Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

What are the divisions of the mediastinum?

A

Superior mediastinum- above the angle of louis
Inferior mediastinum- below the angle of louis
Anterior mediastinum: Anterior to the heart. Includes the thymus in children
Middle mediastinum: The heart
Posterior mediastinum: posterior to the pulmonary trunk

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2
Q

What is the surface anatomy of the chest?

A

Parasternal- either side of the sternum (RA is parasternal)
Midclavicular- Apex of the heart is in 5th intercostal space in the midglavicular line
Midaxillary- in the plane of the armpit

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3
Q

Where would you insert a needle to drain the heart/pericardium?

A

Up under the xiphi process

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4
Q

What are the layers of the pericardium?

A

Fibrous pericardium- very stiff and adherent to the diaphragm
This is fused with the serous pericardium, and both are innervated by the phrenic nerve
The serous pericardium is made up of the parietal pericardium. Between the visceral and parietal pericaria is the pericardial cavity, which can fill with puss, blood, fluid and air, especially due to trauma.
The visceral pericardium is made of the epicardium, myocardium and endocardium.

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5
Q

What are the main sinuses of the heart itself?

A

The oblique pericardial sinus, which is formed by reflection onto the pulmonary veins of the heart. In addition, the transverse pericardial sinus separates the arteries and veins, and runs between the two. This is a good place to clamp the arteries and put the heart on bypass

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6
Q

What are the grooves of the heart?

A

AV groove/coronary sulcus separates the RA from RV, and the right coronary artery runs within it.
The anterior interventricular groove runs between the ventricles, and contains the left anterior descending (LAD) artery
Posteriorly, the coronary sinus runs between atria and ventricles, holding a big vein which draws blood from the whole heart and deposits it in the right atrium

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7
Q

What do the components of the heart look like on xray?

A

It kind of looks like a sorting hat, with the diaphragm as the brim. The right atrium is on the right, RV/Diaphragm at the base, left ventricle topped by the left auricle. Above the left auricle are two small bumps; the pulmonary trunk and the arch of the aorta.

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8
Q

What is the arterial supply of the heart itself?

A

From the aorta, the right coronary artery runs between the RA and RV, before branching into the right marginal branch and posterior branches, before giving off the AV nodal branch and the posterior/descending interventricular branch.
The Sino-atrial nodal branch runs to the SA node.
The left circumflex artery and the LAD run down and supply the left ventricle.

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9
Q

Where do the anastomoses of coronary circulation occur?

A
  1. Between the left circumflex artery and posterior branches of the right coronary artery
  2. Between the posterior/descending interventricular branch and the LAD
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10
Q

What is the venous drainage of the heart?

A

Coronary sinus lies posterior to the left atrium in the AV groove, and dumps into the RA.

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11
Q

What are the structures found within the right and left atria and ventricles?

A

RA: smooth venous atrium with ridged part containing musculi pectinati, which contract in diastole. A ridge called the crista terminalis separates them. Foramen Ovale separates the right and left atria
RV: Papillary muscles found in the ventricle wall attach to chordae tendineae. The septomarginal trabecula is a muscular tissue running from interventricular septa to the ventricular wall, helping to make an electrical shortcut
LA: Completely smooth, with ridges found only in hte auricle, which is also the only contractile part.
LV: Same as RV, but the wall is 3x thicker

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12
Q

What are the different valves within the heart? What are their structures?

A

Pulmonary/Aortic valve: Three pockets which fill with blood due to backflow after systole ends. The pressure of each pocket pushes against one another to keep the valve shut
Tricuspid/bicuspid valve: During ventricular systole, the papillary muscles contract and pull the flaps downward to act against regurgitation

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13
Q

Where can heart valve sounds best be heard?

A

Pulmonary valve: 2nd intercostal space in left parasternal plane
Aortic valve: 2nd intercostal space in right parasternal plane
Bicuspid valve: Apex of the heart- 5th intercostal space at midclavicular plane
Tricuspid valve: 5th intercostal space in left parasternal plane

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14
Q

What is the progression of electrical activity through the heart?

A

SA node –> Atrioventricular node –> Bundle of His (AV bundle) –> Right and left bundle branches–> Septomarginal trabecula –> purkinje fibres to walls of ventricles

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15
Q

What can happen due to coronary artery failure?

A
  • R coronary artery: SA and AV branches fail, so result is a rhythm disturbance
    L coronary artery: RV and LV no longer innervated- pump failure
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16
Q

What are the preliminary changes in the heart as an AP is conducted?

A
  • Ventricles stiffen and papillary muscles contract. Septum stiffens. This is all before ventricular contraction
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17
Q

How is the heart innervated?

A

The pericardium is innervated by the phrenic nerve. The superficial and deep cardiac plexuses innervate autonomically, with vagus responsible for parasympathetic stimulation. As the innervation of the heart itself is autonomic, damage to these nerves leads to a vague crushing pain when irritated

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18
Q

What is the difference between a stenotic and regurgitating heart?

A
  • Stenotic doesn’t flow well due to increased wall thickness
  • Regurgitating flows in the wrong directions and is heard in diastole for the upper valves, or systole for the lower valves.
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19
Q

What are the four highest risk factors for CVD?

A
  1. A high saturated fat diet- this is a must- have factor for CVD
    - Smoking
    - High BP
    - Diabetes
    The last three are also stroke risk factors
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20
Q

What are the three main properties exhibited by the cardiac myocytes?

A
  • Exitability
  • Conductivity
  • Automaticity
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21
Q

What are the two types of action potentials seen within cardiac muscle?

A

Cells with a fast response

Cells with a slow response

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22
Q

What are the phases of an action potential in cells with a fast response?

A

Resting potential is -90mV
Threshold potential is -70mV in ventricles (or -30- -60mV in atria)
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation due to rapid increase in sodium permeability. Fast inward Na due to electrical and concentration gradients
Phase 1: Early repolarisation to near 0mV due to transient outward potassium current
Phase 2: Plateau- Na channels inactivate and the cell becomes refractory. The inward slow Ca (L-type and CICR), as well as the outward potassium current, are almost equal but slowly decreasing
Phase 3: Repolarization: Outward potassium currents switched on after a delay due to delayed rectifier channel. Other potassium channels also activate- iKATP due to decreased ATP, or iKAch due to increased ACh
Phase 4: Resting, with a high potassium conductance

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23
Q

What are the background movements of ions occurring in an action potential?

A

Ca pump removes Ca
Na/Ca exchanger takes 3Na+ in for 1 Ca2+ out, helping to depolarize
Na+/K ATPase exchanges 3Na+ for 2 K+, causing repolarization

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24
Q

What is the action potential of cells with a slow response?

A

They have an unsteady resting membrane potential, which is higher than usual. They may be pacemakers or non pacemaker cells, and are categorized by their slow Ca2+ driven current (rather than Na+ driven)

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25
Q

What is a refractory period, and what are the potential phases involved with this time?

A

Absolute refractory period- when the membrane can’t be re-excited
Relative refractory period- larger than normal stimulus needed for AP generation- although impaired conduction
Supernormal period- get propagated AP from weaker than normal stimulus, although impaired conduction
Full recovery time- may extend beyond return to Resting dependence
The longer than normal refractory phase prevents tetanus of the heart

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26
Q

What is the interval-duration relationship?

A

The duration of the AP is partly determined by the preceding diastolic interval- faster HR means a shorter AP

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27
Q

How are cardiac myocytes conductive?

A

They respond due to electrical stimulation, thanks to its spread throughout the myocardium due to electrical coupling due to nexus junctions between neighbouring cells
Their structure is laminar- not uniformly continuous, but continuous enough to propogate action potentials

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28
Q

What is automaticity in cardiac myocytes?

A

Refers to the ability of cells to initiate an electrical impulse due to their own pacemaker activity. Found in SA, AV and his-purkinje network
- Due to outward K and inward If (Na)- activated at negative potentials- and ICa

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29
Q

What are some mechanisms for altering the rate of pacemaker discharge?

A
  • Alter slope- change rates of inwards/outwards currents
  • Alter threshold potential
  • Alter max diastolic pressure- how far down the repolarization curve reaches
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30
Q

What are the hormones released by the PNS and SNS to regulate HR?

A

PNS- releases ACh to slow HR

SNS- releases noradrenaline to increase HR

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31
Q

What are the speeds of the various components of the cardiac electrical sequence?

A

AV node is slow, to allow atria to top up the ventricles before initiating contraction. Atria and ventricles are insulated from one another by the fibrous skeleton
Bundle branches and purkinje fibres are fast

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32
Q

What should we note about conduction within the heart?

A
  • SA node is normally the pacemaker due to its high intrinsic rate, and overdrive suppression of other pacemakers due to hyperpolarization
  • AV delay may be subject to blockage
  • Purkinje network is rapid to activate the whole endocardium synchronously
  • Velocity is proportional to the square root of the radius of the fibres
  • Velocity depends on the rate and amplitude of depolarization
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33
Q

What is wolff-parkinson-white syndrome?

A

An abnormal structure between the atrium and the ventricles, which allows the bypass of the AV node. It leads to re-entrant arhythmia (short interval between contractions, due to charge propagating a continuous loop between atria and ventricles.

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34
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the left ventricle?

A
  • Thick muscular walls, inlet and outlet valves
  • Pump
  • 95mmHg pressure
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35
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the large/medium arteries?

A
  • Muscular walls for control, C. T. for strength
  • Conduct and store large volumes of blood/distribution and tone
  • 85-95mmHg
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36
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the arterioles, metarterioles, and precapillary sphincters?

A
  • Smooth muscle to control diameter, little CT
  • Control flow to capillaries based on demand
  • 35-85mmHg
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37
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the capillaries?

A
  • Endothelium, no muscle or CT
  • Exchange
  • 15-35mmHg
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38
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the venules?

A

Thin walled, large diameter

  • Collect blood
  • 0-15mmHg
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39
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the veins?

A
  • Think walled, variable structure and valves
  • Conduct and store blood
  • low
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40
Q

What are the features, function and mean pressure of the R atrium?

A
  • Thin muscular walls
  • Reservoir for blood
  • 0-2mmHg
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41
Q

What are the three tunics comprised of in elastic arteries?

A
  • Intima: endothelium with internal elastic lamina separating
  • Media: A lamellar unit alternating between smooth muscle, collagen and elastin
    Fenustrated elastin layers
    Adventitia: Vasa vasorum supply the layer, with collagen and elastin fibres
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42
Q

What are the three tunics comprised of in muscular arteries?

A

Intima: Endothelium with internal elastic lamina
Media: Collagent and elastin fibres, but not nearly as many or as large. External elastic lamina
Adventitia: Vasa vasorum, collagen and elastin fibres with nerves

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43
Q

What are some common arterial diseases?

A
  1. Atherosclerosis: Endothelium damaged, causing increased intima thickness and accumulation of macrophages. It is most often caused by high cholesteol, and the free fat cells are digested by the macrophages, forming foam cells. The IEL breaks down, and blood clots can form and occlude
  2. Aneurysm: Dissecting mainly found in thoracic and abdominal aorta, where the weakened intima causes blood to pool in the media Berry found in brain branch points, around circles of willis. These form large pods that can burst
  3. Hypertension: 140/90+. Intima thickens, media thickens to maintain pressure, and IEL may duplicate. Increased by obesity, stress, salt and smoking
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44
Q

What are the three tunics comprised of in arterioles?

A

Endothelium and then IEL, with 2-3 layers of smooth muscle before a surrounding of collagen. Has a wall thickness equal to lumen diameter.

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45
Q

What structures are located at the trans-thoracic plane (angle of louis)?

A
  • Arch of the aorta
  • Arch of azygous vein
  • Trachea (may be bifurcated)
  • Thoracic duct (crosses behind oesophagus from RHS to LHS
  • Cardiac plexus
  • Ligamentum arteriosum
  • Good place for jugular venous pressure
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46
Q

What are the great veins of the thorax, from external to internal?

A

External jugular (not great vein) empties into subclavian, which then combines with the internal jugular to form the brachiocephalic vein. The two combine to form the SVC. The left brachiocephalic vein is longer due to it needing to cross the midline

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47
Q

What are the great arteries of the thorax?

A

Aortal branches into brachiocephalic trunk, and then into common carotid and subclavian (same on each side.

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48
Q

Where do the phrenic and vagus nerves run in the thorax?

A
  • Phrenic: from C345 down the LHS and RHS of the pericardium
    Vagus: From CX. Right slides under subclavian artery to give off the R recurrent laryngeal nerve, while L goes under arch of aorta to give off L recurent laryngeal. They then wrap around the oesophagus to give the ant (left) and post (right) vagal plexuses
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49
Q

What is the significance of the branch points of the recurrent laryngeal nerves?

A

These control the voice- any change can be due not just to throat conditions, but also to bronchial tumor, and aortic aneurysm etc.

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50
Q

Why would it be necessary to insert a central venous line?

A

Deliver blood/fluids immediately
Deliver toxic drugs without destroying the weaker peripheral veins
Measure pressures in heart chambers

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51
Q

What are the 4 main veins that can have a central line?

A
  • External Jugular
  • Femoral
  • Internal Jugular
  • Subclavian
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52
Q

What are the pros and cons of putting a central line in the external jugular?

A

Pros
- Easy to access and superficial
- Less likely to cause a pneumothorax
Cons
- Small, difficult vein to threat (insert a tube)
- Uncomfortable for the patient as it sits below their ear

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53
Q

What are the pros and cons of putting a central line in the femoral?

A
Pros
- Easy to access, especially during CPR
- No chance of pneumothorax
Cons
- Increased infection risk
- Increased clot risk
- Reduction in mobility
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54
Q

What are the pros and cons of putting a central line in the internal jugular?

A
Pros
- Easy to find and threat
Cons
- Can be uncomfortable
- Risk carotic artery- supplies the brain and can form a clot or an air embolism, resulting in stroke
- Risk of Pneumothorax
- Impossible during CPR
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55
Q

What are the pros and cons of putting a central line in the subclavian vein? (Most common)

A

Pros
- Most common long term
- Comfortable
- Less likely to be dislodged during CPR and intubation
Cons
- Risk pneumothorax/subclavian airway puncture
- Impossible to apply pressure if artery punctured, as below clavicle
- Risk to brachial plexus.

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56
Q

What do EKG leads record (as a general statement)?

A

Record potential difference in different sites of the body due to electrical activity in the heart- the body is able to act as a conductor

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57
Q

What are the main components of an EKG and what do they represent?

A

P wave: atrial depolarization, small mass and hight, slow reflecting time taken- even though it has a similar timespan to ventricles, it has a smaller mass
PR segment: Between P and start of QRS. Atria depolarized, isoelectric. Reflects time in AV node, bundle and bundle branches.
QRS Complex: Ventricular depolarization- greater magnitude than P due to more mass, shorter than P wave relative to mass. Also includes atrial repolarization (though not visible)
PR interval: Total time for wave to run from atria to ventricles
ST segment- Isoelectric spot, when there is no moving wavefront. Plateau of AP in ventricles
T wave: Asynchronous repolarization of ventricles, as the cells have slightly differing peak times
QT interval: Reflection of ventricular action potential duration

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58
Q

How does the EKG use vectors to represent charge?

A

When a wavefront moves within the heart, it causes a reversal of charge in the surrounding extracellular tisse. This forms a dipole, with a positive and a negative charge side by side, and moving in the direction of flow. This is represented by a vector (which is plotted on the ECG). The orientation represents the direction the dipole is travelling (relative to the ECG line), while the length represents strength.

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59
Q

What factors affect measured potential of a dipole?

A
  • Magnitude of the change
  • Orientation of the dipole and the electrodes
  • Distance between the dipole and electrodes- potential difference is higher close in and vice versa.
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60
Q

What is represented on each point of the QRS complex?

A
  • Q = ventricular septal depolarization
  • R = ventricular apex depolarizing
  • S = ventricular base depolarizing
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61
Q

What can be inferred from the orientation of the T wave?

A

As the ventricular depolarization runs from endocardium to epicardium, and repolarization is vice versa, we know that the AP duration of the endothelial cells is longer than those in the epicardium

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62
Q

What are some potential issues with an EKG?

A
  • Assumes body is a volume conductor regardless of tissue type
  • A single dipole is not a good representation of a wavefront
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63
Q

What is a bipolar EKG?

A
Measures a single vector between two points.  This is used in Einthoven's triangle, where leads are set on the Right arm, left arm and leg in order to string leads together in a triangle.  The differences between each two-point interval can then be calculated. 
Lead 1 = LA-RA
Lead 2 = LL - RA
Lead 3 = LL - LA
Therefore:  I + III = II
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64
Q

What is a unipolar EKG?

A

Uses the potential of a single electrode relative to a point of reference- usually compared to zero, called the indifferent electrodes. This means that when the dipole faces the exploring electrode it is recorded as positive.
It also allows crosses across the original einthoven’s triangle, representing 6 leads (augmented unipolar leads)

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65
Q

What is a 12-lead EKG?

A

An additional 6 leads are added to the augmented unipolar limb leads, allowing the coronal and horizontal planes to be recorded.

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66
Q

What features of an EKG are important?

A
= Rate
= Rhythm
- P waves
- PR interval
- QRS complex
- ST segment
- T waves
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67
Q

What are the structures held within the posterior mediastinum?

A
Azygous veins
Thoracic Duct
Oesophagus
Thoracic Aorta
Nerves
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68
Q

How do the azygous veins work?

A

They link the superior and inferior vena cavae. The RHS (azygous vein) receives systemic as well as RHS intercostal blood and drains into the SVC
The accessory hemiazygous (sup) and hemiazygous (inf) veins run on the left side, draining the superior and inferior intercostals, respectively.

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69
Q

What is the thoracic duct and how does it work?

A

It’s a large lymphatic duct running from the abdomen. It starts at the cisterna chyli, and runs anterior to the vertebrae up the midline It crosses from being more RHS to more LHS at the thoracic plane. It drains into the point where the left internal jugular and subclavian veins meet.
It can get blocked at this point.
It is important to check its associated nodes, as the whole body (apart from the R arm and face) drain their lymph through here

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70
Q

Where does the oesophagus run and how is it suppled? What can go wrong with it?

A
  • It runs behind the left main bronchus and arch of the aorta
  • It can be constricted by the diaphragm, as well as by a large aneurism in the aorta, or a lung tumor.
    Upper 2/3: Supplied by branches of the thoracic aorta, azygous vein and sympathetic trunks
    Lower 1/3: Supplied by left gastric artery, gastric veins (to portal system) and vagus nerve
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71
Q

What are the nerves within the posterior mediastinum?

A
  • Sympathetic trunks
  • Phrenic nerves
  • Vagus nerves
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72
Q

What can portal hypertension result in and why?

A

There are no valves to prevent backflow in the visceral veins so:

  • Caput medusae
  • Anal varices
  • Oesophageal varices
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73
Q

What is coarctation of the aorta and how does the body adjust to this?

A

Narrowing of the aortic arch (a birth defect). Usually after the main 3 branches have been given off
Body supplies descending aorta as bloodflow reverses through the post. intercostals- supplied by both sides of anterior intercostals instead

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74
Q

What are signs of aortic coarctation?

A
  • Radial pulses and femoral pulses being out of sync between each other and the sides of the body.
  • Notching of the ribs on the chest X ray due to the size of the artery causing them to wear away (more pressure in other arteries)
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75
Q

What does Wolf Parkinson White syndrome look like on an EKG?

A

It shows up as a shortened P R interval due to early conduction from atria to ventricles
Also a wide QRS complex as while the conduction starts early, the conduction pathway isn’t incredibly fast.
Additionally, there is a delta wave between Q and R as conduction isn’t as fast as usual within the ventricles

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76
Q

What are the symptoms of WPW syndrome and how is it normally treated?

A

May be asymptomatic- although can have unexplained syncope or palpitations.
Drugs control fast rhythms, or surgery can correct the false pathway

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77
Q

What is LQTS, how does it present and how is it treated?

A

Long QT syndrome- an abnormally long delay between ventricular de- and re-polarization.
Can be drug induced (from arrhythmia drugs) or genetic (due to ion channel mutation)
Most commonly K+ delayed rectifier channel. Causes differences in refractoriness of myocytes and abnormal ventricular activation (possibly followed by arrhythmia and fibrillation) Assoc. with syncope and sudden death
Treated with arrhythmia prevention and termination

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78
Q

How can EKGs diagnose conduction disturbance, heart/lung structure and electrolyte disturbance?

A
  • AV/bundle branch blocks- will see long PR intervels
  • Heart and lung structure- will see large deflections on the EKG
  • Potassium disturbance: Hyperkalemia leads to faster repolarization and high peaked T waves. Hypokalemia opposite
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79
Q

What features are seen in an EKG for each type of ischaemic heart disease?

A
  • Ischaemia: T wave affected
  • Injury- ST segment
  • Infarction- QRS complex
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80
Q

What is the sequence of changes in a Q wave due to infarction?

A
  • Tall peaked T waves over leads facing damaged area
  • ST segment elevation (hours later)
  • reduced R wave amplitude
  • T wave inversion (days later)
  • Pathological Q waves (usually only residual signs of MI)
  • ST segment returns to normal (days later)
  • T waves return to normal (weeks)
    Reciprocal changes may be seen in leads facing opposite the infarction
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81
Q

What T wave changes are seen in myocardial infarction?

A

Not specific to MI- but earliest signs of acute MI. Lasts 5-30 mins after onset. Same mechanism as hyperkalaemia due to K+ leakage from damaged myocytes

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82
Q

What ST interval changes are seen in myocardial infarction?

A

ST Segment elevation- though mechanism depends on current of injury.
Systolic injury current: Ischaemic zone incompletely depolarized, so AP is different between two areas- the net current between leads is not 0 during this time
Diastolic injury current: Ischaemic zone is less repolarized than healthy zone so resting RMP is higher- so the ST elevation is also at this level.

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83
Q

What QRS changes are seen in myocardial infarction?

A
  • Results in electrically inactive tissue forming a ‘window’ through which activity is reduced or absent (or, in opposite electrodes, amplified).
    This results in reduced R wave height and QS complexes (no R wave)
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84
Q

What are some complications with EKG diagnosis of MI?

A

Changes are variable and sometimes absent

  • Abnormal activation distorts EKG
  • 12 lead EKG can’t show basal/pst. RV walls well
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85
Q

What is atherosclerosis? How is it different to arteriosclerosis?

A
  • Atherosclerosis affects medium and large arteries, appearing as focal plaque thickenings. Arteriosclerosis is a general term for arterial hardening
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86
Q

What are the normal functions of endothelial cells in blood vessel walls?

A

Contains blood, selective transport into tissues, clotting and blood pressure control.

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87
Q

What are positive risk factors for atherosclerosis (increase risk)

A

Hyperlipidaemia
Cigarette smoking
Hypertension
Diabetes mellitus
Advanced age- lesions can be seen in all ages, but only present when progressed
Metabolic syndrome- fat stored in unsuited organs, increased insulin resistance, altered inflammatory predispositions

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88
Q

What are negative risk factors for atherosclerosis (decreased risk)?

A

High levels of HDL fats (transport saturated fats away from vessel walls)
Moderate alcohol consumption
Cardiovascular fitness

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89
Q

What is the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

A
  1. endothelial cell injury- caused by haemodynamic force of blood (high BP), chemical insults (smoking, lipids) or cytokines
    Leads to altered permeability (and lipid infiltration), leukocyte adhesion and thrombosis activation
    2, Chronic inflammation- leukocytes migrate into plaque
    - Neutrophils arrive early, then monocytes enter and take up oxidised lipoproteins, forming foam cells. When these die they release their contents, promoting necrosis, cholesterol crystals/clefts, and calcification.
    - Mast cells promote leukocyte & smth muscle movement into plaque, and degrade HDL
    - Smooth muscle cells activated by macrophages, platelets and endothelial cells. Migrate to TI, producing cytokines and attracting leukocytes.
    - Lipoproteins become oxidised, attracting monocytes and stimulating cytokines
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90
Q

What are the two anatomical components of a plaque?

A

Fibrous cap- with smooth muscle, macrophages, foam cells, fibres- fibroblasts secrete fibres to stabilize the atheroma
Necrotic center- cell debris, cholesterol crystals, foam cells, calcium

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91
Q

What can result from atherosclerosis?

A
  • Often silent until sudden symtoms.
    Once the plaque has grown, it can cause aneurysm and rupture due to wall weakening, occlusion by a thrombus due to plaque rupture/erosion/haemorrhage/mural thrombosis, or critical stenosis by progressive plaque growth
    This commonly results in myocardial infarction, peripheral vascular disease, and CVD
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92
Q

What makes a plaque go from preclinical to clinical?

A

Entry into the vulnerable phase- thin/no fibrous cap, high lipid content and widespread inflammation

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93
Q

What are general features of the cardiac myocyte?

A
  • Myogenic
  • Striated
  • Electrically coupled using nexus junctions
  • Oxidative in metabolism
  • Action potentials trigger CICR
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94
Q

How is the sarcolemma important in cardiac myocytes?

A

Forms the permeability barrier between intra- and extra-cellular contents. Continuous with the T tubules. Outer surface known as glycocaly

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95
Q

What are T tubules and why are they important in cardiac myocytes?

A
  • Invaginations of the sarcolemma, rich in L type Ca2+ channels (DHPRs)
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96
Q

What is special about the intercalated disks of cardiac myocytes?

A
  • They have 3 differentiations in their connection between cells:
  • Nexus junctions
  • Fascia adherens junctions
  • Desmosomes (macula adherens)
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97
Q

What is the Sarcoplasmic reticulum and why is it important in cardiac myocytes?

A
  • It’s an intracellular, Ca2+ storing membrane bound structure.
    It includes junctional couplings with T tubules and with external sarcolemma.
    Induces calcium induced calcium release due to RyR receptors opening and releasing Ca2+ when stimulated by Ca2+
    Re-takes Ca2+ due to SERCA channels.
    Also rich in calsequestrin, which buffers Ca2+ and helps return it to the SR by binding to Ca2+ and reducing the gradient for the pump to work again
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98
Q

What forms the space surrounding cardiac myocytes?

A
  • Mostly vascular
  • Some ground substance
  • Few connective tissue and empty space
  • A little collagen
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99
Q

What are the steps of contraction in a cardiac myocyte?

A
  1. AP spreads across the SL and T tubules
  2. Voltage causes DHPRs to open
  3. Influx of Ca2+ causes RyRs to open and release even more Ca2+
  4. Ca2+ binds TnC and allows crossbridges and contraction
  5. Additionally, Ca2+ is sensed by the mitochondria, and stimulates it to produce ATP
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100
Q

What is excitation contraction coupling?

A

Process by which electrical changes at surface membrane lead to changes in intracellular Ca2+ levels, which in turn causes contraction

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101
Q

What are DHPRs?

A

They are channels which are activated by voltage >-40mV and catecholamines to carry Ca2+ into the cell, contributing to the plateau
They trigger EC coupling, and are inhibited by the trigger of CICR, as well as by dihydropyridines, Mg2+ and low plasma Ca2+ content

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102
Q

What is microscopic SR release?

A

Occurs when Ca2+ leaks from the SR, making the whole cell Ca2+ transient. The amplitude and duration of these Ca2+ ‘sparks’ determines the body’s response to this (ie contraction or not)

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103
Q

How is Ca2+ able to be removed from the myoplasm? Why is this important?

A
  1. A low capacity, high affinity pump may be used- Ca2+ ATPase. This only contributes a little
  2. An ATP independent pump driven by the steep Na+ concentration across the sarcolemma. Although this operates in both directions- stimulated by low intracellular Na+ as well as high intracellular Ca2+ and negative membrane potential. This is also maintained by the 3Na+/2K+ pump.
    Na+ also has spots of hot and cold concentration along the SR, driving its movement
    Important as Ca2+ in via DHPRs must be removed to maintain balance
    pH is also kept in balance by Na+/H+ exchangers
  3. Majority is simply returned to the SR by SERCA transporters
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104
Q

What are the components of the microcirculation, and how does it control blood flow?

A

Arterioles (2-3 smth muscle) lead to terminal arterioles (1 layer smth muscle) lead to metarteriole (incomplete smth muscle) and into capillaries. These are opened/closed by precapillary sphincters so when the body is hot/parasymp these are open and allow the capillary network to become more perfused.
If wanting to direct the blood straight past the capillary bed, a thoroughfare channel connecting arterioles with venules is used.
Another type of channel can have no capillaries arising from it, termed Arteriovenous anastomoses. This can allow AV shunting. If it is closed however, it forces blood through the capillaries

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105
Q

What are the different classes of capillary and their features?

A

Continuous capillaries: May have closed intercellular clefts (tight junctions form a complete seal- eg. BBB) or open intercellular clefts (eg. muscle, lungs. Allows H2O, ions, other small molecules, but not plasma proteins)
Fenestrated capillaries: May have closed perforations (like glycocalyx, eg. in intestine) or open perforations (as in glomeruli)
Sinusoids- wide bore capillaries with large gaps allowing whole molecules and cells through. Eg. spleen due to RBC production/cleaning, and liver where endothelium is interspersed with kupffer cells.

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106
Q

What are the two types of venules? Describe them

A

Postcapillary venules: drain capillary beds. No smooth muscle but often pericytes. Site of blood plasma, neutrophil, monocyte leakage during inflammation
Muscular venules: Larger, up to 2 layers smooth muscle. Characterised by thin wall relative to diameter, and bulging endothelial nuclei

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107
Q

What are the features of veins?

A

Conduct blood at low pressure, so have thin walls and large diameters
All three tunics reduced, but adventitia larger and media smaller
Never a well-developed IEL
Valves (infoldings of intima) prevent backflow. However, when standing still, this leaks through slowly, leading to a pressure of approx. 100mmHg in the feet. Skeletal muscle movement forces blood up, back through the veins

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108
Q

What is venous thrombosis?

A

The formation of a blood clot, usually in the deep veins of the lower extremity. If part of the clot breaks loose it becomes an embolus, likely to lodge in the pulmonary arterial tree. Small clots have few to no symptoms, large fatal
Caused by any event slowing blood flow, increasing coagulability or damaging the endothelium

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109
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

Superficial veins of the legs dilate enough so that valves do not meet, causing the veins to become swollen and torturous

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110
Q

What is the structure of lymphatic capillaries?

A

Blind ended tubes, made of endothelial cells tethered to CT with anchoring filaments. When the tissue swells, the anchoring filaments drag the tube open wider.
Lack basement membranes, increasing permeability
- Have large gap junctions to allow passage of proteins and whole cells

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111
Q

Describe the larger lymphatic vessels

A

Resemble veins, but with thinner walls and more valves
Lymph propelled through by contraction of smooth muscle around the vessel (triggered by its distension) or by its compression due to surrounding tissue
Most tissues (apart from CNS, cartilage, bone, placenta, cornea, teeth, thymus) contain lymphatics- these enter a lymph node containing lymphocytes etc. This means cancer is likely to establish a secondary tumor here
Eventually enters the bloodstream via the thoracic duct or right lymphatic duct

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112
Q

What effect is had by the fact that all myocytes are involved in every cardiac contraction?

A

There can be no additional recruitment of myocytes. As CO must be equal to venous return, there must be another way to modulate contraction to maintain higher CO levels.

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113
Q

How is CO increased?

A

Can increase heart rate, but only by 3x and with less strove volume each time (due to reduced filling time)
Can increase ventricular diameter with more blood
Can alter Ca2+ action with neurotransmitters or use drugs, to increase force of contraction

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114
Q

What is starling’s law of the heart?

A

An increase in end-diastolic ventricular volume increases the stoke volume via an immediate stretch-induced increase in contractility. This is because increased myocyte length increases force generated for conc. Ca2+

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115
Q

What is the force length relationship?

A

There is an optimal myocyte length to get the maximum force of contraction. When the myocyte is too short it can’t shorten enough, and when too long it can’t make enough cross bridges.

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116
Q

Describe the force-frequency relationship

A

At higher heart rates, there is a higher force produced. This is due to the reduction in time for Ca2+ extrusion. The NCX exchange is impaired, increasing the Na2+ and Ca2+ in the cell, allowing the SR to be loaded more. On subsequent contractions, more Ca2+ is available to leave the SR. Therefore, the Ca2+ transient increases
In heart failure, increased heart rate leads to decreased force as Ca2+ is not taken back up into the cell, meaning Ca2+ transients remain constant in spite of HR increase

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117
Q

What are the effects of B-adrenergic drugs?

A

They stimulate adenylyl cyclase, increasing cAMP levels. This activates proteins kinases, which phosphorylate other proteins. This results in:

  • Decreased Ca2+ sensitivity due to troponin I phosphorylation (although this is compensated by increased Ca2+ transient)
  • Increased internal Ca2+
  • Enhanced SR Ca2+ ATPase
  • Altered RyR gating
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118
Q

How does Ca2+ concentration affect force of contraction?

A

It depends on [Ca2+] internal and total- although in a sigmoidal, not linear, fashion. To change strength of contraction we need to change either the Ca2+ transient (amount of Ca2+) or else the sensitivity to Ca2+ (force produced at a given Ca2+ level)
The Hill coefficient reflects the steepness of the curve

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119
Q

What factors affect Ca2+ in the heart?

A

Acidity (acidic environment causes less Ca2+)
Length (increased length increases Ca2+)
Catecholamines (increased catecholamines decrease Ca2+)
ATP (increased ATP decreases Ca2+)
Caffeine (increase caffeine increases Ca2+)
Inorganic phosphate (increased IOP decreases Ca2+)

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120
Q

What happens to [Ca2+] in increasing an decreasing pH?

A

At acidic pHs, the Na+/H+ exchanger works on removing H+ from the cell in exchange for Na+. This reduces Ca2+ transient. At high pHs, the CHE and CBE transporters load acid into the cell.

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121
Q

What occurs during heart failure in terms of the Ca2+ transient?

A

The myocytes are more sensitive to Ca2+, and so increase force- although they are less able to relax, and so pump less blood.

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122
Q

What is the difference between immediate and slow responses to stretch in the heart?

A

Immediate: Increase Ca2+ sensitivity
Slow: Increased calcium transient.
This means that when stimulus frequency increases, the force of contraction also increases

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123
Q

What effects do the autonomic nervous system have on force of heart contraction?

A

PSNS: Decreased SA node firing so decreased force
SNS: Increased SA rate, resulting in increased Ca2+ influx, increased SR pump rate and decreased sensitivity of troponin to Ca2+ (to allow relaxation)

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124
Q

What are some drugs we can use to affect the heart’s contractility?

A
  • Cardiotonic steroids: Increase Na+ by inhibiting their pump. This reduces Ca2+ extrusion
  • Bipyridines: Increase cAMP (act like B adrenergic activators)
  • Heart failure: Increased dimesion so decreased efficiency- most try to decrease filling pressures by giving vasodilators (NO), ACE inhibitors and diuretics
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125
Q

What is the effect of Ca2+ sparks on the rhythm of the heart?

A

They promote Ca2+ extrusion by the NCX pump. causing localized and potentially cell wide depolarization. As a consequence, they may trigger random APs

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126
Q

What happens to calcium transient if the Na+/K+ pump is decreased?

A

Increased intracellular Na2+, which slows or reverses the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger- so more Ca2+ in the cell

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127
Q

What is the problem with classifying disease symptoms into ‘has’ or ‘doesn’t have’?

A

Symptoms are a continuum, and are not always set out in a black and white cutoff
Additionally, depending on additional risk factors, such as age, smoking, weight, blood glucose, cholesterol, the interpretation of the result is different.
Ie. someone with 150/100 blood pressure may be at less risk than someone with 120/80 blood pressure who smokes.

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128
Q

How do we measure cholesterol? How does this differ to how we measure the efficacy of cholesterol-lowering drugs?

A

Cholesterol itself is measured in total cholesterol- including both high and low density cholesterol. By itself it isn’t really a useful measurement. We should be measuring the ratio of low to high density cholesterol
However, the efficiacy of cholesterol lowering drugs is equatable to measuring only LDL cholesterol, as it is only this type of cholesterol that changes.

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129
Q

Describe atrial contraction

A

It starts soon after the P wave, and ventricular volume is topped up by atrial contraction (although this is not necessary at normal heart rates)

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130
Q

Describe isovolumic contraction?

A

Onset is at R wave peak. Ventricular volume remains unchanged and first heart sound occurs. Takes place between start of systole and opening of semilunar valves

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131
Q

Describe rapid ejection

A

Semilunar valves open, with a rapid increase in aortic flow and venous and aortic pressure. Causes a rapid decrease in LV volume and atrial pressure due to the base moving to the apex and stretching the atria

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132
Q

Describe reduced ejection

A
  • The runoff from the aorta to the periphery exceeds the LV output, so aortic pressure and flow drop. Aortic pressure is just greater than LV pressure so the blood keeps moving forwards. At the end of ejection, 55-75% of blood remains
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133
Q

What is isovolumic relaxation?

A

The aortic valve closes due to pressure gradient reversal- there is a slow backflow producing an incisura (notch) in the aortic pressure curve. The second heart sound occurs due to semilunar valve closure and while volume remains the same, LV pressure falls rapidly (although aortic pressure remains high.

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134
Q

Describe rapid filling

A

LV pressure is below LA pressure, allowing the AV valve to open and cause a rapid LV volume increase. The third heart sound is sometimes heard here

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135
Q

Describe slow filling

A

This is diastasis, where pressure are aqualized and there is a slow rise in atrial and venous pressures

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136
Q

What are the venous pulse waves?

A

a: a retrograde pulse into the jugular vein when the atria contract
- c wave: early phase of ventricular systole
- v wave: a gradual pressure increase during reduced ejection and isovolumic relaxation

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137
Q

What do echocardiograms show?

A

Wall thickness and valve motion, as movement changes the placement of black and white strips (representing muscle and and space).

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138
Q

What are the overall differences in pressure and valve sequence between the RHS and LHS of the heart?

A

The right ventricle has lower pressures as it pumps through the low-resistance lungs, rather than the entire systemic circuit. The right side valves open earlier and close later than the left side valves.

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139
Q

What causes the four heart sounds?

A

First heart sound is due to AV valve closure, and is of low frequency. Although the two sides close asynchronously, there is normally only one sound heard
The second sound is due to semilunar valve closure, and is of higher frequency. Sometimes it can be split due to aortic/pulmonary delay
The third heart sound can be heard in rapid filling
The fourth sound can be caused by oscillation and stretch during atrial contraction

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140
Q

How do you measure pressures in the heart?

A
  • LA pressure obtained with a catheter with a balloon on the end (deflated)
  • RA, RV and Pulmonary artery pressures are measured the same way, with the balloon inflated.
    The balloon can be threaded further into the pulmonary artery until it wedges, and so the pressure here can be approximated as LA pressure
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141
Q

How do you measure cardiac output?

A
  • The fick method: Q = O2 added to blood in lungs / venous O1-arterial O2 Q = VO2/PaO2-PvO2
  • Thermodilution: A catheter is threaded through the RA and RV, with a temperature sensor in the pulmonary trunk. Cold saline is injected into the RA, and the change in temperature reaching the artery is measured. This means that there is no arterial puncture, toxicity or recirculation
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142
Q

How do you measure vascular resistance?

A

General: R = P1-P2 / Q
Total peripheral vascular resistance: TPVR = Psyst. artery - P syst. vein / !
Pulmonary vascular resistance; P (pul art) - P (LA) / Q

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143
Q

What is vasovagal syncope?

A

A failure of the body to maintain sympathetic activity- vagal activity increases dramatically and HR and BP decrease and fainting occurs

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144
Q

What is the functional consequence of the body being able to activate the SNS in only certain parts of the body?

A

Means that you can control what is activated- ie. in disease there is increased sympathetic stimulation to the heart, muscle and kidneys,

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145
Q

Where in the body does the parasympathetic vs. sympathetic nervous system run?

A

The parasympathetic system begins in the brainstem and runs down through the neck or into the head to innervate. Similarly, innervation to the bladder/genitals begins in the sacrum.
The sympathetic system has a trunk of ganglia, so the nerves leave the spinal cord and run into the ganglion chain, where they run up and down the body. This means that only some fibres run through the neck
The parasympathetic nervous system has long preganglionic fibres and short postganglionic fibres, while the sympathetic ganglia is vice versa

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146
Q

What are the neurotransmitter and receptors used in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

1: Ganglion: Receptor in N2, uses ACh. Effector tissue: Muscarinic receptor, uses ACh

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147
Q

What are the neurotransmitters and receptors used in the sympathetic nervous system?

A

To Smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, gland:
Ganglion: Uses ACh on N2 receptor. Norepinephrine to alpha.beta receptor on target cells

To adrenal medulla: Chromaffin cell: ACh on N2 receptor. Epinephrine on Alpha/beta receptor on target cells

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148
Q

What are the different receptor types in the body?

A

N receptors: N1 is skeletal muscle, N2 is in ganglia
Muscarinic receptors: On parasympathetic target tissue
Adrenergic receptors: Can be B1 (heart), B2 (smooth muscle relaxer), a1 (vascular smooth muscle constrictor) or a2 (inhibit neurotransmitters)

149
Q

What drugs can block the different autonomic receptors of the body?

A

Neuromuscular blockers block muscular N receptors, while ganglia blockers block ganglia N receptors

150
Q

What are examples of the different adrenergic agonists?

A

A1- phenylephrine
A2: Clanidine
B1: Botutamine
B2: Salbutomol

151
Q

What does atropine do in the body?

A

Targets vagal activity by increasing SA firing

152
Q

Where do the vagus and sympathetic cardiac nerves contact the heart?

A

Vagus touches SA and AV nodes

Sympathetic touches both nodes as well as some of the ventricular walls

153
Q

How does parasympathetic nervous activity decrease HR?

A

It releases ACh on to muscarinic receptors, which open potassium channels and close funny and T type Ca2+ channels, resulting in hyperpolarization and reduced spontaneous depolarization

154
Q

How does sympathetic nervous activity increase HR?

A

It releases Norepi onto B1 receptors at the SA node, activating cAMP and augmenting the funny and T type Ca2+ channels, increasing the slope and frequency of APs, increasing HR

155
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system affect contractility?

A

It releases norepi onto B1 receptors, activating adenylate cyclase and synthesizing cAMP. This increases intracellular Ca2+ and contractility, as well as increasing the gradient for Ca2+ efflux, helping relaxation.

156
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system cause vasoconstriction?

A

A release of norepi onto a1 receptors causes vasoconstriction- although it can be differentially mediated- some beds may be sympathetically increased while others are not.

157
Q

What is the baroreceptor reflex?

A

(this also applies vice versa)

  • Increased blood pressure increases vessel stretch
  • Increases firing of baroreceptors in carotid arteries and aorta
  • CV centre in medulla oblongata decreases symp and increases parasymp
  • Vasodilation, decreased force of contraction and decreased HR
  • Decreased TPVR and CO
  • Decreased blood pressure
158
Q

What is the chemoreceptor reflex?

A
Carotid and aortic bodies are innervated by the sinus and aortic nerves.  Stimulated by hypoxia, hypercapnia and low pH to increased ventiation and symp. activity.
Central chemoreceptors (ant. medulla) respond only to hypercapnia and low pH
159
Q

What is the diving reflex?

A
Due to the presence of water on the face in terms of cold temperature and pressure/sensation fibres.  Also undertaken by peripheral chemoreceptors (after a time)
Involves apnea (breath holding), brady cardia, peripheral vasoconstriction and increased BP.
160
Q

What are the different categories of blood pressure?

A

Systolic pressure is the highest pressure reached
Diastolic pressure is the lowest pressure reached
Pulse pressure is the difference between the two
Mean arterial pressure is the pressure difference multiplied by 1/3

161
Q

What significance does blood pressure have on other conditions?

A

Blood pressure most commonly refers to systemic arterial pressure.
It is very important in calculating DALYs.

162
Q

Why is mean arterial pressure only 1/3 of the pressure difference? Why is it not the average pressure?

A

Ventricles only spend 1/3 of their time in systole and the other 2/3 in diastole

163
Q

What factors affect mean arterial pressure?

A

Cardiac output and total peripheral resistance

164
Q

What factors affect cardiac output?

A

Short term: Heart rate, inotropic state, neural and humoral factors.
Long term: RAA pathway, natiuresis, aldosterone and ANF

165
Q

What factors affect peripheral resistance?

A

Nervous activity on receptor a (vasoconstriction) and receptor b (vasodilation)
Humoral vasoconstrictors: Angiotensin and ACh
Humoral vasodilators: Prostaglandins, kinins and NO
Local Autoregulation

166
Q

What factors affect pulse pressure?

A

Stroke volume
Aortic Compliance
Diastolic Runoff

167
Q

How does stroke volume affect pulse pressure?

A

It is determined by preload, afterload, chronotropy, inotropy and exercise- systolic causes increased SV, diastolic decreased.

168
Q

How does aortic compliance affect pulse pressure?

A

The more compliant the vessel, the smaller the pulse. This is due to the fact that systolic pressure is lower, and diastolic is relatively higher due to the lack of change. Compliance decreases with age, causing increased BP

169
Q

How does diastolic runoff affect pulse pressure?

A

If downstream resistance is low, then there will be more blood leaving any given vessel during a time period, so a lower diastolic pressure. Increasing HR reduces runoff.

170
Q

How do two common CV diseases affect pressure?

A

In atherosclerosis, resistance is affected as vessels are much less compliant
In a patent ductus arteriosus, blood volume is increased to make up for the decreased blood going to the lungs. This results in shunting and decreased total peripheral resistance, as well as increased blood volume and increased systemic pressure.

171
Q

How do mechanical blood pressure readings work?

A

When the cuff is at higher than systolic pressure, no blood gets through, so there is no sound
When the cuff is without pressure, there is completely laminar flow, and there is no sound
When the cuff is between diastolic and systolic pressure, only some blood gets through, and the turbulence generates sound.

172
Q

What is the formula for hydrostatic pressure?

A
P = pgh
p= density
g= gravity
h= distance
173
Q

How does blood pressure differ around the body?

A

At the feet, the arterial pressure can be calculated by additing the arterial pressure of the heart to the hydrostatic pressure in the feet.
Venous pressure can be calculated by taking the venous pressure of the heart and adding it to the hydrostatic pressure in the feet.
Respectively, they result in 180mmHg arterial and 90mmHg venous
In the raised hand, the arterial pressure is calculated the same way, although at this point the hydrostatic pressure is -50mmHg.

174
Q

How does gravity affect the distensible vessels of the body?

A

At the lower ends of the lower vessels, the bottom is dilated, resulting in poorer resistance and so more flow- however, this is overrided by venous pooling, reducing venous return, preload and CO
At the upper end of the higher tubes, there is negative pressure, causing tubes to collapse, flow to reduce or to stop/start, and causing no pressure change, a rising blood pressure and then flow.

175
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

The physiological response of blood vessels to injury. It prevents leaks in injured vessels

176
Q

What role do endothelial cells play in healthy vs. injured blood vessels?

A

Healthy: Endothelial cells switch off haemostasis by insulating tissues from blood, and producing enzymatic and chemical inhibitors (NO and PG12). They also express antithrombin orn their surfaces, which binds to and inactivates thrombin
In unhealthy cells, endothelial cells promote haemostasis. When they are breached, they activate platelets and the coagulation cascade. They also produce von Willebrand factor, promoting platelet adhesion to the ECM proteins exposed, and tissue factor (thromboplastin, activating the coagulation cascade)
Finally, they produce endothelin, which causes vasoconstriction.

177
Q

What are platelets?

A

They are fragments of megakaryocytes, activated by ECM proteins exposed when the endothelium is damaged. They secrete chemical signals that promote vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. Reduced platelet numbers can result in anything from purpura (under-skin bleeding) to spontaneous haemorrhage

178
Q

What is coagulation?

A

A cascade of reactions through which invert zymogens are activated. It is initiated by several stimuli including tissue factor (from damaged tissues). Penultimate step is the activation of thrombin, which then goes on to catalyze the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, which then forms fibrin strands. This then forms a meshwork with fused platelets to form a stable plug. As fibrin is being deposited, the fibrinolytic system is activated to disassemble it.

179
Q

What are the stages of haemostasis?

A
  1. Initial brief period of arteriole vasoconstriction due to reflexes and local factors
  2. Injury to endothelium exposes ECM, activating platelets
  3. Platelets release secretory granules and come together to form a plug (primary haemostasis)
  4. Tissue factor is secreted by endothelium and activates the coagulation cascade: thrombin –> fibrinogen –> fibrin (secondary haemostasis
  5. Solid permanent plug
  6. Counter-regulatory mechanisms limit plug to site of injury.
180
Q

What is thrombosis?

A

Occurs when hemostasis is activated inappropriately. A thrombus is a mass formed from blood constituents within the circulation during life. They are made of fibrin, platelets, and R/WBCs. They may form in the heart or blood vessel, and can obstruct the vessel or else break off to form an embolus and obstruct elsewhere

181
Q

What factors predispose to thrombosis?

A

Virchow’s triad:
- Changes in the blood vessel wall
Changes in blood flow
Changes in blood constituents

182
Q

How do changes in the vessel wall predispose to thrombosis?

A

Changes can be due to endothelial activation or injury- occurs in MI, atherosclerosis, vasculitis, as well as physical and chemical damage. Vascular transplant can also encourage it as the activate intrinsic coagulation cascades to bind pro-inflammatory cascade proteins, and activate platelets.

183
Q

How do changes in blood flow predispose to thrombosis?

A

Heart/Arteries: Turbulence is an important cause, ptentiallay due to aneurysms, narrowing, infarction, heart valve disease and abnormal cardiac rhytms
Veins: Stasis is the important cause, cost commonly affecting pelvic and deep/superficial leg veins. May be due to RHS heart failure, immobilization or compressed veins.

184
Q

How do changes in blood constituents lead to thrombosis?

A

This can lead to increased coagulation tendency. Causes include tissue damage, as in trauma, responses from the liver via pro-inflammatory proteins and cytokines. Additionally, operations, malignancy, smoke, lipids and contraception can do the same.

185
Q

What factors limit coagulation?

A

Natural coagulants
Anti-thrombins
The fibrinolytic cascade limits clot size as it activates plasmin to break the clot down

186
Q

What are emboli?

A

Intravascular masses that get carried by blood flow from its original site to a different place. Theyc an be thrombi, fat, air, atheromatous debris, bone marrow and amniotic fluid
They cause effects due to stenosis and occlusion. Leg and pelvic veins’ clots lodge in the pulmonary artery, causing pulmonary infarction, reduced CO, RHS heart failure and death. LHS heart emboli or aortic emboli enter the arterial system and can damage the brain, spleen, kidney, gut, legs and more

187
Q

What is syncope?

A

A self-limited loss of both consciousness and postural tone. Has a rapid onset, with variable warning symptoms (malignant if no warning). Usually a prompt recovery without intervention, and is due to transient global cerebral hypoperfusion.

188
Q

What are some causes of syncope?

A

Neurally-mediated reflex syndromes
Orthostatic hypotension
Cardiac arrhythmias
Structural cardiovascular disease

189
Q

What are the most important factors in diagnosis of syncope?

A

History- ie circumstances of current and previous events, medical history, family history. Then examination, and then tests like tilt tests, head MRI

190
Q

What are neurally mediated syncopes?

A
  • Vasovagal syncope
  • Carotid sinus syndrome
  • Situational syncope- ie. during defecation, venepuncture, pain, psych stimulus etc.
    Due to a physiological reflex mechanism- Inhibition of heart rate (after a slight rise) and vasodepression (drop in BP)
    Treated with drug strategies
191
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

Can be due to drug action- like diuretics and vasodilators
- Primary autonomic failure- multiple system atrophy, parkinson’s, POTS
- Secondary autonomic failure- diabetes, alcohol, amyloid.
Treated with patient education and injury avoidance, as well as hydration, tilt training, wearing of support hose, drug therapy and pacing

192
Q

What is cardiac syncope?

A

Potentially life-threatening- appropriate to initiate assessment and treatment promptly.
Most commonly not cardiac, but bradycardia is most common of cardiac syncope types.
Bradyarrhythmias show AV block, and potential accompaniment by vasodilation
Tachyarrhythmias show atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, and paroxysms of supraventricular/ventricular tachycardia as well as torsade de pointes.

193
Q

Where on the cardiac cycle is it at risk of a ventricular fibrillation?

A

At the middle of the T wave upstroke, or during repolarization in the myocyte action potential. This can result in changed repolarization, with ectopic action potentials being able to be generated. (hyperpolarization zone?)

194
Q

What are palpitations?

A

The awareness of a heart rate or rhythm change- usually transient and benign, often nocturnal or during rest, with exertional less common. Small malignant potential.

195
Q

How do you assess palpitation?

A

History is the key- then physical examination to exclude SHD. Investigate from here if needed. Most treatment is reassurance- any treatment can cause more harm than good in terms of side effects

196
Q

What is incessant ectopy?

A

Repeated palpitations- may reflect underlying cardiomyopathy, atrial/pulmonary vein tachycardia or

197
Q

What is ecopy in the presence of SHD?

A

Trigger for possible malignant arrhythmias. Treatment more hazardous and limited

198
Q

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Usually well-tolerated, benign and curable palpitation

199
Q

What is long QT syndrome?

A

Involves abnormalities in Na+/K+ channels causing susceptibility to polymorphic ventricular tachycardia.
Common in drug-induced forms, genetic forms rare but being more recognized, and concealed forms may be common and can be the base of drug-induced
Treated with drug therapy and potential ablation of pathways

200
Q

How do you treat atrial vs. ventricular tachyarrhythmias?

A

Atrial fibrillation: Pacing and/or ablation
Atrial flutter: Ablation of tricuspid valve-IVC isthmus
Ventricular tachycardia: defibrillation or ablation
Torsade de pointes: withdraw offending drugs and/or implant a defibrillator

201
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

Inadequate local blood supply to a tissue

202
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

A consequence of ischaemia- a deficiency of O2 causing cell injury by reducing aerobic respiration

203
Q

What is infarction?

A

Necrosis due to rapid or prolonged ischaemia

204
Q

What are the causes of ischaemia?

A
  • External occlusion of a vessel- tumors, compression
  • Internal occlusion of a vessel- atherosclerosis, thrombosis, embolism
  • Vessel spasm (eg. frostbite)
  • Capillary blockage- sickle cell anaemia
  • Shock- circulatory failure with low arterial bp
  • Increased demand- increased tissue mass/workload
  • Venous obstruction
205
Q

How do different cell types react to hypoxia?

A

Those with higher energy requirements tend to be affected more severely
Neurons are very sensitive, and irreversibly damaged by only 3 mins of anoxia
Renal epithelium is sensitive- ion reabsorption is rapidly impaired
Myocardium is sensitive- irreversible damage after 20 mins and functional impairment after 1min
Skeletal muscle is less sensitive and capable of anoxic work
Fibroblasts and macrophages are insensitive
Neutrophils are enhanced by hypoxia, as the tissue they must clean up is often poorly perfused

206
Q

How are cells impacted by hypoxia even if they aren’t killed?

A

Decrease in ATP availability, causing signal cascade activation for thrombosis
Decreased pump activity, so increased Ca2+, Na+ and H2O, and decreased K+, causing swelling, death and bleb formation
If the cells have enough ATP in hypoxic conditions they apoptose, and if not they die a necrotic death

207
Q

What extracellular factors affect the outcome of vessel occlusion?

A

The anatomy of the blood supply to the organ- ie collateral supply reduces susceptibility to hypoxia
The size of the vessel- the larger, the more potential damage
Speed of onset- collateral vessels may develop to compensate for slow stenosis
Duration of occlusion- cells survive short periods, but may be killed by reperfusion injury
Metabolic demands of tissue at time of ischaemia
General adequacy of circulatory system- effects worse in heart failure, anaemia

208
Q

What are the possible outcomes for ischaemic tissue?

A

No effect
Functional defects due to less perfusion- eg. dysrhythmia due to poor conductance, renal insufficiency
Reversible damage to isolated cells
Apoptosis of isolated cells
Infarction- necrosis due to overwhelming injury

209
Q

What are the four types of necrosis?

A
Red infarcts: Occurs in tissue with a dual blood supply or in reperfused tissue- causes haemorrhage into damaged tissue
White infarcts:  Occurs in singularly supplied tissue, often wedge shaped with the point of wedge at occlusion, and base at organ surface
Coagulative necrosis- loss of cell features and bright red color due to protein denaturing
Liquifactive necrosis (brain)
210
Q

What is the inflammatory timeline for infarction?

A

In 24h, neutrophils are recruited. 1-3 days later is macrophages and some lymphocytes
Fibroblasts and endothelial cells then recruited (organisation) and form granulation tissue which is remodeled into a fibrous scar. In some tissue, regeneration may occur

211
Q

What is ischaemic heart disease?

A

Usually caused by atherosclerotic narrowing of the coronary arteries, depriving the heart of blood. This causes
1. Angina pectoris- pain due to tissue death. Presents as transient constricting discomfort, and falls short of necrosis
2. Chronic ischaemic heart disease with heart failure
3. MI: may occur due to slowly growing plaque which suddenly enlarges- ie. rupture or thrombus formation. Causes full thickness of heart wall to infarc, or just the underlying endocardium
This can cause mural thrombosis, dysrhythmias, heart failure, and reperfusion injury
4. Cerebrovascular injury- neurons are vulnerable, and as the brain needs 20% of normal blood supply it may be compromised

212
Q

How is MI treated?

A

With thrombolitic agents
Mechanical reexpansion of occluded vessel
CABG

213
Q

What does ischaemia do to individual cells?

A

Non-severe/short-lived ischaemia causes a biology change to the cell, leading to adaptation. Prolonged causes death.
Ranges from attempts at repair < atrophy < shut-down < apoptosis < necrosis

214
Q

What is reperfusion injury?

A

In short periods of ischaemia, reperfusion shows injury reversal. However, after long periods, damaging free radicals are produced in cells, which cause lipid peroxidation in membranes and damage enzymes and DNA
In reperfusion, (ie after MI/transplant), this is severe. Vascular endothelial cells are particularly susceptible
In skeletal muscle, reperfusion causes tissue swelling in the fascia, which can cause compartment syndrome, secondary ischaemia and necrosis.

215
Q

How does blood pressure vary over time?

A

Higher at nighttime
Higher in elderly in wintertime
Higher in older ages
Lower in low salt, high exercise, low BMI people, non smokers

216
Q

How has BP measurement changed over time?

A

in 1950s it was only measured for renal and cardiac failure patients
1970s- GP screening introduced
Now, BP is falling even though we are increasing in weight

217
Q

What causes high BP?

A

Lifestyle
Kidney disease
Adrenal issues
Coarctiation of aorta

218
Q

How is hypertension diagnosed and treated?

A
Diagnosed over 3 visits, taking the average of the last 2
Easiest lowerers:
1.  Drug therapy (triple test- ACE inhibitors, diuretics and Ca2+ blocker)
2.  Exercise
3.  Smoking cessation
4.  Diet
5.  Sodium intake
6.  Alcohol intake
7.  Weight loss
219
Q

What can cause congenital heart issues?

A
  • Anything interfering with pump function (muscle and rhythm), which can cause hydrops (thickened skin around heart, effusions, ascites and hydrocardium/haemocardium)
  • Interference with stroke volume- valve regurgitation- or HR- arrhythmias.
220
Q

What is ebstein’s anomaly?

A

Tricuspid regurgitation, causing heart hyperplasia and lung hypoplasia

221
Q

How do children with cardiac abnormalities present 24h after birth?

A
  • Critically ill fetuses become critically ill newborns
  • May have obstructed pulmonary veins or valve regurgitations, but don’t often show RDS
    Heart murmurs can be present due to semilunar valve stenosis or AV regurgitations. May have cyanosis. Septal defects don’t present yet
222
Q

When do ductal dependent lesions present and why? What can they be?

A

Ductal dependent lesions begin showing up at 24h-2 weeks- these begin to present when the ductus arteriosus begins closing, as children with ductal dependent lesions can function on a single chamber as the blood is still able to reach the other circuit with the duct open.
Can be: Dependent for pulmonary blood flow, dependent for systemic blood flow, or dependent for mixing

223
Q

How do pulmonary ductal dependent lesions present? How is it treated?

A
  • Mild cyanosis at birth
  • Gradual hypoxia at duct closure
  • Results in severe cyanosis, acidosis and lactaemia
  • Treated with prostaglandin E1 to reopen the duct, and eventual surgery
224
Q

How do systemic ductal dependent lesions present? How is it treated?

A
  • Caused by aortic coarctation or LHS hypoplasia
  • Mild cyanosis at birth
  • acidosis and shock (grey skinned)
  • Tachypnoea, acidosis, lactaemia
  • Risk of organ damage- brain, guts, liver, renal
  • Treated with prostaglandin E1, inotropes, ventilation, organ repair and heart surgery
225
Q

How do mixing ductal dependent lesions present? How is it treated?

A
  • Caused by the aorta coming off the RV and pulmonary arteries from LV- essentially separating the two circuits in the wrong way
  • Mild cyanosis at birth
  • Rapid cyanosis in the first few days
  • Acidosis and lactaemia if not treated
  • Treat with Prostaglandin E1, bullon septostomy to open the atrial septum, and surgery
226
Q

What congenital heart abnormalities present between 2-6w?

A

Ventricular septal defects and patent ductus arteriosum. This is because pumonary resistance falls to the point that the blood going through the pulm. arteries is 2-5x higher than in the systemic circuit, as the pulmonary circuit becomes lower resistance than systemic.
This results in congested, stiff lungs and increased heart work to supply the systemic circuit

227
Q

What are the symptoms of heart failure in 2-6 week olds?

A
  • Breathlessness (>50/min)
  • Sweatiness due to increased metabolic rate
  • Tachycardia
  • Poor feeding and weight gain
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Larve VSDs Development of a pansystolic murmur in the tricuspid valve due to huge blood volume, and a middiastolic murmur due to mitral valve turbulence.
  • Small VSDs show a louder noise during systole
228
Q

When do atrial septal defects present?

A

Present in 50s-60s
Due to dilation of RA and V due to increased blood flow from the LA (higher P) to RA (lower P). The amount of flow is related to the diastolic compliance of the ventricles, and left ventricles become less compliant with age, especially in ischaemic heart disease and hypertension

229
Q

What are the effects of atrial septal defects?

A

Atrial arrhythmia and fibrillation- RHS failure and fibrillation after MI.
Uncommon to have pulmonary hypertension
Treat by closing valve- normal life if closed in childhood, risk persistent arrhythmias if closed in adulthood

230
Q

What are the clinical features suggesting ASD?

A
Turns up in chest X rays
Pulmonary blood flow murmur
Split second heart sound
Increased RV load so a greater RV ejection
Equal RA/LA pressures
Tricuspid valve murmur
231
Q

How do you tell where the sup. mediastinum boundary is in a CXR?

A

It is where the clavicles meet in the midline

232
Q

What components are found in the superior, anterior, middle and posterior mediastinum?

A

S: Thyroid, trachea, oesophagus
A: Thymus (in children)
M: Heart, trachea, oesophagus, great vessels
P: Nerves

233
Q

What are the diseases that can occur in each compartment of the mediastinum?

A

S: Goitre
A: Thyroid, thymoma, lymphoma, teratoma
M: Cardiac/vascular lesions, oesophageal abnormalities, lymphoma, bronchogenic cysts
P: Neurogenic cysts

234
Q

How can you tell if heart failure is RHS or LHS using a CXR and how do you treat it?

A

LHS presents with SOB and orthopnoea due to pulmonary involvement
RHS presents with peripheral oedema and azygous vein involvement as the RHS is not draining
Treat with diuretics to remove pulmonary fluid

235
Q

How do you tell what is a thyroid tumor vs. lymphoma vs. seminoma vs. hiatus hernia?

A

Thyroid tumor: anterior and middle mediastinum involvement
Lymphoma: LHS and RHS mediastinal involvement
Seminoma: Mass in azygous recess
Hiatus hernia: Air bubbles in chest

236
Q

How do you measure left ventricular pressure?

A

Put a catheter into the femoral artery and thread it back into the left ventricle

237
Q

What is the relationship between left ventricular pressure and volume during different stages of the cardiac cycle?

A

During diastolic filling, pressure increases slowly, then greatly, and volume increases greatly, then slowly.
The end-systolic pressure-volume relationship is litear, while diastolic is exponential
The pressure-volume loop fits between, as the two diastolic points (iso relax and end of vent. filling) are on the diastolic line, while end-systole is on the linear graph

238
Q

How does preload affect ventricular performance?

A

It relates to the degree of stretch of the muscle just before contraction, due to the differing filament overlaps. At greater preloads, there is a greater stroke volume and a greater max. potential pressure (at aortic valve opening).

239
Q

How does afterload affect ventricular performance>

A

This is the pressure against which the ventricle contracts in order to open the aortic valve. It is determined mainly by systolic left ventricular and aortic pressures, which are increased by systemic hypertension. An increased afterload raises pressure, but decreases stroke volume

240
Q

How does inotropic state affect ventricular performance?

A

This is the intrinsic ability of the myocardium to contract at a given preload and afterload. Altering it adjusts the minimum pressure able to be developed, and shifts the linear end-systolic pressure-volume line.
Stroke volume increases at increased inotropic states, and vice versa.

241
Q

How do drugs that affect inotropy affect the system?

A

Digoxin- poisons the Na+/K+ pumps, increasing intracellular Na+, and meaning that the NCX pump brings in Ca2+ in exchange for Na+

242
Q

How does heart rate affect ventricular performance?

A

Increasing heart rate increases CO as well as inotropic state. However, it decreases SV due to reduced filling time. However, this is only considerable at high HR

243
Q

How does ventricular function relate to balancing the left and right hearts?

A
  • Both hearts have to pump the same volume over time, so any changes must be balanced- additionally, increasing the afterload results in increased preload
244
Q

What are the steps in the frank-starlin mechanism when aortic pressure increases?

A
  • Increased left volume afterload
  • Decreased stroke volume
  • RV must do the same
  • Blood accumulates in the lungs
  • Left atrial filling increases
  • EDV increases
  • Increased stroke volume
245
Q

What factors affect preload?

A
  • Blood volume
  • Venous tone
  • Posture
  • HR
  • Atrial contraction
  • Muscle pumps
  • Intrathoracic and intrapericardial pressures
  • Ventricular compliance
246
Q

What factors affect afterload?

A

Hypertension
Vasoconstriction
Aortic stenosis
Heart failure

247
Q

What factors affect inotropic state?

A
ANS
Catecholamines
Force-frequency relationship
AP changes
Cardiomyopathy
Positive inotropic and cardiac depressant drugs
248
Q

What factors affect HR?

A

ANS
Reflexes
Higher centres
Catecholamines

249
Q

What is the ejection fraction and how is it determined?

A

It is SV/EDVx100. It is often measured using echocardiography, and sits around 55-60% normally, with 85% during exercise.

250
Q

What does the peak dP/dt show us?

A

The maximum rate of ventricular pressure rise- this indicates cotnractility. In diastolic heart failure, ejection is conserved, but the heart has relaxation problems

251
Q

What are ventricular function curves and what can they show?

A

They show preload vs. an index of ventricular performance. Stroke volume can be used, although stroke work is preferable as it is not affected by afterload

252
Q

What is stroke work and how is it measured?

A

Stroke work is the pressure/volume work performed during each cardiac cycle
Calculated by SW = MAP x SV
As preload increases, SW increases
- If MAP increases, SV decreases but SW stays the same
Both move if you increase or decrease inotropy. SW represents everything but heart rate

253
Q

What are the main consequences of valve disease?

A

Stenosis- impaired forward flow
Regurgitation/incompetence- allowing reverse flow
These can occur in isolation or together

254
Q

What do diastolic vs. systolic murmurs mean?

A

Diastolic are mitral/tricuspid stenosis, or aortic/pulmonary incompetence
Systolic are mitral/tricuspid incompetence, or aortic/pulmonary stenosis

255
Q

What are the common pathogenic mechanisms in valvular heart disease?

A
Developmental defects of CT
Calcification
Infection
Post-infection
Hypercoaguability
Carcinoid tumours
256
Q

What are some developmental defects in connective tissues?

A

-Stenosis of the pulmonary or aortic valve
Leaflet abnormailites (like bicuspid aortic valves)
Myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve- also known as mitral valve prolapse

257
Q

Describe mitral valve prolapse

A

Idiopathic, but commonly occurs in marfan syndrome and other inherited CT disorders
Asymptomatic
Can increase risk of endocarditis and mitral insufficiency

258
Q

What is dystrophic calcification?

A

It occurs in local areas after extensive cell injury, when dead or dying cells accumulate calcium. This causes cumulative damage, most commonly in the form of annular calcification of the mitral valve, and stenosis of the aortic valve, which may render it unable to fully open or close

259
Q

What can infection do to heart valves?

A

Infective endocarditis is the colonisation or invasion of heart valves by a microbe, often after seeding of blood with microbes. Small lesions called vegetations form, and the pathogens involved can be bacterial, fungal etc.

260
Q

What is acutevs. subacute endocarditis?

A

Acute: High virulence, often previously normal valve, destructive and high mortality rate. Caused by staph.a
Subacute: Low virulence, often previously abnormal valve, insidious. Caused by strep. viridans

261
Q

How does post-infection conditions damage the heart?

A

Rheumatic fever is a multi-system type II hypersensitivity reaction, which can cause scarrin, fibrosis, vegetations, aschoff bodies (oedematous CT with WBCs) and pericarditis
Leads to valve deformities such as mitral stenosis
Immune response against strep M proteins cross reacts to antigens in the heart

262
Q

For what cardiac conditions do preemptive antibiotics have to be taken?

A
- Previous endocarditis
Rheumatic heart disease
Prosthetic valves
Unrepaired congenital heart defects
Congenital heart defects that were repaired less than 6mos ago
263
Q

What is non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis?

A

Involves deposition of fibrin and platelets on the heart valve without any pathogen responsibility. It’s especially evident when the patient is in a hypercoagulable state due to an underlying cause such as cancer or sepsis, when Vichow’s triad is turned on
Prosthetic valves can also increase risk of thrombosis

264
Q

What are carcinoid tumors?

A

A range of neoplasms arising from neuroendocrine cells
Secrete a variety of bioactive products which cause plaque like thickenings on the RHS of the heart
Composed largely of smooth muscle cells that affect the tricuspid and pulmonary valves.

265
Q

What is the formula for pressure and how does this change?

A

P= CO x R, and when CO increases, R decreases and vice versa. An increase in resistance increases blood pressure upstream, whereas downstream flow is affected mainly by capillary flow (but with little effect on TPR).

266
Q

How does blood pressure, velocity and cross sectional area change in the different vessels?

A

The major pressure drop is in the small arteries (resistance vessels), which also show and inverse relationship between total X sectional area and flow rate. Max cross sectional area and minimum flow is seen in the capillaries.

267
Q

What is velocity?

A

The volume passing any point along a tube per unit time
Q = mean velocity x cross sectional area, where velocity is proportional to 1/Area- the wider the cross sectional area, the slower the velocity. (This allows diffusion to occur in capillaries

268
Q

How does pressure relate to flow and resistance?

A
Flow rate (Q) = change in P / R.  Therefore, flow is directly proportional to pressure difference and inversely proportional to resistance.
NB: Usually the delta P = Pa - Pv, although often Pv can be ignored as it's close to 0.  Often, CO = MAP (100mmHg) /TPR (mainly controlleld by small arterioles)
269
Q

Why does a change of precapillary sphincters change downstream flow but not arterial pressure?

A

The capillary beds are in parallel, rather than series, so that 1/resistance = 1/vessel1 + 1/vessel2 + 1/vessel3

270
Q

What is poiseuille’s law?

A

The flow = change in P x (pi x r^4) / (8viscosityL)

As Q = p/R, R = the inverse of this

271
Q

What factors are important for governing resistance?

A

Vessel length
Blood viscosity
Radius of blood vessel

272
Q

How does blood vessel radius affect resistance?

A

One of the most important factors due to the proportionality to the fourth power. This means flow will increase exponentially for minor changes in radius

273
Q

How does viscosity affect resistance?

A

It affects the amount of the friction between the vessel wall and fluid
Relative viscosity of fluid = fluid viscosity / water viscosity

274
Q

What factors determine blood viscosity?

A

Temperature: Decreased temperature = increased viscosity
Haematocrit: Increased Hct = Increased viscosity
Shear rate: Low velocities, blood becomes non-newtonian. so that viscosity is no longer independent of shear rate, and viscosity increased as cells clump together
Vessel diameter: In very small vessels, viscosity decreases as blood cells can only get through one at a time- most of the blood is plasma at this point

275
Q

What are the assumptions made by poiseuille’s law in blood flow?

A
  • Steady laminar flow (not profile) to get a parabolic velocity flow (max velocity in the centre, near zero close to vessel walls (newtonian flow)
  • Rigid vessels: OK assumption for the small arteries (most important), due to their thick muscular walls
  • Newtonean fluid- viscosity is independent of shear rate, and blood assumed to be homogeneous
276
Q

How does distensibility of blood vessels affect flow?

A

As blood vessels’ diameters can change, at increased pressures resistance decreases and flow rate increases, and vice versa
There is also a critical closing pressure, beneath which the vessels will collapse

277
Q

What is shear stress?

A

Force in the direction of flow along the inner surface of the blood vessel. Its magnitude depends on viscosity and rate of flow. It can damage and weaken the vessel walls.
It influences the function of the endothelium, causing NO release and vasodilation when under great stress- therefore reducing flow velocity and reducing shear stress

278
Q

What happens to blood flow when it becomes turbulent?

A

Increased friction and flow resistance results, making flow proportional to the the square root of the pressure difference, rather than directly proportional

279
Q

What factors increase the tendency of blood flow to become turbulent?

A

Velocity of blood flow and diameter of blood flow

Above reynold’s number ( (density x velocity x diameter)/viscosity ) turbulence will occur.

280
Q

What conditions commonly show turbulence in blood flow?

A

Heart murmurs
Atherosclerosis
Post-stenotic dilation

281
Q

What is transmural pressure?

A

The pressure inside the vessel minus the pressure outside the vessel

282
Q

What is the relationship between transmural pressure and the circumferential tension?

A

Given by laPlace’s law:
Wall tension is proportional to radius and pressure, and inversely pressure to wall thickness.
As the diameter of the vessel increases, wall tension increases.
This is important for capillaries- small diameter so low wall tension
Aneurysm- larger vessel diameter, increased tension so more likely to rupure
Heart failure- enlarged heart is inefficient as more wall tension is needed to develop the same pressures

283
Q

What is the difference between compliance and capacitance?

A

Compliance relates the distension of a vessel to the distending force. It = change in volume / change in pressure
Capacitance is a measure of the volume to pressure relationship over the entire V/P curve

284
Q

What comprises the microcirculation?

A
Arterioles
Metarterioles
Precapillary sphincters
True capillaries
AV anastomoses
Venules
285
Q

What is the difference between arterioles and metarterioles?

A

Both have variable resistance, control the distribution of vascular pressure and flow, and have a thick layer of smooth muscle in their walls
Metarterioles do not have continuous smoth muscle, and often branch off arterioles at right angles

286
Q

What do precapilalry sphincters do?

A

They open and close in order to direct blood in and out of the capillaries. Opening is promoted by decreasing O2, or increased CO2, lactic acid, NO, adenosine, K+ or H_ in the ECF, inflammatory chemicals and increased temperature
They are controleld by local mechanisms, not neural,

287
Q

What are capillaries?

A

They are exchange vessels, and vary in concentration depending on the tissue.
They have a high SA:V ratio and very thin walls, with a variety of holes and permeabilities.
Blood flow through them is acheived through autoregulation, with myogenic control- increased stretch activates stretch that cause increased contraction

288
Q

Describe diffusion in blood vessels

A

Diffusion: Driven by concentration gradient- mainly for exchange of solutes and water. Fick’s law governs it: Diffusion = diffusion constant x (area/thickness) x concentration gradient. Transcapillary transport of small molecules is limited by the rate of delivery from the material to the vessel (flow limited). Transcapillary transport of large molecules is limited by pore size (diffusion limited)

289
Q

Describe filtration in blood vessels

A

A bulk flow of fluid across a membrane, driven by hydrostatic and osmotic pressure differences. A filtration coefficient is determined by the permeability of the capillaries to water, tissue type, and other influences.

  • Capillary hydrostatic pressure drops over the vessel, pushing fluid out
  • IF hydrostatic pressure is is normally around 0
  • Blood colloid osmotic pressurenormally remains the same, drawing fluid into the vessel
  • IF colloid osmotic pressure draws fluid in and also remains the same
290
Q

What is starling’s law of ultrafiltration?

A

Fluid movement = filtration constant x (blood - IF hydrostatic pressure) - membrane reflection constant x (blood - IF colloid osmotic pressure)
If Pa, Pv and rv increase, blood hydrostatic pressure increases, and outward fluid movement increases
- If ra increases, blood hydrostatic pressure decreases, and outward filtration decreases

291
Q

How does the filtration/absorption ratio change along different capillaries?

A
  • normal: 50% each
  • Vasoconstriction: less filtration as Pa decreased, and absorption increases
  • Vasodilation- Pa increases, so filtration increases and absorption decreases
  • Increased Pv (heart failure)- Increased filtration, decreased absorption
  • Dehydration: Decreased filtration, increased absorption
  • Hypoproteinemia: Increased filtration, decreased absorption
292
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A
Return blood components to the circulation
Absorption from the gut (esp. fats)
Removes RBCs to tissues
Lymph noes
Elephatiasis and lymphodema
293
Q

What is the bernoulli principle?

A

Total energy of laminar flow without resistant is constant, and equals the sum of pressure energy (PxV), gravitational energy, and kinetic energy. Total energy= PV + pgh + 1/2pv^2

294
Q

What happens to energy when a vessel narrows?

A
  • velocity increases
    Kinetic energy increases
    Although: total energy remains the same
    Therefore, there must be a pressure drop
295
Q

What implication does the bernoulli principle have for pathology?

A

Due to the narrowing in heart valves during closure, the blood is sucked rapidly through the space, creating a sort of vacuum and sucking the leaflets closed.
In delayed valve closure, the forward flow continues because of a kinetic energy difference, as ventricular blood has a higher total energy compared to the artery

296
Q

What can be the cause of chest pain?

A

Cardiac issues: MI, myocarditis, pericarditis, HF
Aortic dissection
Respiratory issues: Pulmonary embolism, infection, COPD, asthma, pneumothorax

297
Q

What are the two types of acute MI?

A

ST elevation MI (STEMI)

Non-ST elevation MI (Non-STEMI)

298
Q

What causes MI?

A

MI is caused due to the rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque, causing platelets to aggregate and the thrombus to occlude the blood vessel.

299
Q

What are the initial drugs used in acute MI?

A

Aspirin and similar, to overcome the activation of platelets
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) as an anticoagulant
Thrombolytics in less advanced centres, which break the clot down. Modern centres use a stent to open up the thrombus

300
Q

What is the difference between STEMI and NSTEMI on an EKG?

A

STEMIs show elevation between the S and T wave, esp. on the V3 lead
NSTEMIs show depression of the ST segment on V3

301
Q

How do you initially manage STEMIs and NSTEMIs?

A

NSTEMIs and STEMIs: Morphine, nitrates for vasodilation, aspirin (+/- clopidogrel) beta blockers.
NSTEMIs: LMWH
STEMIs: LMWH, and either a thrombolytic or a stent

302
Q

How do you give thrombolytics and what are their risk factors?

A

Given intravenously or via bolus
It catalyses plasminogen to plasmin, to lyse the thrombus. Best given within 12 hours of chest pain onset. Streptokinase is non-human protein so may cause an allergic reaction, alteplase is human.
Risks bleeding, and allergic reactions from non-human protein.

303
Q

What are LMWH and what do they do? What are their risk factors?

A

They are small chains, usually generated by depolymerisation of unfractioned heparin
They inhibit factor Xa, which converts prothrombin to thrombin, and are injected subcutaneously.
Side effects can be bruising and bleeding, or thrombocytopenia

304
Q

How does aspirin work? What are its side effects?

A

It inhibits platelet cyclo-oxygenase, which prevents thromboxane production. (thromboxane causes vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.
It is used in acute MI, chronic angina, stroke and peripheral vascular disease.
Side effects are dyspepsia and GI ulcers due to reduced PGE2
Also increased asthma exacerbation

305
Q

What is clopidogrel, and why is it used? What are its side effects?

A

It inhibits the purine platelet receptor, preventing ADP-induced thrombosis. This is done to cover another method of platelet activation than covered by aspirin.
Side effects include upper GI symptoms and bleeding, as well as rash.
Used with acute coronary syndromes, aspirin allergy, and vascular stenting

306
Q

What is ticagrelor?

A

A new platelet inhibitor that is reversible. However, causes dyspnoea and bleeding

307
Q

What are nitrates and when are the used?

A

Used in acute MI and chronic angina. These can be absorbed rapidly through oral, IV, sublingual and transdermal methods. They increase the bioavailability of nitric oxide, allowing vasodilation. Their main side effect is headache. In sustained therapy, a tolerance can be built up, causing a loss of efficacy. This can be prevented by nitrate dosing and a nitrate free period

308
Q

What do beta blockers do? How can they differ?

A

Beta blockers antagonise the B1 and B2 receptors, which cause an inhibition of sympathetic activity in the body. This allows the reduction of cardiac work by causing acute reduction in cardiac work and a negative chronotropy. There can be different selectivity (B1>B2 and vice versa) as well as differences in elimination location, solubility and half life.
Side effects include asthma exacerbation, hypotension and bradycardia, fatigue, and withdrawal symptoms

309
Q

What features do you look for when taking a history to diagnose MI?

A

Pain nature, duration, radiation and assoc. features
Risk factors such as smoking, diabetes, lipids, blood pressure, family hx
Past medical history

310
Q

What features do you look for when conducting an examination to diagnose MI?

A

Vital signs, like bP
Heart sounds and any bruits
JVP and oedema

311
Q

What tests can you use to diagnose an acute coronary syndrome?

A

ECG

Blood troponin levels (released when contractile cells are damaged)

312
Q

How do MR scanners work?

A

They contain radiofrequency coils that transmit to surface coils. H atoms align to the field and protons swing back into place once the transmission is over, and emit radiowaves. The computer reconstructs the image.

313
Q

What are some issues with cardiac MRI?

A
The structures are small
Patients have to hold their breath
Pictures have to be taken in time with the heartbeat
Cardiac arrhythmias complicate things
Need cooperation of patients
314
Q

How do you measure the myocardium using cardiac MRI?

A

Can take a measure of LV size, a measure of LV lumen size, and subtract it.

315
Q

How do you use cardiac MRI to determine whether tissue is viable?

A

Gadolinium contrast is taken up and removed from healthy tissue quickly, whereas it stays in tissues with a poor blood supply for longer. If the ventricle is only 50% or less black, healthy tissue, it is not viable

316
Q

What is coronary angiography

A

Involves feeding a tube from the femoral or radial artery into the coronary artery entrance, and injecting dye while taking photos. A multi-holed catheter can be used to see the chamber.

317
Q

What is balloon angioplasty and what are its benefits/drawbacks?

A

A way of reopening blocked coronary vessels. Pass a balloon into the vessel, inflate it into the stent, and then deflate and remove balloon- the stent stays open
Stents are coated in drugs to prevent stenosis, and ensure patency.
There is a slight risk of thrombosis if the stent doesn’t fully inflate the vessel, or if the vessel wall tears during insertion- risk increased in multiple or long standing lesions, diabetes and restenosis procedures

318
Q

What are the pros of CT angiography?

A

Non-invasive, so it’s cheap and with less risk
Images both the vessel wall and the lumen
Can see other thoracic issues
Lower radiation and contrast
Doesn’t need a specialist facility

319
Q

What are the cons of CT angiography?

A

Poor images of tachycardics
Requires patient cooperation
Issues with calcified vessels
More difficult to interpret.

320
Q

What are the key components in regulating the circulation?

A

Cardiac function
Vascular function
Blood volume

321
Q

What is the main determinant of CO?

A

The body’s Oxygen demands

322
Q

What is shown by guyton’s experimental model?

A

Guyton built a model of the circulatory system with a pump for a heart. When the heart was pumping at 100ml/s, the Pa was 102 and Pv was 2.
When the pump stopped, the pressures equalized to 7mmHg (a drop of 1mmHg in the veins for each 19mmHg in the arteries, due to the increased compliance of the veins). This is the mean systemic filling pressure

323
Q

How does venous return change at different Right atrial pressures?

A

As the RAP falls, the return gradient increases, so venous return increases. However, below about 1mmHg, the curve plateaus. This is due to the fact that the large veins collapse at very low pressures, causing an increase in resistance and no further increase in VR
At higher RAPs, venous return decreases to 0 at mean systemic filling pressure.

324
Q

How does venous return vs RAP change at different blood volumes?

A

In transfusions, there is an increase in venous tone, so the venous return curve shifts up. This means there is more flow at a given RAP. In haemorrhage or decreased venous tone, the curve shifts down,

325
Q

What does the venous retur/transfusion curve have to do with capacitance?

A

C = dV/dP. dP = C/dV
If dV increases or venous tone (C) decreases, the there is higher systemic filling pressure- although the TPR (slope) is unchanged. Venous return always levels off at the same RAP.

326
Q

How does a change in arteriolar tone affect venous return?

A

Constriction causes decreased venous return, while dilation causes increased venous return.

327
Q

What things affect venous return?

A

Right atrial P
Degree of filling in terms of the volume of blood
Systemic vascular resistance

328
Q

What is the cardiac output curve and what affects it?

A

It’s a curve of mean right atrial pressure vs. cardiac output. It’s sigmoidal, similar to ventricular function curves. The output of the heart as a whole is dependent on the filling of the right heart. At increased input volume, CO increases
Affected by Preload, afterload, inotropy and chronotropy

329
Q

What is the equilibrium between CO and VR?

A

The point at which the two curves intersect. The two flows must be equal at all times

330
Q

How does a blood transfusion change the CO/VR eq?

A

The cardiac function curve is unchanged, but the VR curve shifts up, finding a higher CO at a higher filling pressure. This is a similar response to that of venoconstriction

331
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation change the CO/VR eq?

A

Cardiac function moves up and to the left. The VR curve moves up due to venous constriction, and tilts to be flatter- this is a small effect of increased arterial resistance.
The new eq is a higher CO at a lower RAP.

332
Q

How does moving from supine to erect change the CO/VR eq?

A

Venous pooling increases capacity, causing a drop in ressure at the heart- VR curve shifts down.
As a reflex, the SNS increases HR and inoropy, allowing the VR and CO curves to move upwards, putting the final eq slightly lower and to the left of the original

333
Q

How does exercise change the CO/VR eq?

A

The CO curve shifts way up due to inotropy, HR, increased afterload and decreased mean arterial resistance due to skeletal muscle vessel dilation
The VR curve shifts up massively due to increased venous tone, increased depth of inspiration pulling the blood into the chest, and activation of venous muscle pumps due to movement.

334
Q

How does heart failure change the CO/VR eq?

A

HF means the heart’s ability to eject blood is impaired. CO falls, venous pressure rises, and the kidneys retain fluid, allowing the VR curve to shift up as in transfusion.
In moderate HF this means that CO is maintained, but in more severe HF, CO falls at increased venous pressures.

335
Q

What are the clinical signs of HF?

A

Raised JVP
Pulmonary Oedema
Peripheral Oedema

336
Q

What are treatments of HF?

A

Diuretics, to remove fluid, lower venous pressures and reduce ventricular size/wall stress
Vasodilators reduce afterload and remodelling
Beta blockers
Positive inotropes
Diet (reduction in salt)

337
Q

What is the link between sore throats and heart disease?

A

Rheumatic heart disease begins as a sore throat called ‘strep throat’ due to the bacteria streptococcus

338
Q

How does rheumatic fever present?

A
  • Sore, swollen joints
  • Restless in school with poor handwriting
  • Shortness of breath
339
Q

In NZ who is most at risk of getting rheumatic fever and why?

A

Maori and Pacific children, those in crowded circumstances or lower socioeconomic areas. This is because the bacteria spreads easily in children and in poor housing, or less sanitary environments you are more likely to contract it.

340
Q

What are the prevention strategies to reduce the risk of rheumatic fever, both in communities and in individuals with an RF history?

A

Improve housing quality and nutrition, reduce smoking, crowding. Increase awareness of sore throats and access to primary care
Early identification of RF and RF register + penicillin

341
Q

What is heart failure?

A

A cardiac condition characterized by SOB, exercise limitation and fatigue, as well as peripheral and pulmonary congestion secondary to cardiac abnormalities.

342
Q

What are the symptoms of LHS vs RHS heart failure?

A

LHS is lung crackles, low SpO2, dyspnoea and GI symptoms

RHS is jugular venous distension, liver engorgement, ascites and peripheral edema.

343
Q

What investigations can be done to diagnose heart failure?

A

Can do an ECG, take brain natriuretic peptide levels (elevated in HF), do a chest Xray and use chest ultrasounds

344
Q

What does ejection fraction have to do with heart failure?

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction is known as diastolic heart failure- an inability to fill the heart, with high left ventricular diastolic pressures. It’s often due to remodelling secondary to increased afterload, as found in hypertension and aortic stenosis.
Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction is known as systolic heart failure, showing an inability of the myocardium to contract, with increased EDV. It’s due to dilated cardiomyopathy where myocytes have increased in length. Typically occurs after infarction.

345
Q

What is the physical difference between diastolic and systolic heart failure?

A

Diastolic heart failure shows the muscle becoming thicker as sarcomeres are added deep and superficial to the existing muscle
Systolic heart failure shows adding extra sarcomeres next to existing ones, causing lengthening and dilation of the chamber.

346
Q

How do the pressure volume loops change upon systolic heart failure? How does the body compensate for this?

A

Systolic dysfunction:

  • When the heart begins to fail, less blood is ejected- stroke volume decreases.
  • The reduced cardiac output and increased stretch in the heart & pulm. vessels compensate for this by increasing venous return via aldosterone, allowing for an increase in EDV. However, the increased energy expenditure can worsen the existing problem
347
Q

How do the pressure volume loops change upon diastolic heart failure? How does the body compensate for this?

A

In diastolic heart failure, there is less space to take blood into, so EDV decreases and SV decreases. This increases the steepness of the venous pressure/volume curve
- The reduced CO results in aldosterone release causing increased venous return, resulting in an increase in EDV, increasing stroke volume.

348
Q

What is the relationship between LaPlace’s law and the vicious cycle of LHS and RHS heart failure?

A
  • LHS:
    Increased diastolic wall stress –> sarcomere addition –> myocyte elongation –> increased cavity volume- LaPlace’s law states that this leads to increased wall stress
    -RHS: Increased systolic wall stress –> parallel sarcomere addition –> myocyte thickening –> increased wall thickness –> lessens wall stress
349
Q

How do you treat heart failure?

A
  • Self-management is encouraged, especially weight monitoring, smoking cessation, exercise, and cutting salt.
    Drug treatment usually targets the RAA system and the sympathetic nervous system. The order of treatment severity goes diuretic –> beta blockers & ACE inhibitors -> aldosterone antagonist and angiotensin II blockers, digoxin and anticoagulants.
    +ve inotropic drugs are only for acute systolic failure and end stage failure
    Other treatments include heart transplants and assist devices.
350
Q

What are some of the psychological risk factors for CVD?

A

Stress and negative emotions
These cause increased HR and vasoconstriction, leading to lesions
-Hormonal changes, reducing resilience
- Changes in lipids
- Stress hormones can inflame coronary arteries

351
Q

Why does poor mental state link to cardiac issues?

A

Causes increased SNS and decreased PNS function
Poor adherence to medication
More stressful existence and poor health habits

352
Q

What are the components of coping with CVD post-illness and what drives it?

A

Events can lead to cardiac invalidism, where there is a feeling of helplessness etc.
Physcial components can be fatigue, hypervigilance, disability, aches and pains, and sleep problems
Cognitive can be poor concentration and memory, and altered decision making and thinking patterns
Emotional recations are roller coster emotions and loss of confidence
Behaviour changes involve decreased motivation and social life, as well as relationship, adherence and work problems

353
Q

How does depression affect CVD?

A

It increases the risk of CVD in males, and also predicts survival following MI
This is due to the behavioural and biological context associated with depression- lack of exercise, HPA axis issues, platelet dysfunction, inflammation etc.

354
Q

What are some examples of interventions that can help to minimize the risk of psychological impacts on CVD?

A

Stress management, CBT and mindfulness
Lifestyle changes
Pharmacotherapy

355
Q

What is takutsubo syndrome?

A

A situation where the left ventricle balloons out after a sudden stress, usually occurring in post-menopausal women.

356
Q

How does takutsubo syndrome present?

A

Chest pain and SOB secondary to severe stress
EKG abnormalities
No artery obstruction
Ballooning and abnormal movement in LV

357
Q

What causes chronic angina?

A

A fixed stenosis of a coronary vessel, rather than an acute rupture. In angina after exertion, there is a relative ischaemia due to the stenosis as the oxygen requirements go up.

358
Q

What information is needed when taking a history for chronic angina?

A

Chest pain’s nature, relieving/exacerbating factors and associations.
Duration of pain
Risk factors

359
Q

What information is needed when examining a patient with chronic angina?

A

BO, heart sounds, oedema and bruits

360
Q

What investigations can be done for chronic angina?

A
ECG
CXR
Exercise treadmill test
Echocardiogram
Angiography/angiogram
361
Q

What are the options for managing chronic angina?

A

Pharmacological- reduces symptoms or CVS risk

Interventional- can do surgery if multiple vessels stenosed or stenting if 1-2 vessels stenosed

362
Q

What drugs can decrease the symptoms of angina?

A
  • Beta blockers
  • Nitrates
  • Calcium channel blockers
363
Q

What drugs can reduce MI risk?

A
  • Antiplatelets

- Lipid lowering drugs

364
Q

How do Ca2+ channel blockers work

A

The block L type Ca2+ channels within the resistance vessels, myocardium and conducting tissue.
This causes vasodilation, causing decreased resistance and blood pressure. other varieties cause decreased contractility and SA rate in the heart

365
Q

What beta blockers cause the different classes of reaction?

A

Dihydropiridines and benzothiazepines cause vascular relaxation
Phenylalkylamine causes heart effects

366
Q

What is nicorandil and how does it help with angina?

A

It acts like a nitrate, as well as increasing K+atp channels, hyperpolarizing the myocytes and reducing contraction response

367
Q

What do statins do?

A

They inhibit an enzyme involved inc cholesterol formation, causing cells to increase their LDL receptors due to less cholesterol production (more sensitivity) and take up more cholesterol into themselves. It also blocks inflammatory pathways

368
Q

What are the benefits and side effects of statins?

A
  • Prevents MI and CVA as well as mortality
    Side effects include myalgia, myositis, renal failure due to muscle brekdown and deranged liver function tests, as well as being a teratogen
    It has an interaction with cytochrome P450 and fibrates/