Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

0
Q

What nerve is affected by this injury?

Fibular neck fracture

A

Trauma to the lateral leg can cause common peroneal damage. Sensory deficit would be anterolateral leg & dorsum of foot.

TIPPED:
Tibial inverts & plantar flexes, Peroneal everts & dorsiflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the muscles of the thenar & hypothenar eminences?

A 
Both are OAF
Thenar:
Opponens pollicis
Adbuctor pollicis brevis/Adductor pollicis
Flexor policis brevis

Hypothenar:
Opponens digiti minimi
Abductor digiti minimi brevis
Flexor digiti minimi brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What nerve is affected by this injury?

Knee trauma

A

Tibial nerve can be injured in knee trauma. Sensory deficit would be the sole of the foot. The most important thing to assess with knee dislocation or trauma is the popliteal artery. It is easily injured & can lead to amputation.

TIPPED:
Tibial inverts & plantar flexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerves could be affected by this injury?

Posterior hip dislocation

A

Superior gluteal –> Trendelenberg sign

Inferior gluteal –> Can’t rise from a seat or climb stairs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What nerve is affected by this injury?

Anterior hip dislocation

A

Obturator nerve

Motor: Thigh adduction deficit
Sensory: Medial thigh deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What nerve is affected by this injury?

Pelvic fracture

A

Femoral n. is common

Motor defcicit: Thigh flexion & leg extension
Sensory deficit: Anterior thigh & medial leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the types of fibers in skeletal muscle?

A

Type I & Type II

“1 slow red ox”

Type 1 are slow twitch
Red due to myoglobin & mitochondria
Oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does NO cause smooth muscle relaxation?

A

NO –> ^Guanylate cyclase activity –> ^cGMP –> myosin light chain phosphatase (MLCP) –> relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two types of bone formation & where do they occur?

A

Endochondral ossification:
Bones of axial & appendicular skeleton
Cartilaginous model made first by chondrocytes. Then osteoblasts/clasts –> woven bone –> lamellar bone

Membranous ossification:
Skullcap & facial bones
Woven bone –> lamellar bone (no cartilage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does estrogen affect bone metabolism?

A

Inhibits apoptosis in osteoblasts

Induces apoptosis in osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What causes achondroplasia?

A

Autosomal dominant activating mutation in FGFR3 –> inhibits chondrocyte proliferation –> impaired endochondral ossification

*** >80% of mutations are spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is seen in osteoporosis?

A

Trabecular (spongy) bone loses mass & interconnections
Normal lab values
Abnormal DEXA scan
Pathologic fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of fractures are seen in Osteoporosis?

A

Femoral neck fracture
Vertebral crush fracture
Distal radius fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the types of osteoporosis?

A

Type I = postmenopausal

Type II = senile (men & women >70y)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What causes osteopetrosis?

What is seen?

A

Mutations impair osteoclasts’ ability to form acidic environment required for resorption. Common cause is mutated carbonic anhydrase type 2.

Symptoms:
Pancytopenia
Extramedullary hematopoiesis
Dense bones on X-ray with no medulla
Cranial nerve impingement –> focal deficits
Type II renal tubular acidosis (if carbonic anhydrase def.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is seen histologically with osteomalacia/rickets?

A

Vit. D deficiency –> impaired mineralization of osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is seen with osteomalacia & rickets?

A

^PTH, ^Alk Phos, decreased Ca2+ & Phosphate
Osteomalacia - pathologic fractures

Rickets:
Pigeon-breast deformity
Rachitic rosary
Frontal bossing
Bowing of legs (if ambulatory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is seen with Osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A 
^Alkaline phosphatase (the only abnormal lab)
Hearing loss
Lion face
Mosaic/woven pattern of bone
Fractures
^ Hat size

Increased risk for osteosarcoma & high output CHF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is seen in McCune-Albright Syndrome?

A

Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (bone replaced with fibrous tissue)
Precocious puberty
Cafe-au-lait spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where on the bone are the various primary cancers typically found?

A

Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma) - Epiphysis
Osteosarcoma & Osteochondroma - Metaphysis
Ewing’s & Chondrosarcoma - Diaphysis

Chondrosarcoma is typically intramedullary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does a giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma) present?

A

Soap bubble appearance on x-ray
Located at the epiphysis (knee)
Spindle cells with multinucleate giant cells
20-40y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does an Osteochondroma present?

A

Mature bone with cartilaginous cap (looks like little bone)
Found on metaphysis
Males under 25y
^Risk of chondrosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What risk factors are associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Familial retinoblastoma
Paget’s disease of the bone
Radiation
Bone infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is seen with osteosarcoma?

A

Codman’s triangle (elevation of periosteum)
Sunburst x-ray
Found at metaphysis of long bones (knee)
Male teenagers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What mutation is seen in Ewing’s Sarcoma?

A

t(11;22)

11+22 = 33 (Patrick Ewing’s number)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is seen with Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Seen in males <15y
Anaplastic small blue cell tumor (from neuroectoderm)
Onion skin appearance

Aggressive with early mets but responds well to chemo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is seen with chondrosarcoma?

A

Found in axial or proximal skeleton
Men 30-60y
Mass within the medullary cavity (diaphysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

With bone tumors, what does the response to aspirin mean?

A

Responds to aspirin —> osteoid osteoma

Does not respond –> osteoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What metastases are osteolytic?

Osteoblastic?

A

Osteoblastic = Prostate cancer

Osteolytic = BLT w/ Ketchup & Mustard

Breast (lytic/blastic)
Lung
Thyroid
Kidney
Multiple myeloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What joint findings are seen in osteoarthritis?

A

Subchondral cysts
Osteophytes (bone spurs)
Eburnation (polished bone)
Heberden’s nodes (DIP); Bouchard’s nodes (PIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What intra-articular findings are seen in RA?

A 
Pannus formation (granulation tissue)
Rheumatoid nodules
Ulnar deviation
Fusion
Baker's cyst (in popliteal fossa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What Ig’s are seen in RA?

A 
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide Ab
Rheumatoid factor (IgM against Fc portion of IgG)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is seen in Sjögren’s syndrome?

A 
Dry eyes (Xerophthalmia)
Dry mouth (Xerostomia)
Arthritis
Parotid enlargement (if occurring quickly or asymmetrically --> B cell lymphoma!!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What Ab’s are present in Sjögren’s syndrome?

A

RoLa = AB

Anti-Ro = SS-A
Anti-La = SS-B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are risk factors for gout?

A 
Thiazide diuretics
von Gierke's disease
^ cell turnover (malignancy)
Lesch-Nyhan
Renal insufficiency

Vast majority is primary goud (idiopathic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of crystals might be seen on a joint tap?

A

Needle shaped & negatively birefringent –> gout
(Monosodium urate)

Rhomboid & positively birefringent –> pseudogout
(Calcium pyrophosphate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the treatment for gout?

A 
Acute = NSAID's; Steroids
Chronic = Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (Allopurinol, Febuxostat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the common bugs in septic arthritis?

A

S. aureus
Streptococcus
Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the risk factors for Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis)?

A 
Trauma
High-dose corticosteroids
Alcoholism
Sickle cell anemia
SLE

*Seen most commonly in the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the seronegative spondylarthropathies?

Who are they seen in?

A 
PAIR:
Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Reiter's syndrome (reactive arthritis)

They are more common in males & those with HLA-B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is seen with psoriatic arthritis?

A

Psoriasis
Asymmetric joint pain
Dactylitis –> “pencil in cup” deformity on x-ray

41
Q

What is seen with ankylosing spondylitis?

A 
Chronic inflammation of spine & sacroiliac joints
Ankylosis = fusion of spine
"bamboo spine" on x-ray
Uveitis
Aortitis --> aortic regurgitation
42
Q

What is seen in Reiter’s syndrome?

A

Reactive arthritis triad:
Conjunctivitis
Urethritis
Arthritis

“Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree”

43
Q

What population gets SLE?

A

Females between 14-45

Most common & most severe in black women

44
Q

What are the features of SLE?

A

I’M DAMN SHARP

Immunoglobulins (autoAb's)
Malar rash
Discoid rash
Antinuclear Ab
Mucositis (oropharyngeal ulcers)
Neurologic psychosis
Serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis)
Hematologic disorders
Arthritis
Renal disorders (DPGN = most common cause of death)
Photosensitivity

Also Libman-Sacks endocarditis, Raynaud’s, hilar LAD, fever, fatigue, weight loss.

45
Q

What cardiac manifestations can be seen with SLE?

A

Libman-Sacks endocarditis:
Sterile wart-like vegetations on both sides of the valve

Myocarditis, pericarditis

46
Q

What hematologic manifestations are seen in SLE?

A

Lupus anticoagulant –> hypercoagulable but ^PTT
Any combination of anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
Immunoglobulins against everything ever

47
Q

What is seen with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?

A

Lupus anticoagulant:

  • -Paradoxical ^PTT
  • -DVT’s
  • -Bud-Chiari
  • -Placental thrombosis (recurrent pregnancy loss)
  • -Stroke

Anticardiolipin –> false-positive VDRL

48
Q

What diagnostic antibodies are seen in SLE?

A

Antinuclear Ab’s (ANA) - sensitive, not specific for SLE
Anti-dsDNA - Specific; poor prognosis
Anti-Smith - Very specific
Antihistone - Drug induced lupus

49
Q

What drugs are associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

HIP:

Hydralazine
INH
Procainamide

50
Q

What is seen in diffuse systemic scleroderma?

A

Excessive fibrosis & collagen deposition of any organ (pulmonary, renal, CV, GI)
Esophageal dysmotility
Tight skin, especially hands & face
Anti-DNA Topoisomerase I Ab (Anti-Scl-70)
ANA’s

51
Q

What is seen in CREST syndrome?

A 
Calcinosis cutis
Raynaud's
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia

Anti-centromere Ab’s

52
Q

What is seen with sarcoidosis?

A 
HULA BABIES
Hypercalcemia (epithelioid macs express 1-alpha-hydroxylase)
Uveitis
Lymphadenopathy (bilateral hilar)
^ACE levels
Black females
Asteroid bodies
Bell's palsy
Interstitial lung fibrosis
Erythema nodosum
Schaumann bodies
53
Q

What is seen histologically in polymyositis & dermatomyositis?

A

Polymyositis - Endomysial inflammation with CD8+ infiltration & necrotic muscle fibers.

Dermatomyositis - Perimysial inflammation with CD4+ infiltration & perimysial atrophy.

**The one that has skin manifestations is closer to the skin (perimysial)

54
Q

What is seen clinically with dermatomyositis?

A

Proximal muscle weakness (like polymyositis)
Malar rash
Gottron’s papules (knuckles, elbows, knees)
Heliotrope rash (upper eyelids)
^risk of occult (often gastric) malignancy

55
Q

What labs are abnormal in dermatomyositis/polymyositis?

A

^CK
ANA’s
Anti-Jo-1 Ab’s

Tx = steroids

56
Q

What is seen with Mysthenia gravis?

A 
Ptosis, diplopia
Weakness
Worsens with muscle use (ACh gets depleted)
AChE inhibitors reverse symptoms
Thymic hyperplasia/Thymoma
57
Q

What is seen with LEMS?

A

Proximal muscle weakness & autonomic symptoms
Improves with muscle use
Underlying small cell lung carcinoma
AChE inhibitors have no effect

58
Q

What causes MG and LEMS?

A

Myasthenia Gravis - AutoAb’s against postsynaptic ACh receptor compete with ACh for it.

LEMS - AutoAb’s against presynaptic Ca2+ channel decrease ACh release

59
Q

What causes myositis ossificans?

A

Muscular trauma –> metaplasia of muscle to bone at site

Usually seen in arm or leg muscles. Can present as a mass following trauma or finding on radiography.

60
Q 
Define these terms:
Hyperkeratosis
Parakeratosis
Orthokeratosis
Acanthosis
Acantholysis
A

Hyperkeratosis - ^stratum corneum (consists of para & ortho)
Parakeratosis - ^stratum corneum with retention of nuclei
Orthokeratosis - ^stratum corneum with no nuclei
Acanthosis - ^stratum spinosum (epidermal hyperplasia)
Acantholysis - separation of erpidermal cells

61
Q

What causes melasma?

A

Melasma = blotchy hyperpigmentation of the face from pregnancy or OCP use

62
Q

What causes vitiligo?

A

Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes

63
Q

What are the two types of nevi?

A

Junctional - found in children; flat

Intradermal - found in adults; raised

64
Q 
What are the medical terms for the following?
Wart
Freckle
Mole
Hive
A

Wart - Verruca
Freckle - Ephelis
Mole - Melanocytic nevus
Hive - Urticaria (presents as a wheal)

65
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is eczema & contact dermatitis?

A

Atopic dermatitis (eczema) - Type I hypersensitivity

Allergic contact dermatitis - Type IV hypersensitivity

66
Q

What is seen clinically with psoriasis?

Histologically?

A

Scaling plaques on extensor surfaces
Auspitz sign
Histo - ^spinosum, thin granulosum, parakeratosis, long papillae

Can see nail pitting (little dents in nails) or psoriatic arthritis

67
Q

What causes Leser-Trelat sign?

A

Leser-Trelat sign = sudden appearance of dozens of seborrheic keratoses. Indicates underlying malignancy (often GI).

68
Q

What causes pemphigus vulgaris?

What is seen?

A

AutoAb against Desmoglein 1 and/or 3

Flaccid blisters & crusts involving skin AND ORAL MUCOSA
Reticular (fishnet) immunofluorescence
Acantholysis with tombstoning
Positive Nikolski’s sign (separation upon stroking of skin)

69
Q

What causes Bullous pemphigoid?

What is seen?

A

AutoAb’s against Hemidesmosomes

Tense blisters with eosinophils on skin (spares oral mucosa)
Linear immunofluorescence along DEJ

70
Q

What causes Dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Anti-gliadin IgA Ab’s cross react with Reticulin in skin

Tiny blisters at the tips of papillae (elbows)

71
Q

What can cause erythema multiforme?

What is seen?

A

HSV & other infections
Drugs
Cancers
Autoimmune disease

Targets with a red outside & dusky grey inside

72
Q

What is seen with SJS/TEN?

A

Fever, bullae, sloughing of skin
Mucous membranes involved
If > 30% TBSA –> TEN

Usually caused by adverse drug reaction.

73
Q

What is seen with acanthosis nigricans?

What causes it?

A

Hyperpigmented, velvety thick skin
Seen in neck, axilla, groin

Associated with:
Hyperinsulinemia
Visceral malignancy

74
Q

What is seen with erythema nodosum?

What is it associated with?

A

Inflammatory red lesions of subcutaneous fat. Usually seen on anterior shins.

Associated with:
Sarcoidosis
Histoplasmosis & Coccidiomycosis
TB & Leprosy
Crohn's disease
Streptococcal infections
75
Q

What is seen with lichen planus?

What is it associated with?

A

6 P’s: Pruritic, purple, polygonal, planar papules & plaques
Seen on wrists, elbows, oral mucosa
Sawtooth infiltrate of lymphocytes at DEJ

Associated with HepC

76
Q

What causes Pityriasis rosea?

What is seen?

A

Viral illness causes it somehow

Herald patch followed by Christmas tree distribution on torso

Resolves on its own in 6-8 weeks

77
Q

Where are lower extremity venous & arterial ulcers seen?

A

Venous ulcers - Medial malleolus. Venous stasis dermatitis seen.

Arterial ulcers - Lateral malleolus

78
Q

What is seen in Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

Exfoliative toxins destroy keratinocyte attachments in the STRATUM GRANULOSUM (vs. SJS/TEN which is DEJ)
Fever
Rash with slouging
Heals completely

79
Q

What are the relative incidences of skin cancers?

A

BCC > SCC > Melanoma

This also corresponds to their prognosis.

80
Q

What are the risk factors for SCC of the skin?

A 
Immunosuppression (most common malignancy)
Arsenic exposure (think of the women who wanted light skin)

Common to all skin cancers:
Sun exposure
Albinism
Xeroderma pigmentosum

81
Q

What is Keratoacanthoma?

A

A variant of skin SCC that grows rapidly & regresses spontaneously. It is cup shaped with keratin debris in the center.

82
Q

What is the tumor marker for melanoma?

What mutation is commonly seen?

A

S-100 is the tumor marker (neural crest origin)

BRAF kinase activating mutation is common. If BRAF V600E –> treat with vemurafenib (BRAF kinase inhibitor).

83
Q

What is the most important prognostic indicator of melanoma?

A

Depth of invasion

84
Q

What are the subtypes of melanoma?

A

1) Superficial spreading (good prognosis)
2) Nodular (poor prognosis)
3) Lentigo maligna
4) Acrolentiginous (not related to UV; seen on palms & soles; seen in dark-skinned people)

85
Q

What does the Lipoxygenase pathway produce?

What are their roles?

A

Lipoxygenase –> Leukotrienes (both start with L)

LTB4 - Neutrophil chemotaxis (they get there B4 everyone else)

LTC4,D4,E4 - vascular & bronchial SM contraction & vascular permeability

86
Q

What is formed by the Cyclooxygenase pathway?

What are their functions?

A

TXA2 - platelet aggregation; constricts vascular & bronchial SM

Prostaglandins (PGE2, PGF):
^Uterine tone
Relaxes vascular & bronchial SM

Prostacyclin (PGI2):
Inhibits platelet aggregation
Relaxes vascular & bronchial SM
Relaxes uterine tone

87
Q

What is used to close a PDA?

A

Indomethacin

It is an NSAID

88
Q

What is Celecoxib used for?

What are its toxicities?

A

It is a reversible COX-2 inhibitor (NSAID). Spares the gastric mucosa & platelet function. It is used for RA.

Toxicities:
Thrombosis
Sulfa reaction

89
Q

What is the mechanism of Acetaminophen?

A

It is a reversible COX inhibitor. It is inactivater peripherally & thus exerts its effects largely in the CNS –> analgesic, antipyretic, but not anti-inflammatory.

90
Q

What is the mechanism of bisphosphonates?
What are they used for?
What are their toxicities?

A

Bisphosphonates (end in -dronate) bind hydroxyapatite in bone
–> inhibition of osteoclasts

Used for osteoporosis, Paget’s disease, hypercalcemia

Toxicities:
Pill esophagitis
Osteonecrosis of the jaw

91
Q

What are the drugs for chronic gout management?

What are their unique characteristics?

A

Febuxostat - XO inhibitor; less drug interactions & less renal toxicity than allopurinol

Allopurinol - XO inhibitor; ^concentrations of azathioprine & 6-MP

Probenecid - inhibits PCT reabsorption of urate; ^penicillin levels; avoid if Hx of kidney stones

92
Q

What are the TNF inhibitors?

A

All TNF inhibitors ^risk of reactivation TB & Hepatitis

Etanercept - fusion protein decoy receptor (fused w/ IgG Fc)

Infliximab/Adalimumab - mAb against TNF

Used for PAIR diseases & RA

93
Q 
What structures do these fetal structures give rise to?
Truncus arteriosus
Bulbus cordis
Sinus venosus
Right anterior & common cardinal veins
A

Truncus arteriosus –> ascending aorta & pulmonary trunk
Bulbus cordis –> outflow tract of LV & RV
Sinus venosus:
-Left horn –> coronary sinus
-Right horn –> smooth part of RA
Right anterior & right common cardinal vein –> SVC

94
Q

From where is the aorticopulmonary derived?

A

Neural crest migration

95
Q

What muscles are involved in abduction of the arm?

A

1) Supraspinatus (0-15 degrees)
2) Deltoid (15-90 degrees)
3) Trapezius & Serratus anterior (90-180 degrees)

96
Q

What is tennis elbow?

Golfers elbow?

A

Tennis elbow = lateral epicondylitis (common extensor tendon)

Golfer’s elbow = medial epicondylitis (common flexor tendon)

97
Q

What roots are injured in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

What nerves?

A

C5 & C6

Axillary, suprascapular, musculocutaneous

98
Q

What can be injured with a posterior hip dislocation?

What is seen?

A

Superior gluteal –> trendelenberg sign

Inferior gluteal –> can’t get up from chair/climb stairs

99
Q

What ligament is injured in an ankle sprain?

A

Anterior talofibular (lateral) ligament

100
Q

What is seen with forced eversion of the ankle joint?

A

Pott’s fracture

Medial malleolus avulsed (deltoid ligament)
Fibula is fractured higher up

101
Q

Where does the pain of costochondritis occur?

A

The left parasternal border
Usually affects >1 rib
Worsens with deep breathing

Boards (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions