borders of the axilla?

A

Apex: First rib (medially), superior scapula (posterior) and clavicle (anteriorly)
Anterior wall: Subclavius, costocoracoid ligament/membrane, pectoralis muscles, suspensory ligament of axilla.
Base: Axillary fascia
Posterior wall: Lat dorsi, teres major, subscapularis, supraspinatus muscles
Medial wall: Serratus anterior muscle
Lateral wall: Intertubercular groove of humerus

170
Q

Where do the structures enter and exit the axilla at the apex?

A

Most anterior: Vein from upper limb leaves anteriorly to anterior scalene muscle
Medial: Artery to upper limb leaves between mid and ant scalene muscles
Nerve is posterior to this.

171
Q

What are the spinal roots contributing to the brachial plexus?

A
  • C5-T1
172
Q

What are the trunks of the brachial plexus, where do they split and what roots contribute to each?

A
Superior trunk (C5/6)- 
Middle trunk (C7)
Inferior trunk (C8/T1)
All split into anterior and posterior divisions
173
Q

What are the cords of the brachial plexus and where do they come from?

A

Lateral cord: Formed from the sup. trunk’s ant. division and middle trunk’s ant. division
Posterior cord: Formed from all 3 trunks’ posterior divisons
Medial cord: Formed from inferior trunk’s anterior division

174
Q

What are the 5 important (and 2 less important) nerves of the upper limb and where do they originate from?

A
  1. Musculocutaneus: From lateral cord.
  2. Median: from lateral and medial cords
  3. Axillary: From posterior cord
  4. Radial: from posterior cord
  5. Ulnar: From medial cord
    2 less important: Medial cutaneous nerves of forearm and arm (from medial cord)
175
Q

What does the musculocutaneous nerve supply? (Muscle area and cutaneous)

A

Supplies muscles of whole anterior arm, and lateral forearm

176
Q

What does the median nerve supply ? (muscle area and cutaneous)

A

Nothing in arm
Lateral 3/4 of forearm muscles and lateral hand muscles
Thumb and lateral 2.5 fingers of hand

177
Q

What does the ulnar nerve supply? (muscle area and cutaneous)

A

Medial 1/4 of forearm muscles and most hand muscles

Skin on medial 1.5 fingers of hand

178
Q

What does the axillary nerve supply? (muscle area and cutaneous)

A

Deltoid and teres minor muscles in shoulder

Superior lateral cutaneous arm

179
Q

What does the radial nerve supply? (muscle area and cutaneous)

A

All posterior muscles of arm and forearm
Cutaneous supply to whole posterior arm and hand apart from: Fingertips, medial back of hand, medial cutaneous nerves of arm and forearm and musculocutaneous nerve areas.

180
Q

What are the different glands within skin and what is found surrounding one of them?
What do pacinian corpuscles look like under the microscope?

A

Sweat glands- simple coiled tubular glands
Sebaceous glands- branched gland surrounding hair follicle. Often found with arrector pili smooth muscle blocks.
PCs look like circular structures with another circle inside it.

181
Q

What are the 4 zones of the epiphyseal plate?

A
  1. Zone of resting/reserve cartilage
  2. Zone of proliferation (elongation of plate)
  3. Zone of maturation/hypertrophy
  4. Zone of resorption/ossification
182
Q

What are the distinguishing features of cervical, thoracic and lumber vertebrae?

A

C: Transverse processes form foramina for passage of vertebral arteries. Spinous processes have cleft for neck ligaments to attach to
T: Smooth ant. trans. processes for rib articulation, on lat. vertebral bodies for splayed head of rib (2 each side) and sup. inf. processes flat for rotation. Spinous processes long, conical
L: No faces, spinous processes broad, short, flat. Inf and sup. processes are curved to prevent rotation

183
Q

What is the main artery of the upper limb, what are its divisions, and what are its branches (and what muscles do these supply)?

A

Main artery is the axillary artery (which formed from the subclavian after it passes the first rib). It extends down into the arm, where is becomes the brachial artery after the passing the inferior surface of teres major.
It is separated into 3 by the pec minor- proximal, posterior and distal to the muscle.
Division 1 has 1 branch: Superior thoracic artery. Supplies superior med. wall of axilla- serratus, subclavius
Division 2 has 2 branches:
- Thoracoacromial artery: Supplies anterior wall of axilla
- Lateral thoracic artery: Supplies lower medial wall of axilla (serratus, some pec. major)
Division 3 has 3 branches:
- Subscapular artery: Supplies posterior wall of axilla
- Anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries: Anastomose around the surgical neck of the humerus and supply lateral boundary of humerus

184
Q

How are axillary lymph nodes used in cancer?

A

The breast drains into mainly the pectoral nodes, but sometimes the apical nodes first. By finding where the breast is draining to, we can isolate where the cancer may be transferring to.

185
Q

What are the pectoral girdle to arm muscles, their O/Is, functions and nerve supplies?

A

Deltoid: 3 areas- ant, mid, post.
Ant goes from anterior clavicle to deltoid tuberosity. Flexes shoulder, internally rotates arm
Mid goes from acromion to deltoid tuberosity. Very strong, abducts arm.
Post goes from post. scapula to deltoid tuberosity. Extends shoulder, externally rotates arm
All innervated by axillary nerve
Teres major: From inf. angle/lat. border of scapula to intertubercular groove. Adducts shoulder, internally rotates arm. Lower subscapular nerve.
Coracobrachialis: from coracoid to mid. med. humerus. Adducts arm. Musculocutaneous nerve

186
Q

What are the anterior muscles of the arm and their OIs, functions and nerve supply?

A
  • Brachialis: Deepest, from ant. distal humerus to tuberosity of ulna. Flexes elbow.
  • Biceps brachii: Short head: coracoid. Long head: Inside shoulder joint. Combine to insert on radial tuberosity. Supinate, flex elbow .
  • And coracobrachialis
    All supplied by musculocutaneous nerve
187
Q

What are the posterior muscles of the arm? What are their OI, function and nerve supply?

A

Triceps brachii: From intraglenoid tubercle (long), post. humerus (short) and med. humerus (med) to olecranon on ulna.
Also anconeus- from lat. epicondyle to ulna. Helps extend elbow.
Both innervated by radial nerve

188
Q

How do the compartments of the humerus change as you move distally? Why does this happen?

A

Initially, there is the anterior and posterior compartment, separated by the lateral and medial intermuscular septae.
The anterior compartment flexes the elbow and is supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve, while the posterior compartment extends the elbow and is supplied by the radial nerve.
Distally, the medial and lateral intermuscular septae split anteroposteriorly, and form 4 compartments of the arm: The ant (flexor) compartment, Post (ext) compartment, as well as the flex/pronator (medial) and ext./sup. compartment (lateral). These contain muscles from the epicondyles of the humerus to the hand, allowing the hand to grip strongly. The med compartment muscles stretch anteriorly and are supplied by the median and ulnar nerves, while the lat compartment stretches posteriorly and is supplied by the radial nerve.

189
Q

What conditions are required for the deltoid fibres to abduct the arm?

A

The middle fibres can only abduct once the arm is already about 15 degrees abducted as the axis between its insertion and origin is off.
The ant/post fibres can abduct onse the arm is extended as when the arm is adducted the two will continue to adduct the muscle.

190
Q

Why is it important for the long head of biceps brachii to be within the shoulder joint?

A

It stops superior dislocation of the arm and holds the arm tight to the pectoral girdle

191
Q

What are the 3 joint types of the body and how can they be identified?

A
  • Synarthroses or fibrous joints. They consist of bones united by fibrous tissue, and can be fused (synostosis- in squamous or serate lines- eg. skull sutures) or unfused (syndesmosis- usually an interosseous membrane- eg. tibiofibular joint)
  • Synchondroses or cartilaginous joints. Can be primary (bone-cartilage-bone- eg. epiphyseal plate (temporary) or costal cartilage (permanent)) or secondary (bone-cartilage-fibrous tissue-cartilage-bone- eg. intervertebral disc)
  • Diarthroses or synovial joints. Bone-cartilage-joint space-cartilage-bone. They have a joint space and synovial fluid as well as articular cartilage, a synovial membrane (for fluid production), fibrous capsule (to hold joint in place) and menisci/articular disc.
192
Q

What is the structure/function of the intervertebral disc? How does this change?

A

Surrounded by ligaments (ant and post longitudinal), with annulus fibrosis inserting into cartilage and bone superiorly and inferiorly. The layers of collagen are arranged in lamellae.
Towards the inf. and sup. edges, the a.f. becomes fibrocartilage and then hyaline cartilage.
In the centre, the nucleus pulposus is soft, supporting movement in all directions. It is gradually compressed during the day and re-inflates during the night.
The nucleus pulposus is central in c. and t. vertebrae, but post. in l. vertebrae.
Extrusion can occur lateral to the posterior spinal ligament, affecting the nerves the level below. If medial, it affects all levels below.
As we age, we lose peripheral cartilage, malleability of n.p. and our cartilage and collagen becomes stiffer (calcified). This can cause osteophytes and vertebral fractures.

193
Q

What can happen to synovial joints?

A

If they become inflamed, they over-secrete synovial fluid, forming a large lump in the bursa.

194
Q

Where is synovial fluid present outside of synovial joints?

A

Forming the layer between epitendinium and parietal layers- the tendons sit within these structures like a fist in a balloon.

195
Q

What is special about the structures within a skeletal muscle cell?

A
  • Cell membrane is called the sarcolemma
  • It has infoldings penetrating deep into the myocyte for the condution of action potentials into the cell itself.
  • Striated appearance is due to the interdigitation of thick and thin filaments within the muscles
  • The SR borders the t-tubules on either side, and stretches across the sarcomere. It functions as a store for Ca2+. It contains pumps and channels for the release and reuptake oc Ca2+
196
Q

What are the different zones of filaments within a muscle fibre?

A

A-band: thick filaments intertigitated with thin filaments
I band: thin filaments only
Z disk: middle of I band where different sarcomeres’ thin filaments attach
H band: Centre of the A band, with thick filaments only (not as dark)
M line: centre of H band where opposing myosin filaments attach

197
Q

What are thick filaments?

A

Strands composed of myosin, oriented in opposing directions (like golf clubs attached at their handles
Bare zone of no heads in the middle
Titin acts as a spring, as it stretches from the end of the myosin filament to the z disk, keeping the two somewhat separate

198
Q

What are thin filaments?

A

Two strands of actin twisted into a helix.
Contains nebulin attaching them to their backbone tropomyosin protein.
Has troponin C, I and T, forming a troponin complex
C forms the binding site for myosin
T positions the complex on the tropomyosin

199
Q

What is the process of the crossbridge cycle?

A
  1. At rest, myosin is attached to actin at a 45 degree angle, with no ATP/ADP/P on it. This is rigor, and is why dead people become stiff
  2. ATP binds to myosin, causing it to dissociate from actin
  3. ADP is converted to ADP and the myosin weakly binds to actin at a 90 degree angle
  4. The phosphate is released, causing the power stroke, where the angle of the head changes to 45 degrees
  5. ADP dissociates and the head returns to the rigor state
200
Q

What is the role of calcium in the contractile process?

A

At rest, tropomyosin blocks the actin’s attachment site for myosin, and the TnC already has 2 Ca2+ molecules attached to it. It binds cooperatively, so the extra two it can take become easier to attach. When Ca2+ binds to troponin C, this causes a shift and allows the myosin to bind

201
Q

How is intracellular calcium regulated?

A

A SERCA pump in the SR removes it from the sarcoplasm

Ca2+ is stored in the SR and released from the terminal cisternae

202
Q

What is the process of excitation-contraction coupling?

Why is this a good thing?

A

DHP receptors in the T tubules are placed opposite the Ry receptors in the SR terminal cisternae. When the T tubule is depolarised, the DHPRs induce a conformational change in the RyR, enabling it to open and release Ca2+ into the cell.
Good as:
- Rapid kinetics
- No dependence on current
- No reliance on diffusion
- Excitation can occur regardless of Ca2+ remaining in the sarcoplasm

203
Q

What is the time course of skeletal muscle activation, and what other time-courses can arise?

A
  1. Neuron depolarizes
  2. Muscle fiber depolarizes
  3. Muscle twitch occurs lasting 10-100msec
    UNLESS: Summation occurs
    Summation occurs when a second wave of depolarisation occurs that causes the original force of contraction to increase more, like a buildup.
    Tetanus occurs when the muscle is held at maximum tension
    - Unfused is when there are waves reaching max tension, but not frequently enough to result in sustained max. tension (fused tetanus)
204
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system affect muscle contraction?

A
  • Reduces time to peak tension for fast muscles

- Slow acting muscles reduced

205
Q

What are the different types of muscle contraction?

A
  • Isometric: Muscle has no length change, but may need to change its force used
  • Isotonic- changes in length, but the force it uses remains the same
  • Concentric: Muscle actively shortens
  • Eccentric: Muscle actively lengthens
  • Passive stretch: Muscle passively lengthens
206
Q

Why are eccentric contractions important?

A

They occur when the force of the weight is greater than the force of the muscle, like when you’re lowering weights during bicep curls
Due to the stretching involved, not all sarcomeres lengthen equally, resulting in some giving way and producing less force overall.
It is associated with delayed onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

207
Q

What is the force length relationship?

A

The relationship between the stretch of the sarcomere and the force it will generate

  • When muscle is compressed force is low as there isn’t far that it can contract
  • When about 2.1-2.2 um long it has max contraction due to ability to get a good grip on x bridges and a good deal of contraction
  • When too stretched, fewer x bridges can be formed, so contraction is weaker
208
Q

What is passive vs. active force-length of a muscle?

A

Active is using the cross bridge cycle to generate force

Passive is using the integral elasticity of the muscle to contract (highest when it is stretched)

209
Q

What is the force-velocity relationship of a muscle?

What is ‘power’?

A

The max velocity/stress of a muscle occurs when there is no force, and steadily decreases until the contraction changes from concentric to eccentric.
The max power/stress occurs at about 30% of maximum force- this is when our muscles are most efficient.
Power is the (force x distance contracted) / time. Measured in watts

210
Q

Where do skeletal muscles get their ATP?

A

1st: From creatine phosphate releasing energy to convert ADP to ATP
2nd: Glycolysis
3rd: Aerobic respiration

211
Q

What are the different types of muscle fibres?

A

Type II: fast glycolytic. Use glycolysis predominately. Fast but inefficient
Type I: Slow oxidative. Use aerobic respiration. Slow but efficient

212
Q

What is muscle fatigue and what can cause it?

A

Failure to maintain required or expected power output, leading to reduced muscle performance.
Not exactly known what causes it, but many potential sites
Central fatigue = Decrease in no of motor units recruited, motivational/psychological factors
Peripheral fatigue: Decreased Ca2+ in myoplasm
Decreased sensitivity of myofilaments to Ca2+
Cross bridges affected

213
Q

What is the difference between the accumulation theory and depletion theory of fatigue?

A
  • Accumulation theory states that muscles fatigue to to increased extracellular K+ (decreased excitability), increased inorganic phosphate (Decreased SR cycling, Ca2+ sensitivity and power strokes) or Increased free radicals
  • Depletion theory states that it is fewer reagents for respiration (ATP, glucose, creatine phosphate, oxygen) that causes fatigue
214
Q

What is Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, and what causes it?

A

Dystrophin is missing in the internal cytoskeleton, resulting in muscles that easily tear and rapidly degenerate. Though muscles are normal at birth, they become more permeability, allowing enzymes out and Ca2+ in, which can be damaging.
Often causes death by 20 due to failure of resp. muscles
X linked mutation

215
Q

What is sarcopenia?

A

Age related loss of muscle function, where the muscle mass to body mass ratio is decreased.
Causes a significant loss of strength, although there is a large range of extremes and it can be prevented by exercise through adulthood
Causes increased proportion of type 1 muscles and a decreased capillary to fibre ratio.

216
Q

What is the path of the musculocutaneous nerve?

A

Divides from the lateral cord, runs into coracobrachialis and then between biceps and brachialis before passing over the lat. epicondyle of the humerus and becoming the lateral cutaneous nerve for the forearm

217
Q

What is the path of the median nerve?

A

Gets contributions from the medial and lateral cords before running down the medial side of the arm, and straight into the medial forearm

218
Q

What is the path of the ulnar nerve?

A

Runs from the medial cord down the posterior median arm, before flicking under the medial epicondyle of the humerus and entering the anterior forearm

219
Q

What is the path of the radial nerve?

A

Comes from the posterior cord. Enters the posterior arm through the triangular interval, before flicking un front of the lateral condyle and back down into the posterior compartment of the forearm.

220
Q

What is the path of the axillary nerve?

A

Leaves the lateral cord, moves posteriorly through the quadrangular space and into the shoulder region

221
Q

What are the 3 ‘gaps’ in the arm and their borders?

A
  1. Triangular Space: Between teres min and maj, lateral border is long head of triceps. Holds 1 artery
  2. Quadrangular space: Lateral border is humerus, between teres min and maj, medial border is long head of triceps. Contains axillary nerve, pst. circum. humeral artery
  3. Triangular interval: Superior border teres maj, medial border long head of triceps, lateral border humerus. Contains radial nerve, profunda brachii artery
222
Q

What is the path of the axillary artery through to the forearm?

A

The axillary artery becomes the brachial artery below the inferior border of teres major. It almost immediately branches laterally to give the profunda brachii artery (supplies post. compt.)
Distally, the brachial artery bifurcates into the radial and ulnar arteries

223
Q

What are the veins of the arm/forearm, and what happens above the cubital fossa?

A

The medial vein is the basilic vein
The lateral vein is the cephalic vein
In the cubital fossa, the two anastomose in an H shape using the median cubital vein.
Proximally, the basilic vein receives tributaries from the brachial veins and profunda brachii veins before becoming the axillary vein and meeting with the cephalic vein.

224
Q

What are the bony structures of the shoulder joint?

A

The glenoid fossa articulates with the head of the humerus.
Superoanteriorly is the coracoid, and superoposteriorly is the acromion.
The glenoid labrum (a fibrocartilaginous ring, slightly improves articulation.
Directly distal to the head of the humerus is the anatomical neck, and posteriorly is the greater tubercle, with the lesser tubercle more anterior, and the intertubercular groove between them.
The surgical neck of the femur is seen where the bone shaft begins to narrow.

225
Q

What are the components of the glenohumeral joint?

A

Articular cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of the glenoid and humerus, with the glenoid labrum sitting around the glenoid itself
The long head of biceps in intracapsular, and attaches to the supraglenoid tubercle.
There is synovial membrane around the articular cavity with an epitendineum around the biceps tendon.
Superficial to this is the fibrous capsule, which reaches from the top to bottom of glenoid. It is fairly loose to allow a lot of range of movement

226
Q

What are the ligaments of the glenohumeral joint? Where do they go and what do they do?

A

The only extracapsular ligament is the coracoacromial ligament. This reaches from the acromion to the coracoid, forming a roof over the joint and preventing superior dislocation
The three capsular ligaments make up the joint capsule
The coracohumeral joint attaches anteriorly from the coracoid to the humerus and helps passively suspend the arm and reinforce the capsule superiorly
The transverse humeral ligament spans the tubercles, holding the long head of biceps femoris down
The glenohumoral ligaments (3) run from the glenoid to the humerus, but they only provide weak support.

227
Q

How does the glenohumeral joint get support and where is this weakest?

A

The rotator cuff muscles surround the inferior and anterior joint, while the coracoacromial ligament holds the roof. The inferior aspect has no muscles or bones to support it and so the arm is more likely to dislocate inferiorly

228
Q

What are the 3 bursae of the shoulder?

A
  • Subscapular- protects subscapularis from ridge of glenoid fossa
  • Subacromial- separates coracoacromial arch from supra and infraspinatus tendons
  • Subdeltoid- lateral continuation of subacromial- protects deltoid
229
Q

What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles, their O/Is and nerve supplies, and functions?

A
  • Subscapularis: From anterior scapula to lesser tubercle. Internally rotates arm. Supplied by upper & lower subscapular nerve
  • Supraspinatus: From above scapular spine to superior greater tubercle. Abducts arm to first 15 degrees. Supplied by suprascapular nerve
  • Infraspinatus: from beneath spine of scapular to middle greater tubercle. Externally rotates arm. Supplied by suprascapular nerve
  • Teres minor: from lateral border of scapula to inferior greater tubercle. Externally rotates arm. Supplied by axillary nerve
    All of these muscles are responsible for the active stabilisation of the shoulder joint.
230
Q

What are the three bones in the elbow joint, what joints are made and what are their articular surfaces called?

A
  • The humerus, ulna and radius
  • Humero-ulnar joint: The ulnar surface is the olecranon, with the trochlear notch and coronoid process anteriorly. The humeral surface is the trochlea
  • Humero-radial joint: The radial surface is the superior surface of radius, while the humeral surface is the capitulum
  • The Superior radio-ulnar joint: The head of the radius articulates with the radial notch on the unla.
231
Q

What are the three ligaments of the elbow joint, and what are their functions?

A
  1. MCL: Medial epicondyle of humerus to upper medial ulna. Prevents unwanted excessive abduction
  2. LCL: Lateral epicondyle to ligament 3. Prevents excessive adduction
  3. Anular ligament: Extends around the head of the radius and meets the radial notch, allowing the humerus to attach to the radius without impeding pronation/supination
232
Q

What muscles abduct the arm?

A

Supraspinatus

Middle deltoid fibres

233
Q

What muscles adduct the arm?

A
Pectoralis major
Posterior and anterior deltoids
Long head of triceps
Coracobrachialis
Teres major
Lat dorsi
234
Q

What muscles flex the arm>

A

Anterior deltoid
Clavicular Pec major
Coracobrachialis
Biceps Brachii

235
Q

What muscles extend the arm?

A
Long head of triceps
Posterior deltoid
Teres major
Lat dorsi
Sternocostal pec major
236
Q

What muscles internally rotate the arm?

A
Pec major
Anterior deltoid
Subscapularis
Lat dorsi
Teres major
237
Q

What muscles externally rotate the arm?

A

Posterior deltoid
Infraspinatus
Teres minor

238
Q

How is the ulna attached to the radius?

A

Between radial notch and head of radius superiorly
Down the bone shafts, there is an IO membrane with fibres arranged obliquely. The IO membrane is flexible, so acts as a hinge, as well as a site for muscle attachment. It also allows transmission of forces as when you lean down, it puts tension on the oblique fibres from the radius, transmitting to the ulna
Inferiorly, the head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch, covered inferiorly by the fibrocartilage fibrous articular disc. Therefore the ulna doesn’t articulate at the wrist.
Both bones have inferior styloid processes for the attachment of strong ligaments

239
Q

What are the names of the carpal bones and how are they arranged?

A

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetral, pisiform
Trapezoid, trapezium, capitate and hamate
Arranged in two rows
Remembered using mnemonic: Some lovers try positions that they cannot handle

240
Q

What are the joints involved at the wrist and what movement is seen here?

A
  1. Wrist joint proper (radiocarpal): Fibrous articular disc articulates with scaphoid, lunate and triquetral. Responsible for flexion/extension, abduction/adduction and some rotation
  2. Midcarpal: Between the rows of carpal bones. Responsible for some flexion/extension
  3. Carpal-metacarpal joint: Between distal carpals and medial 4 metacarpals. Practically immobile.
241
Q

What is the flexor retinaculum and the palmar aponeurosis?

A

The flexor retinaculum is a fibrous strap running from pisiform and hamate to scaphoid and trapedium, forming the medial half of the wrist (not into radial side). It forms the carpal tunnel, within which are the long flexor tendons.
The palmar aponeurosis is a sheet fanning from the distal flexor retinaculum.

242
Q

What are the superficial muscles of the flexor/pronator compartment of the forearm, OIs and nerve supply?

A
  • Pronator teres: Medial supracondylar ridge to radius
  • Flexor capri radialis: Common flexor tendon to base of 2nd metacarpal. Travels under flexor retinaculum
  • Palmaris longus: Common flexor tendon to proximal phalanges of fingers, attaches to palmar aponeurosis to anchor skin to palm. Superficial to flexor retinaculum
  • Flexor carpi ulnaris: common flexor tendon to pisiform bone, with ligaments then reaching to metacarpals four and five. Superficial to flexor retinaculum.
    PT, FCT and PL innervated by median nerve
    FCU innervated by ulnar nerve
243
Q

What is the intermediate muscle of the flexor/pronator compartment of the forearm, OI and nerve supply?

A

Flexor digitorum superficialis: From radius, IO membrane and humero-ulnar joint to middle phalanges of fingers.
Travels under flexor retinaculum
Innervated by median nerve

244
Q

What are the deep muscles of the flexor/pronator compartment of the forearm, OI and nerve supply?

A
  • Flexor digitorum profundus: From ulna to distal phalanges. Flex fingers
  • Flexor pollicis longus: From radius to distal thumb. Flex thumb
  • Pronator quadratus: From med. ulna to lateral radius. Helps pull radius during pronation.
    All innervated by median nerve (apart from med. FDP, innervated by ulnar)
245
Q

What muscles, arteries and nerves travel over vs. under the flexor retinaculum?

A

Palmaris longus and flexor carpi ulnaris run over it

The rest, as well as the radial artery, ulnar artery and nerve, run underneath it.

246
Q

What is the path of the median nerve in the forearm?

A

It runs beneath pronator teres and flexor carpi radialis, emerving between FCR and PL. Then travels medially, giving off an ant. interosseous nerve to supply PQ, FPL and lat. FDP.
Beneath the flexor retinaculum it splits into a recurrent branch (thenars), a palmar cutaneous branch, and proper palmar digital nerves for the lateral 2.5 fingers (cutaneous)

247
Q

What is the path of the ulnar nerve through the forearm

A

Dips around the medial epicondyle of the humerus, re-emerging from between FCU and med. FDP. Here it gives off a palmar cutaneous branch.
Towards the hand it gives off a dorsal cutaneous branch, deep branch (for most intrinsic hand muscles) and proper palmar digital nerves for the medial 1.5 fingers

248
Q

What is the arterial supply of the forearm?

A

Brachial artery splits into ulnar and radial arteries.
Ulnar splits into common interosseous
Common interosseous gives off post. and ant. interosseous, on the post. and ant. sides of the IO membrane.
Both the radial and the ulnar arteries give off a deep and a superficial branch within the hand.

249
Q

What are the different joint types at the digits?

A

First carpometacarpal joint: Saddle joint, allowing thumb flexion/extension, abduction/adduction and some rotation (for opposition).
Others: hinge joints with 2 condyles, allowing flexion/extension only.
Medial 4 Metacarpophalangeal joints: Condyloid joints with 1 condyle, allowing flexion/extension and abduction/adduction. Stopped from rotating by ligaments.
Thumb: hinge joint
Interphalangeal joints: hinge joints.

250
Q

What are the ligaments associated with the hand and their functions?

A

Deep transverse metacarpal ligaments run transversely from the distal ends of each metacarpal. They prevent excessive spreading of the digits, and attach to the palmar ligaments of the MCP joints.
Palmar ligaments are found in the IP and MCP joints, preventing rotation. They also form a soft, feltlike channel for the long flexor tendons.

251
Q

What are the bursae of the hand and their features?

A

The digits are surrounded by fibrous sheaths, inside of which are synovial sheaths, making it easier for the fingers to flex and extend.
The Digitti minimi bursa is continuous with the common synovial sheath of the carpal tunnel, so if the little finger’s bursa becomes infected it could lead to carpal tunnel syndrome, where the common synovial sheath swells so much the nerves are compressed

252
Q

What are the deepest muscles of the hand? What are their OIs, nervous supply and function?

A

Dorsal interossei muscles:
They abduct the fingers (apart from DM and P)
They are bipennate, so have two origins (on the metacarpal they move and the neighboring one) and insert into the midline of the extensor hood
They are supplied by the deep ulnar nerve.
Remember using DIMAB
Dorsal Interosseis insert into the Midline for ABduction.

253
Q

What are the second deepest muscles of the hand? What are their OIs, nervous supply and function?

A

Palmar interossei muscles
They adduct the fingers (apart from the third phalange, which IS the midline)
They attach out from the midline and insert into the extensor hood.
They are supplied by the deep ulnar nerve.
Remember using POMAD
Palmar interosseis insert Out from the Midline to ADduct.

254
Q

What is the third most superficial muscle of the hand? What is its OI, nervous supply and function?

A

The Adductor pollicis muscle
Runs from third metacarpal to the base of the thumb’s proximal phalanx.
Adducts thumb for opposition.
Supplied by deep ulnar nerve. Also overlies the radial artery.

255
Q

What are the second most superficial muscles of the hand? What are their OIs, nervous supply and functions?

A

Lumbrical muscles.
First and second are unipennate, third and fourth are bipennate.
Run from tendon of FDP tendons to lateral corners of extensor hoods.
Allow flexion of the digits while extending IP joints (like a puppet grip)
Bipennates supplied by ulnar, unipennates supplied by median.
Remember by LIL: Lumbricals insert laterally.

256
Q

What is the anatomy of the extensor hood?

A

It’s a fibrous sheath on the posterior side of the digits that surrounds the MCP joints and runs along the posterior aspect of the digits. They allow a puppet grip to occur, as the contraction of the lumbricals and interossei can be channeled into it, pulling it back even while FDP fires.

257
Q

What are the most superficial muscles of the hand, their OI, nerve supply and functions?

A

Thenar muscles: Abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis and opponens pollicis. APB and FPB run from flexor retinaculum to the base of the prox. phalanx. Opponens is from lateral side of first metacarpal to roll the thumb inwards in opposition. Flex, abduct and oppose the thumb. Supplied by median nerve
Hypothenar muscles: Abductor dig. minimi, flexor dig. minimi and opponens dig. minimi. Same story as thenars but opponens is on the medial side of the 5th metacarpal. Flex, abduct and oppose little finger. Supplied by deep ulnar nerve.
The thenars and hypothenars are laid out as mirror images of one another- flexors towards the midline, abductors away from the midline and opponens deep.

258
Q

What is the nervous supply of the palm of the hand?

A

ULNAR NERVE: splits into deep and superficial branches beneath flex. retinaculum. Superficial brach splits into common palmar digital nerves for the medial 2 digits, and then each splits again into proper palmar digital nerves, each supplying adjacent sides of neighbouring fingers. Superficial is cutaneous, deep supplies all muscles apart from those innervated by the median nerve
MEDIAN NERVE: recurrent branch just distal to flex. retinaculum supplies thenar muscles. Then splits into common palmar nerves (supply lumbricals 1 and 2) and again into proper palmar digital nerves, which supply the lateral 3.5 fingers.

259
Q

What is the nervous supply of the back of the hand?

A

Dorsal branch of ulnar nerve supplies medial 1.5 fingers and the associated back of the hand
Superficial radial nerve supplies back of hand to the lateral 3.5 fingers apart from fingertips (Medial nerve)

260
Q

How is the dermatome of the hand used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

If there is numbness in the index finger, although sensation in the lateral anterior wrist (where a small branch of the medial nerve passes over the flex. ret) then carpal tunnel is likely.

261
Q

What is the arterial supply of the hand?

A
  • Superficial branches of the R and U nerves anastomose in the anterior palm,
  • These branch into superficial palmar arteries and branch again into common palmar digital arteries.
  • Their terminal branches are the proper palmar digital arteries, which supply the digits.
  • The deep ulnar artery and the ‘deep’ radial artery anastomose in the dorsal hand in the deep palmar arch
  • They give off palmar metacarpal arteries, which anastomose with the superficial palmar arteries.
262
Q

What are the superficial muscles of the extensor/supinator compt. of the forearm, their OIs, nerve supply and functions?

A
  • Brachioradialis: From lateral supracondylar ridge to base of radial styloid. Flexes elbow, shunt muscle
  • Anconeus: From lateral supracondylar ridge to the ulna. Extends elbow.
  • Extensor carpi radialis longus: Lateral supracondylar ridge to base of MC II. Flexes and abducts the wrist.
  • Extenso carpi radialis brevis: from common extensor tendon to base of MC III. Flexes and abducts the wrist.
  • Extensor digitorum: Largest. From common extensor tendon to extensor hood. Extends fingers
  • Extensor digitti minimi: From common extensor tendon to little finger. Extends little finger
  • Extensor carpi ulnaris: From common extensor tendon to base of MC V. Extends and adducts wrist.
    All supplied by radial nerve/
263
Q

What actions do the carpi muscles have on the wrist?

A

They’re arranged like a rectangle:
FCU in anteromedial corner: flexes and adducts.
FCR in anterolateral corner: flexes and abducts
ECRB and ECRL in posterolateral corner: extend and abduct
ECU in posteromedial corner: extend and adduct.
Allows a great variety of movements to be acheived. Also allow thumb to move independently of the wrist.

264
Q

What is the anatomical snuffbox and what can it be used for?

A

The gap formed between the tendons of APL/EPB and EPL.

Used to identify tendons

265
Q

What are the deep muscles of the extensor/supinator compartment and what are their OIs, nerve supply and functions?

A
  • Supinator: Radial tuberosity to lat. epocondyle of humerus and IO membrane. Pull to supinate arm.
  • Abductor pollicis longus: Posterior forearm to base of 1st metacarpal. Abducts thumb
  • Extensor pollicis brevis: Posterior forearm to base of proximal phalanx. Extend thumb
  • Extensor pollicis longus: Posterior forearm to base of distal phalanx. Extend thumb.
  • Extensor indicis: Posterior forearm to extensor hood of index finger. Bypasses intertendinous bands to allow pinching motion.
    All supplied by radial nerve
266
Q

What is unusual about APL and EPB?

A

They move superficially to cover the tendons of the ECR muscles, leading to them being called the outcropping muscles.

267
Q

What is the path of the radial nerve, and what does it supply at each point?

A
  • Emerges from posterior cord through the triangular interval, covered by triceps. Here it supplies triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis and ECRL.
  • In the cubital fossa it branches into superficial and deep branches. The deep branch is covered by supinator. Here it supplies ECRB and supinator.
  • Once it has emerged from supinator it is the posterior interosseous nerve. Here is supplies the ED and EDM, ECU, APL, EPL, EI and EPB muscles.
268
Q

What is the most common symptom of neurological disease and why? Give some examples

A

Movement disorders are the most common symptom, due to the fact that the muscles may no longer be under voluntary control.
This includes troke, epilepsy, parkinsons, spinal cord injuries…

269
Q

What are the three types of somatic movement?

A
  • Volunary movement
  • Reflexes (withdrawl, vestibular, stretch)
  • Rhythmic motor patterns (semi voluntary- walking, breathing etc.)
270
Q

What areas of the CNS are responsible for the different types of movement? Where are motor nerurons in this?

A

The forebrain takes care of voluntary movement, and communicates with the basal ganglia, brainstem and spinal cord, before passing the action potentials to the muscles.
The spinal cord and brainstem also directly interface with the muscles to control reflexes and rhythmic motor patterns.
Because of this, the motor neurons are located from spinal cord and brainstem (aside from cranial nerves 1, 2, and 8) to muscles.

271
Q

What are the different types of motoneuron?

A

Alpha: Innervate extrafusal (main) muscle fibers. Directly responsible for generation of movement.
- Can be fast (type IIB) or slow (Type I)

Gamma: Control excitability of stretch receptors in muscle spindles by innervating intrafusal muscle fibres (located in the tapered ends of muscle spindles).

272
Q

What is the difference in innervation between the autonomic and somatic nervous systems?

A

SNS motor neurons go directly from CNS to target tissue and use ACh to activate skeletal muscle.
ANS motor neurons either
- Synapse at ganglia in the PNS before using NA on target tissue
- Synapse with an intermediate neuron in the target tissue first.

273
Q

What is a motor unit and what does it consist of?

A

A motor unit is the anatomical and functional unit of the motor system. Made up of:

  • Cell body of an a motor neuron
  • Axon and its branches
  • Neuromuscular junctions from single motoneuron
  • All muscle fibers innervated by the single neuron.
274
Q

What are the classifications of motor units and what characterizes them?

A

FF type:
- Few units but large. Generate great tension fast, but fatigue rapidly. Respire anaerobicly, and are recruited last.
S type:
- Many units, but small. Generate small tension slowly, but fatigue rarely. Respire aerobically and recruited early (some fire constantly)

275
Q

What is the size principle and what does it mean?

A

S motor units are always recruited first, while FF are only recruited for high amounts of muscle force. This means:

  • Some S types fire almost always
  • S type units are best for sustained small loads (posture)
  • Weak contractions are graded more precisely
  • Necessary to exercise to prevent FF atrophy
276
Q

How do muscles control the force they produce?

A
  • Use frequency of action potentials (summation, tetanus)

- Use recruitment of additional units

277
Q

How does the structure of a muscle match its purpose?

A
  • Most muscles have slow and fast fibers mixed together apart from the soleus (slow) and gastrocnemius (fast) exception.
  • This allowed the discovery of proof that the motoneurons and the fibers they innervate affect both the type of contraction and the biochemistry of the muscle- the two are matched.
278
Q

Where can alpha motoneurons get input from (and therefore function as the final common path)?

A
  • Descending tracts (eg. pyramidal)
  • Spinal interneurons
  • Propriospinal neurons (for movement coordination)
  • Muscle spindles themselves
279
Q

What receptors control movements?

A
  • Muscles spindles in parallel with extrafusal muscle- monitor muscle length and speed of length change. Very sensitive
  • Golgi tendon organs in series with extrafusal muscle- monitor muscle tension
  • Joint receptors (monitor position)
    These are the proprioreceptors (deep)
  • Also nociceptors in the skin, monitoring pain.
280
Q

What are the functions of movement receptors?

A
  • Allow awareness of the body’s starting position for movement
  • Allow information about how the joint is moving
  • Initiate movements via reflexes
281
Q

What are the three types of reflex and the five elements of each?

A
Stretch/Myotactic/Tendon reflex
Golgi Tendon/Inverse Myotactic/Reverse Myotactic reflex
Withdrawal/Flexion/Flexor reflex
Each involves:
- Receptor
- Afferent fibres
- Central relay/s
- Efferent fibres
- Effectors
282
Q

What is the process of the stretch reflex?

A

Receptor: Annulo-spiral endings of muscle fibres
Afferents: 1a afferents
Central relay: GLUT on alpha motoneurons in ventral horn of the spinal cord
Efferents: excitatory alpha motoneurons
Effectors: synergistic muscles (plus inhibition of antagonistic muscles)

283
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

Occurs during myotactic reflex- at the same time gaba is released on synergistic alpha motoneurons, inhibitory interneurons are activated to relax antagonistic muscles.

284
Q

What are the two most common stretch reflexes and in what spinal segment do they synapse?

A

Biceps jerk- C5/6

Knee jerk- L3/4

285
Q

What are the steps of the golgi reflex?

A

Receptors: golgi receptors fire when a muscle has been overexerted
Afferents- 1b
Central synapses: interneuron in the spinal cord
Efferent: alpha motor neuron
Effector: muscle
There is a reverse of the reciprocal inhibition- antagonistic muscles are concurrently excited

286
Q

What is the additional role of a golgi tendon reflex and how can it be affected by disease?

A
  • Also used to protect muscles from overloading, and to compensate for muscle fatigue when muscle tension decreases
  • In upper motoneuron disease, the threshold for the reflex is higher
287
Q

What are the steps of the withdrawal reflex, and what happens on the contralateral side of the body?

A

Receptors: Nociceptors in the skin
Afferents: Type III and IV (slow)
Synaptic relays: Interneurons in multiple segments excite flexor alpha motorneurons
Efferents: Alpha motoneurons
Effectors: Flexor muscles
However, on the contralateral side, there is a crossed-extension reflex- the extensors of the same body part are activated to maintain balance.

288
Q

What is the purpose of gamma motoneurons in muscle spindles?

A
  • The fact that they are activated with alpha motorneurons means they activate intrafusal muscle fibres. These control the length of the spindle, allowing them to provide information about muscle length during contraction and lengthening- if the muscle contracted and there was no change in spindle length, the fibre would be loose and the sensory neurons would provide little relevant information.